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• In maven2, how do I assemble bits and pieces of different modules to create final distributions?

  - by Carcassi

  I have four maven project: client api jar web service war ui jar web interface war The service war will need to be packaged to include the client api jar, together with javadocs (so that each version is distributed with a matching client and documentation). The web interface war will need the ui jar and all the dependencies (webstart/applet deployment). So I need a 5th project that does all the packaging. How to do this with ant or a script is perfectly clear to me, but not in maven. I tried the following: having the javadocs included as part of the war packaging: this requires the execution of the javadocs goal in project 1 before execution of package in project 2. Haven't found a way to bind plugins/goals across different projects. Using the assembly plugin in project2 had the same problem. create a fifth project and use the assembly plugin. Still the same problems as before, with the problem that since I need different pieces from each sub-project I do not understand how this can be done using the assembly. Is this too hard to do in maven, and should I just give up? Or I am looking at it wrong, in which case, how should I be looking at it? Thanks! Upon further reflection, here is a partial answer: Each project should build all its artifacts. This is done by having the plugins configured to run as per the prepare-resources and package phases. So, in my case, I prepare all that needs to be generated (jar, javadocs, xsd documentation, ...) as different artifacts so that a single "package" goal execution creates all. So, it's not "how project 2 forces project 1 to run different goals", but it's "make project 1 create all of its artifact as part as the normal lifecycle). This seems to simplify things.

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• [c++] accessing the hidden 'this' pointer

  - by Kyle

  I have a GUI architecture wherein elements fire events like so: guiManager->fireEvent(BUTTON_CLICKED, this); Every single event fired passes 'this' as the caller of the event. There is never a time I dont want to pass 'this', and further, no pointer except for 'this' should ever be passed. This brings me to a problem: How can I assert that fireEvent is never given a pointer other than 'this', and how can I simplify (and homogenize) calls to fireEvent to just: guiManager->fireEvent(BUTTON_CLICKED); At this point, I'm reminded of a fairly common compiler error when you write something like this: class A { public: void foo() {} }; class B { void oops() { const A* a = new A; a->foo(); } }; int main() { return 0; } Compiling this will give you ../src/sandbox.cpp: In member function ‘void B::oops()’: ../src/sandbox.cpp:7: error: passing ‘const A’ as ‘this’ argument of ‘void A::foo()’ discards qualifiers because member functions pass 'this' as a hidden parameter. "Aha!" I say. This (no pun intended) is exactly what I want. If I could somehow access the hidden 'this' pointer, it would solve both issues I mentioned earlier. The problem is, as far as I know you can't (can you?) and if you could, there would be outcries of "but it would break encapsulation!" Except I'm already passing 'this' every time, so what more could it break. So, is there a way to access the hidden 'this', and if not are there any idioms or alternative approaches that are more elegant than passing 'this' every time?

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• Why is my view controllers view not quadratic?

  - by mystify

  I created an UIViewController subclass, and figured out that the default implementation of -loadView in UIViewController will ignore my frame size settings in a strange way. To simplify it and to make sure it's really not the fault of my code, I did a clean test with a plain instance of UIViewController directly, rather than making a subclass. The result is the same. I try to make an exactly quadratic view of 320 x 320, but the view appears like 320 x 200. iPhone OS 3.0, please check this out: UIViewController *ts = [[UIViewController alloc] initWithNibName:nil bundle:nil]; ts.view.frame = CGRectMake(0.0f, 0.0f, 320.0f, 320.0f); ts.view.backgroundColor = [UIColor cyanColor]; [self.view addSubview:ts.view]; like you can see, I do this: 1) Create a UIViewController instance 2) Set the frame of the view to a quadratic dimension of 320 x 320 3) Give it a color, so I can see it 4) Added it as a subview. Now the part, that's even more strange: When I make my own implementation of -loadView, i.e. if I put this code in there like this: - (void)loadView { UIView *v = [[UIView alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(0.0f, 0.0f, 320.0f, 320.0f)]; v.backgroundColor = [UIColor cyanColor]; self.view = v; [v release]; } then it looks right. Now lets think about that: In the first example, I do pretty much exactly the same, just that I let UIViewController create the view on it's own, and then take it over in order to change it's frame. Right? So why do I get this strange error? Right now I see no other way of messing around like that to correct this wrong behavior. I did not activate anything like clipsToBounds and there's no other code touching this.

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• Need help with Django tutorial

  - by Nai

  I'm doing the Django tutorial here: http://docs.djangoproject.com/en/1.2/intro/tutorial03/ My TEMPLATE_DIRS in the settings.py looks like this: TEMPLATE_DIRS = ( "/webapp2/templates/" "/webapp2/templates/polls" # Put strings here, like "/home/html/django_templates" or "C:/www/django/templates". # Always use forward slashes, even on Windows. # Don't forget to use absolute paths, not relative paths. ) My urls.py looks like this: from django.conf.urls.defaults import * from django.contrib import admin admin.autodiscover() urlpatterns = patterns('', (r'^polls/$', 'polls.views.index'), (r'^polls/(?P<poll_id>\d+)/$', 'polls.views.detail'), (r'^polls/(?P<poll_id>\d+)/results/$', 'polls.views.results'), (r'^polls/(?P<poll_id>\d+)/vote/$', 'polls.views.vote'), (r'^admin/', include(admin.site.urls)), ) My views.py looks like this: from django.template import Context, loader from polls.models import Poll from django.http import HttpResponse def index(request): latest_poll_list = Poll.objects.all().order_by('-pub_date')[:5] t = loader.get_template('c:/webapp2/templates/polls/index.html') c = Context({ 'latest_poll_list': latest_poll_list, }) return HttpResponse(t.render(c)) I think I am getting the path of my template wrong because when I simplify the views.py code to something like this, I am able to load the page. from django.http import HttpResponse def index(request): return HttpResponse("Hello, world. You're at the poll index.") My index template file is located at C:/webapp2/templates/polls/index.html. What am I doing wrong?

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• Has inheritance become bad?

  - by mafutrct

  Personally, I think inheritance is a great tool, that, when applied reasonably, can greatly simplify code. However, I seems to me that many modern tools dislike inheritance. Let's take a simple example: Serialize a class to XML. As soon as inheritance is involved, this can easily turn into a mess. Especially if you're trying to serialize a derived class using the base class serializer. Sure, we can work around that. Something like a KnownType attribute and stuff. Besides being an itch in your code that you have to remember to update every time you add a derived class, that fails, too, if you receive a class from outside your scope that was not known at compile time. (Okay, in some cases you can still work around that, for instance using the NetDataContract serializer in .NET. Surely a certain advancement.) In any case, the basic principle still exists: Serialization and inheritance don't mix well. Considering the huge list of programming strategies that became possible and even common in the past decade, I feel tempted to say that inheritance should be avoided in areas that relate to serialization (in particular remoting and databases). Does that make sense? Or am messing things up? How do you handle inheritance and serialization?

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• Is inheritance bad nowadays?

  - by mafutrct

  Personally, I think inheritance is a great tool, that, when applied reasonably, can greatly simplify code. However, I seems to me that many modern tools dislike inheritance. Let's take a simple example: Serialize a class to XML. As soon as inheritance is involved, this can easily turn into a mess. Especially if you're trying to serialize a derived class using the base class serializer. Sure, we can work around that. Something like a KnownType attribute and stuff. Besides being an itch in your code that you have to remember to update every time you add a derived class, that fails, too, if you receive a class from outside your scope that was not known at compile time. (Okay, in some cases you can still work around that, for instance using the NetDataContract serializer in .NET. Surely a certain advancement.) In any case, the basic principle still exists: Serialization and inheritance don't mix well. Considering the huge list of programming strategies that became possible and even common in the past decade, I feel tempted to say that inheritance should be avoided in areas that relate to serialization (in particular remoting and databases). Does that make sense? Or am messing things up? How do you handle inheritance and serialization?

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• Spring MVC - Set an actionURL parameter with Javascript

  - by jeffl8n

  Is it possible to dynamically set a Spring MVC portlet:actionURL portlet:param using javascript? I have tried with the following code, but the id value always comes across as null to the controller. I have verified that setting the portlet:param manually passes the value correctly: <portlet:param name="id" value="2" /> I have also verified the value in the javascript is being set correctly and is not null. (Note: I've changed the variable names, etc. from the original code to simplify it and obfuscate it since it is my employer's code.) JSP: <portlet:actionURL var="modifyURL"> <portlet:param name="do" value="modify" /> <portlet:param name="id" value="${model.id}" /> </portlet:actionURL> ... <form:form action="${modifyURL}" id="modifyForm" modelAttribute="model"> <form:hidden path="id" id="id" /> </form:form> Javascript called when the update URL is clicked: function update() { document.forms[0]["id"].value = selectedId; document.forms[0].submit(); } Controller: @RequestMapping(params = {"do=modify"}) public void modify(@ModelAttribute("model") Model model, @RequestParam(value = "id", required=true) Long id, ActionRequest request, ActionResponse response, SessionStatus sessionStatus, ModelMap modelMap) { ....

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• What is a good RPC model for building a AJAX web app using PHP & JS?

  - by user366152

  I'm new to writing AJAX applications. I plan on using jQuery on the client side while PHP on the server side. I want to use something like XML-RPC to simplify my effort in calling server-side code. Ideally, I wouldn't care whether the transport layer uses XML or JSON or a format more optimized for the wire. If I was writing a console app I'd use some tool to generate function stubs which I would then implement on the RPC server while the client would natively call into those stubs. This provides a clean separation. Is there something similar available in the AJAX world? While on this topic, how would I proceed with session management? I would want it to be as transparent as possible. For example, if I try to hit an RPC end-point which needs a valid session, it should reject the request if the client doesn't pass a valid session cookie. This would really ease my application development. I'd then have to simply handle the frontend using native JS functions. While on the backend, I can simply implement the RPC functions. BTW I dont wish to use Google Web Toolkit. My app wont be extremely heavy on AJAX.

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• Is there an user-level accessible font table present in Linux?

  - by youngdood

  Hi again Stackoverflow! Since there is this: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Code_page_437 For MSDOS, is there something similar for Linux systems? Is it possible to access that font data via userland program? I would actually just need an access to the actual bit patterns which define the font, and I would do the rendering myself. I'm fairly sure that something like this exists, but I haven't been able to find what exactly is it and how to access it. After all, e.g. text mode console font has to reside somewhere, and I really do hope it is "rawly" accessible somehow for a userland program. Before I forget, I'm programming my program in C, and have access only to the "standard" linux/posix development headers. The only thing I could came up with myself is to use the fonts in /usr/share/fonts, but having to write my own implementations to extract the data from there doesn't sound really an option; I would really want to achieve this with the least amount of bytes possible, so I feel I'm left with finding a standard way of doing this. It's not really feasible for me to store my own 8x8 ASCII-compatible font with the program either(it takes some 1024 bytes(128 chars * 8x8 bits) just to store the font, which is definitely unacceptable for the strict size limits(some < 1024 bytes for code+data) which I am working with), so being able to use the font data stored at the system itself would greatly simplify my task.

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• "Add another item" form functionality

  - by GSTAR

  I have a form that lets a user enter their career history - it's a very simple form with only 3 fields - type (dropdown), details (textfield) and year (dropdown). Basically I want to include some dynamic functionality whereby the user can enter multiple items on the same page and then submit them all in one go. I had a search on Google and found some examples but they were all based on tables - my markup is based on DIV tags: <div class="form-fields"> <div class="row"> <label for="type">Type</label> <select id="type" name="type"> <option value="Work">Work</option> </select> </div> <div class="row"> <label for="details">Details</label> <input id="details" type="text" name="details" /> </div> <div class="row"> <label for="year">Year</label> <select id="year" name="year"> <option value="2010">2010</option> </select> </div> </div> So basically the 3 DIV tags with class "row" need to be duplicated, or to simplify things - the div "form-fields" could just be duplicated. I am also aware that the input names would have to converted to array format. Additionally each item will require a "remove" button. There will be a main submit button at the bottom which submits all the data. Anyone got an elegant solution for this?

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• How do I display core data on second view controller?

  - by jon

  I am working on my first core data iPhone application. I am using a navigation controller, and the root view controller displays 4 rows. Clicking the first row takes me to a second table view controller. However, when I click the back button, repeat the row tap, click the back button again, and tap the row a third time, I get an error. I have been researching this for a week with no success. I can reproduce the error easily: Create a new Navigation-based Application, use Core Data for storage, call it MyTest which creates MyTestAppDelegate and RootViewController. Add new UIViewController subclass, with UITableViewController and xib, call it ListViewController. Copy code from RootViewController.h and .m to ListViewController.h and .m., changing the file names appropriately. To simplify the code, I removed the trailing “_” from all variables. In RootViewController, I added #import ListViewController.h, set up an array to display 4 rows and navigate to ListViewController when clicking the first row. In ListViewController.m, I added #import MyTestAppDelegate.h” and the following code: - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; if (managedObjectContext == nil) { managedObjectContext = [(MyTestAppDelegate *)[[UIApplication sharedApplication] delegate] managedObjectContext]; } .. } The sequence that causes the error is tap row, return, tap row, return, tap row - error. managedObjectContext is synthesized for the third time. I appreciate your patience and your help, as this makes no sense to me. ADDENDUM: I may have a partial solution. http://www.iphonedevsdk.com/forum/iphone-sdk-development/41688-accessing-app-delegates-managed-object-context.html If I do not release the managedObjectContext in the .m file, the error goes away. Is that ok or will that cause me issues? - (void)dealloc { [fetchedResultsController release]; // [managedObjectContext release]; [super dealloc]; } ADDENDUM 2: See solution below. Sorry for the formatting issues - this was my first post.

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• asp.net - updatepannel can't read innerHTML?

  - by omega

  In my asp.net page, I have a jquery sortable accordian (in an update panel) I use so that clients can re-arrange items. Then to save it, users would click a button (thats created from jquery) and it would traverse through the accoridion in the DOM, and write the info to a asp control textbox. Then invoke the click function of a asp button control, which then reads that information and saves the data. But now I decided to simplify this step, and use html agility pack in c#, so users click the asp button control (inside an update panel), and then it would get the innerHTML of the accordian. But the problem is, the html it's getting is not the reflecting the changes a user can make to the accordion (i.e. re arranging it), it the same as when the DOM was ready on page load... But note that, using javascript to write the innerHTML to a textbox, then from the c# function, I can read the up to date html from the accordian. Does anyone know why this is happening and how to get the up to data html from the accordian in c#?

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• Combining two exe files

  - by Sophia

  Here's some background to my problem: I have a project in Visual C++ 2006 and a project in in Visual C++ 2010 Express. Both compiles to form an exe file each. I cannot convert my 2006 project to 2010 because I get a lot of "unable to load project" errors. I also cannot port my 2010 project code to 2006 (I always get errors no matter what I try, something to do with libraries). My final solution requires me to only have ONE executable. Is there anything I can do to achieve that? I've done some quick search on Google and found there to be exe joiners, but I've also heard that those things are often used to make malware. For reference, I am working with "dummy" clients, and therefore want to simplify things on their end as much as possible. Thus, having them executing one exe is better than having them execute two. Also, I do not wish for their antivirus to go haywire because I used some program to join two exe together. What do? Edit: The two project files do different things. For example, the project in VS2006 one sets up a server, and the project in VS2010 one grabs info on the user's OS. The code for the "server", I think, has a lot of dependencies and for some reason cannot convert to Visual c++ 2010. The code for "grabbing" requires some newer libraries and compiling options, and would not work if I port to 2006.

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• Validating a phone number in Android PreferenceScreen

  - by djechelon

  I have a PreferenceScreen in which the user is capable, if system can't autodetect it, to enter the device's phone number. I'm still learning this part of Android but I managed to understand a bit of PreferenceScreens by examples provided by Android SDK itself and a few tutorials. What I want is that the user can save the phone number only if null or valid, where by "valid" I mean running a generic validation logic (ie. an anonymous method that returns true or false, that can be reused in any possible situation*) or better, just to simplify things, ^(\+39)?3[0-9]{9}$ For now I have the following XML snip <EditTextPreference android:inputType="phone" android:key="@string/preference_phoneNo" android:selectAllOnFocus="true" android:singleLine="true" android:summary="@string/pref_phoneNumber_description" android:title="@string/pref_phoneNumber" /> and following code by courtesy of Eclipse New Activity wizard: private void setupSimplePreferencesScreen() { if (!isSimplePreferences(this)) { return; } addPreferencesFromResource(R.xml.pref_general); bindPreferenceSummaryToValue(findPreference(getString(R.string.preference_phoneNo))); } addPreferenceFromResource is supposed to load the XML node and add the preference to the screen, while binPreferenceSummaryToValue is supposed to make description text change when preference is updated. Just for sake of completeness for those who don't like code courtesy of the IDE, the second method is provided by Eclipse who also provides a private class in the code file that is /** * A preference value change listener that updates the preference's summary * to reflect its new value. */ In the general case, what should I do to perform validation logic before the preference gets saved when I click OK on the preference editor? Where is the validation logic to be put in a PreferenceScreen? *Aren't we all here to learn?

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• Strategies for testing reactive, asynchronous code

  - by Arne

  I am developing a data-flow oriented domain-specific language. To simplify, let's just look at Operations. Operations have a number of named parameters and can be asked to compute their result using their current state. To decide when an Operation should produce a result, it gets a Decision that is sensitive to which parameter got a value from who. When this Decision decides that it is fulfilled, it emits a Signal using an Observer. An Accessor listens for this Signal and in turn calls the Result method of the Operation in order to multiplex it to the parameters of other Operations. So far, so good, nicely decoupled design, composable and reusable and, depending on the specific Observer used, as asynchronous as you want it to be. Now here's my problem: I would love to start coding actual Tests against this design. But with an asynchronous Observer... how should I know that the whole signal-and-parameters-plumbing worked? Do I need to use time outs while waiting for a Signal in order to say that it was emitted successfully or not? How can I be, formally, sure that the Signal will not be emitted if I just wait a little longer (halting problem? ;-)) And, how can I be sure that the Signal was emitted because it was me who set a parameter, and not another Operation? It might well be that my test comes to early and sees a Signal that was emitted way before my setting a parameter caused a Decision to emit it. Currently, I guess the trivial cases are easy to test, but as soon as I want to test complex many-to-many - situations between operations I must resort to hoping that the design Just Works (tm)...

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• C# Reflection StackTrack get value

  - by John

  I'm making pretty heavy use of reflection in my current project to greatly simplify communication between my controllers and the wcf services. What I want to do now is to obtain a value from the Session within an object that has no direct access to HttpSessionStateBase (IE: Not a controller). For example, a ViewModel. I could pass it in or pass a reference to it etc. but that is not optimal in my situation. Since everything comes from a Controller at some point in my scenario I can do the following to walk the sack to the controller where the call originated, pretty simple stuff: var trace = new System.Diagnostics.StackTrace(); foreach (var frame in trace.GetFrames()) { var type = frame.GetMethod().DeclaringType; var prop = type.GetProperty("Session"); if(prop != null) { // not sure about this part... var value = prop.GetValue(type, null); break; } } The trouble here is that I can't seem to work out how to get the "instance" of the controller or the Session property so that I can read from it.

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• Converting a view to Bitmap without displaying it in Android?

  - by sunil

  Hi, I will try to explain what exactly I need to do. I have 3 separate screens say A,B,C. There is another screen called say HomeScreen where all the 3 screens bitmap should be displayed in Gallery view and the user can select in which view does he wants to go. I have been able to get the Bitmaps of all the 3 screens and display it in Gallery view by placing all the code in HomeScreen Activity only. Now, this has complicated the code a lot and I will like to simplify it. So, can I call another Activity from HomeScreen and do not display it and just get the Bitmap of that screen. For example, say I just call HomeScreen and it calls Activity A,B,C and none of the Activities from A,B,C are displayed. It just gives the Bitmap of that screen by getDrawingCache(). And then we can display those bitmaps in Gallery view in HomeScreen. I hope I have explained the problem very clearly. Please let me know if this is actually possible. Regards Sunil

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• How to use Jquery UI in my Custom Function? (Autocomplete)

  - by bakazero

  I want to create a function to simplify configuration of jQuery UI AutoComplete. Here is my function code: (function($) { $.fn.myAutocomplete = function() { var cache = {}; var dataUrl = args.dataUrl; var dataSend = args.dataItem; $.autocomplete({ source: function(request, response) { if (cache.term == request.term && cache.content) { response(cache.content); } if (new RegExp(cache.term).test(request.term) && cache.content && cache.content.length < 13) { var matcher = new RegExp($.ui.autocomplete.escapeRegex(request.term), "i"); response($.grep(cache.content, function(value) { return matcher.test(value.value) })); } $.ajax({ url: dataUrl, dataType: "json", type: "POST", data: dataSend, success: function(data) { cache.term = request.term; cache.content = data; response(data); } }); }, minLength: 2, }); } }) (jQuery); but when I'm using this function like: $("input#tag").myAutocomplete({ dataUrl: "/auto_complete/tag", dataSend: { term: request.term, category: $("input#category").val() } }); It's give me an error: Uncaught ReferenceError: request is not defined

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• MySQL - Exclude rows from Select based on duplication of two columns

  - by Carson C.

  I am attempting to narrow results of an existing complex query based on conditional matches on multiple columns within the returned data set. I'll attempt to simplify the data as much as possible here. Assume that the following table structure represents the data that my existing complex query has already selected (here ordered by date): +----+-----------+------+------------+ | id | remote_id | type | date | +----+-----------+------+------------+ | 1 | 1 | A | 2011-01-01 | | 3 | 1 | A | 2011-01-07 | | 5 | 1 | B | 2011-01-07 | | 4 | 1 | A | 2011-05-01 | +----+-----------+------+------------+ I need to select from that data set based on the following criteria: If the pairing of remote_id and type is unique to the set, return the row always If the pairing of remote_id and type is not unique to the set, take the following action: Of the sets of rows for which the pairing of remote_id and type are not unique, return only the single row for which date is greatest and still less than or equal to now. So, if today is 2010-01-10, I'd like the data set returned to be: +----+-----------+------+------------+ | id | remote_id | type | date | +----+-----------+------+------------+ | 3 | 1 | A | 2011-01-07 | | 5 | 1 | B | 2011-01-07 | +----+-----------+------+------------+ For some reason I'm having no luck wrapping my head around this one. I suspect the answer lies in good application of group_by, but I just can't grasp it. Any help is greatly appreciated!

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• What is the last entry in an unfilled array (C++)?

  - by jwaffe

  I put C++ because I'm just starting in C# and I'm not sure if there's a difference. if you declare an array char arr[10] and fill in values for arr[0] through arr[8], what value will be put in arr[9]? a space ' '? An endline '\n'? '\0'? Or is it nothing at all? I'm asking this because I've always used tactics like this char word[20]; for(count = 0 ; count < 20 ; count++) { cout << word[count]; } to print the entire contents of an array, and I was wondering if I could simplify it (e.g., if the last entry was '\0') by using something like this char word[20]; while(word[count] != '\0') { cout << word[count]; } that way, I wouldn't have to remember how many pieces of data were entered into an array if all the spaces weren't filled up. If you know an even faster way, let me know. I tend to make a bunch of mistakes on arrays.

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• Update MySQl table onDrop?

  - by dougvt

  Hi all. I am writing a PHP/MySQL application (using CodeIgniter) that uses some jQuery functionality for dragging table rows. I have a table in which the user can drag rows to the desired order (kind of a queue for which I need to preserve the rank of each row). I've been trying to figure out how to (and whether I should) update the database each time the user drops a row, in order to simplify the UI and avoid a "Save" button. I have the jQuery working and can send a serialized list back to the server onDrop, but is it good design practice to run an update query this often? The table will usually have 30-40 rows max, but if the user drags row 1 far down the list, then potentially all the rows would need to be updated to update the rank field. I've been wondering whether to send a giant query to the server, to loop through the rows in PHP and update each row with its own Update query, to send a small serialized list to a stored procedure to let the server do all the work, or perhaps a better method I haven't considered. I've read that stored procedures in MySQL are not very efficient and use a separate process for each call. Any advice as to the right solution here? Thanks very much for your help!

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• Manually extracting portions of strings contained in a list (parsing)

  - by user1652011

  I'm aware that there are modules that fully simplify this function, but saying that I am running from a base install of python (standard modules only), how would I extract the following: I have a list. This list is the contents, line by line, of a webpage. Here is a mock up list (unformatted) for informative purposes: <script> link = "/scripts/playlists/1/" + a.id + "/0-5417069212.asx"; <script> "<a href="/apps/audio/?feedId=11065"><span class="px13">Eastern Metro Area Fire</span>" From the above string, I need the following extracted. The feedId (11065), which is incidentally a.id in the code above., "/scripts/playlists/1/" and "/0-5417069212.asx". Remembering that each of these lines is just contents from objects in a list, how would I go about extracting that data? Here is the full list: contents = urllib2.urlopen("http://www.radioreference.com/apps/audio/?ctid=5586") Pseudo: from urllib2 import urlopen as getpage page_contents = getpage("http://www.radioreference.com/apps/audio/?ctid=5586") feedID = % in (page_contents.search() for "/apps/audio/?feedId=%") titleID = % in (page_contents.search() for "<span class="px13">%</span>") playlistID = % in (page_contents.search() for "link = "%" + a.id + "*.asx";") asxID = * in (page_contents.search() for "link = "*" + a.id + "%.asx";") streamURL = "http://www.radioreference.com/" + playlistID + feedID + asxID + ".asx" I plan to format it as such that streamURL should = : http://www.radioreference.com/scripts/playlists/1/11065/0-5417067072.asx

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• Overload the behavior of count() when called on certain objects

  - by Tom

  In PHP 5, you can use magic methods, overload some classes, etc. In C++, you can implement functions that exist is STL as long as the argument types are different. Is there a way to do this in PHP? An example of what I'd like to do is this: class a { function a() { $this->list = array("1", "2"); } } $blah = new a(); count($blah); I would like blah to return 2. IE count the values of a specific array in the class. So in C++, the way I would do this might look like this: int count(a varName) { return count(varName->list); } Basically, I am trying to simplify data calls for a large application so I can call do this: count($object); rather than count($object->list); The list is going to be potentially a list of objects so depending on how it's used, it could be really nasty statement if someone has to do it the current way: count($object->list[0]->list[0]->list); So, can I make something similar to this: function count(a $object) { count($object->list); } I know PHP's count accepts a mixed var, so I don't know if I can override an individual type.

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• Call c++ library from c#

  - by Batul

  Hello All, This question might seem a repeat of previous ones. I have read through a series of posts, but not completely clear for my situation. I have a c++ library which is created using momentics IDE. I have to be able to use this library into a c# project. Someone had been working on this project before being handed over to me. Currently, there are 2 layers for making this possible. First, a c++ project includes the complete library with a c++ wrapper. This project creates a dll as the output. This c++ dll is then fed to a c# project, which has dllimport calls to the c++ dll. This c# project again creates a dll. Finally, in order to use the library in c# application, I have to include a reference to both of these dlls. Is this the correct way to get it working? I was thinking probably there should be a way to simplify the process. Can someone please help me with this question?

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• How to reference a Domain Controller out of the Local Network?

  - by Adrian

  We have multiple servers scattered over different hosting providers. For learning, experimenting and, ultimately, production purposes, I set one of them as a Domain Controller. That went well, most of our services are now authenticating via AD, which helps us a lot. What I want to do now is to simplify the authentication for the multiple servers, by making each of them look at the Domain Controller. This way, our Devs can log into (Remote Desktop) the multiple servers with the same credentials from AD. I know I have to configure each server to look at the Domain Controller. But when I try to add the Domain Controller to the Computer, it cannot find it, although the Domain Controller address is a valid, reachable internet sub-domain (as in "ad.ourcompany.com"). This is the detailed error message: Note: This information is intended for a network administrator. If you are not your network's administrator, notify the administrator that you received this information, which has been recorded in the file C:\Windows\debug\dcdiag.txt. The following error occurred when DNS was queried for the service location (SRV) resource record used to locate an Active Directory Domain Controller for domain ad.ourcompany.com: The error was: "DNS name does not exist." (error code 0x0000232B RCODE_NAME_ERROR) The query was for the SRV record for _ldap._tcp.dc._msdcs.ad.ourcompany.com Common causes of this error include the following: - The DNS SRV records required to locate a AD DC for the domain are not registered in DNS. These records are registered with a DNS server automatically when a AD DC is added to a domain. They are updated by the AD DC at set intervals. This computer is configured to use DNS servers with the following IP addresses: 109.188.207.9 109.188.207.10 - One or more of the following zones do not include delegation to its child zone: ad.ourcompany.com ourcompany.com com . (the root zone) For information about correcting this problem, click Help. What am I missing? I'm an experienced Dev, but a newbie Sysdamin experimenting with new stuff. Disclaimer All IP addresses and domains/subdomains were changed to preserve security. If by any chance you still can see private information, please let me know so that I can change it.

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