Search Results

Search found 3112 results on 125 pages for 'webforms routing'.

facebook twitter digg google delicious technorati stumbleupon myspace wordpress linkedin gmail igoogle windows live tumblr viadeo yahoo buzz yahoo mail yahoo bookmarks favorites email print

Page 33/125 | < Previous Page | 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40  | Next Page >

  • Routing connections through VPN based on hostname (not IP range)

    - by Michal M
    This bugs me immensly. I need to connect to client's network through VPN. But I definitely do not want to send all the traffic through client's network so this option is out of question. What I need basically is for the OS to know that all client's network subdomains (*.example.com) need to go through the VPN connection. I tried a couple of options: Changing order of services and setting the VPN on top, but this works the same as "Send all traffic over VPN connection". Using "VPN on Demand" option from network advanced options, but this feature is quite rubbish to be honest. Seems to work only in Safari (?!) and it doesn't route the connection, but it basically triggers the OS to connect to the selected VPN. The reason I need it to work based on hostnames rather than IP range is simple - my client has a lot of servers inside his network and it's impossible for me to remember all IPs. They are all within a range, but this doesn't help me remembering. Another option would be to put the VPN connection on the bottom of network services and untick "Send all traffic..." and then put all known hostnames in hosts file, but considering there could be hundreds of servers (therefore hostnames and ips too) it ridiculous job. And if new server appears on the network I'd need to edit the hosts file again. Sisyphean labours. However this works on Windows very simply. If a hostname is not available through default network interface, then it seems to try VPN connection and this works brilliantly. So, how can I achieve that on Mac, then? I know client's internal DNS addresses if that is of any help (like directing a certain domains through a different DNS)? PS. Using latest version 10.6.6. PS2. I am using VPN to access intranet, version control servers (svn://), samba shares and for SSH access to servers.

    Read the article

  • MAC-Address based routing

    - by d-fens
    Here is what i want to do: I have a bunch of systems, some might have the same Public-IP, i disable ARP. I have a Firewall (either IP Layer or bridge-FW) between these systems and the internet. Depending on the destination port of incoming IP-Packets to some of these Public-IPs i want to set the destinsation-Ethernet-Adress. So for instance System A has IP 8.8.8.8, mac de:ad:be:ef:de:ad, arp disabled System B has IP 8.8.8.8, mac 1f:1f:1f:1f:1f:1f, arp disabled Firewall has IP 8.8.8.1, arp disabled on that interface Incoming packet to IP 8.8.8.8 tcp dest port 100 Incoming packet to IP 8.8.8.8 tcp dest port 101 Firewall sets dest-mac for 1.) - de:ad:be:ef:de:ad Firewall sets dest-mac for 2.) - 1f:1f:1f:1f:1f:1f Second scenario: System A and System B establish outgoing TCP-Connections, and the firewall matches the dst-mac of the incoming IP-Packets (response packets) to the senders-mac address. is this possible in any way with linux and iptables? edit: i read ebtables might "work" in a hackish way for this purpose but i am not sure...

    Read the article

  • openvpn and selective routing

    - by mx2323
    hi everyone, whats the best way to configure openvpn clients to go selectively go about using an openvpn connection? i want to setup a vpn server for friends in china, but i dont want them to use it for everything, just so they can access sites like youtube, facebook, cnn, etc. while they are in china through the vpn (these are blocked). it would be nice if the vpn was a backup, so for instance if they are trying to go to facebook (which is blocked), it would go through the vpn connection once finding that the normal connection does not work. this would save a lot of bandwidth cost actually, and give them a better browsing experience. is this a iptable route thing? or a dns server that i push to my clients?

    Read the article

  • How to redirect / route VPN traffic to back standing local network?

    - by Milkywayfarer
    There are two computers one "HOME" with Ubuntu 10.10 installed, and another "WORK" with WinXP installed. WORK PC is behind draconian firewall. However, let's imagine, that there is VPN connection installed between this 2 work stations, for example, with teamviewer, hamachi, openvpn, or by some other mean (by the way, what is the best mean for such purposes?). One is interested in working with WORK's LAN resources from his HOME computer via VPN. So my question is about configuration required to be done on WinXP machine (or, maybe on both machines), to make such interaction possible? I'm guessing that some routing stuff should be performed somewhere. But I don't know what exactly and how to do?

    Read the article

  • Virtual host Alias not routing properly

    - by Jacob
    I apologize if this question has been asked many times in the past. I am not 100% sure of the exact cause of my issue and am out of google magic right now. Basically I have a virtual host file setup with an Alias record that points to a different directory other the document root. It basically looks like this <VirtualHost *:80> ServerName iBusinessCentral.com ServerAdmin [email protected] DocumentRoot /var/www/marketingsites/ ServerAlias iBusinessCentral.com *.iBusinessCentral.com Alias /unsub "/var/www/unsub/site_index/" </VirtualHost> When I navigate to ibusinesscentral.com/unsub/?randomquerystring I am directed to the correct folder. If I remove the query string and navigate to ibusinesscentral.com/unsub/ I am taken to the directory in the document root. The unsub directory is a zend application and I need to be able to navigate to different url paths like ibusinesscentral.com/unsub/unenroll?querystring I have tried using AliasMatch instead of Alias. I have also tried adding a slash after the unsub portion of the Alias record, and have not had any luck to this point. Thanks in advance for any assistance

    Read the article

  • Rails RESTful routs without #new, rspec trouble

    - by pdkl95
    I'm currently writing a Rails app, and hit a somewhat strange quirk. I have a controller PermissionsController, which is mainly for display purposes at the moment. So my routing is locked down: map.resources :permissions, :only => [:index, :show] Unfortunately, when writing the tests, one of the routing tests fails: it "does not recognize #new" do { :get => "/permissions/new" }.should_not be_routable end with the error: Expected 'GET /permissions/new' to fail, but it routed to {"action"=>"show", "id"=>"new", "controller"=>"permissions"} instead Obviously, the #show action's route is matching with /permissions/:id, which also gives the expected error Couldn't find Permission with ID=new if you actually browse to that URL. This is not a serious error, as it is correctly raising an exception with the bad :id parameter, but it's kind of ugly. Is there any way to actually make Rails reject that route? Some trick in the routing options that I'm missing? I suppose I should just leave that test out and ignore it, or maybe remove the whole RESTful idea altogether and go back to a simpler map.connect 'permissions/:id' style. I strongly suspect I'll be expanding this in the future, though, and kind of wanted to keep my controllers consistent with each other. Just having to add occasional :only or :except rules made routes.rb nice and clean...

    Read the article

  • Ninject.Web.PageBase still resulting in null reference to injected dependency

    - by Ted
    I have an ASP.NET 3.5 WebForms application using Ninject 2.0. However, attempting to use the Ninject.Web extension to provide injection into System.Web.UI.Page, I'm getting a null reference to my injected dependency even though if I switch to using a service locator to provide the reference (using Ninject), there's no issue. My configuration (dumbed down for simplicity): public partial class Default : PageBase // which is Ninject.Web.PageBase { [Inject] public IClubRepository Repository { get; set; } protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { var something = Repository.GetById(1); // results in null reference exception. } } ... //global.asax.cs public class Global : Ninject.Web.NinjectHttpApplication { /// <summary> /// Creates a Ninject kernel that will be used to inject objects. /// </summary> /// <returns> /// The created kernel. /// </returns> protected override IKernel CreateKernel() { IKernel kernel = new StandardKernel(new MyModule()); return kernel; } .. ... public class MyModule : NinjectModule { public override void Load() { Bind<IClubRepository>().To<ClubRepository>(); //... } } Getting the IClubRepository concrete instance via a service locator works fine (uses same "MyModule"). I.e. private readonly IClubRepository _repository = Core.Infrastructure.IoC.TypeResolver.Get<IClubRepository>(); What am I missing? [Update] Finally got back to this, and it works in Classic Pipeline mode, but not Integrated. Is the classic pipeline a requirement? [Update 2] Wiring up my OnePerRequestModule was the problem (which had removed in above example for clarity): protected override IKernel CreateKernel() { var module = new OnePerRequestModule(); module.Init(this); IKernel kernel = new StandardKernel(new MyModule()); return kernel; } ...needs to be: protected override IKernel CreateKernel() { IKernel kernel = new StandardKernel(new MyModule()); var module = new OnePerRequestModule(); module.Init(this); return kernel; } Thus explaining why I was getting a null reference exception under integrated pipeline (to a Ninject injected dependency, or just a page load for a page inheriting from Ninject.Web.PageBase - whatever came first).

    Read the article

  • How to populate object dependencies with routing bapi

    - by Ben V
    I'm using BAPI_ROUTING_CREATE to interface routing creation/changes from an external system. There doesn't seem to be a way to pass VC object dependencies for each operation. Does anyone know of a way to programmatically update object dependencies? I'd prefer to avoid BDCs if possible.

    Read the article

  • Symfony 2.0 - routing

    - by Agares
    Hi! How can I set up routing in symfony to be like that(if one rule won't work, next should be grabbed): /controller/action/param/param/param/... /admin/controller/action/param/param/param/... ("admin" is constant here - name of the bundle) I tried that: homepage: pattern: / defaults: { _bundle: HelloBundle, _controller: Hello, _action: index } default: pattern: /:controller/:action/* defaults: { _bundle: HelloBundle } But it doesn't work, even for the first rule. Sorry for my English, and thanks for any future help ;.

    Read the article

  • Parallel.For maintain input list order on output list

    - by romeozor
    I'd like some input on keeping the order of a list during heavy-duty operations that I decided to try to do in a parallel manner to see if it boosts performance. (It did!) I came up with a solution, but since this was my first attempt at anything parallel, I'd need someone to slap my hands if I did something very stupid. There's a query that returns a list of card owners, sorted by name, then by date of birth. This needs to be rendered in a table on a web page (ASP.Net WebForms). The original coder decided he would construct the table cell-by-cell (TableCell), add them to rows (TableRow), then each row to the table. So no GridView, allegedly its performance is bad, but the performance was very poor regardless :). The database query returns in no time, the most time is spent on looping through the results and adding table cells etc. I made the following method to maintain the original order of the list: private TableRow[] ComposeRows(List<CardHolder> queryResult) { int queryElementsCount = queryResult.Count(); // array with the query's size var rowArray = new TableRow[queryElementsCount]; Parallel.For(0, queryElementsCount, i => { var row = new TableRow(); var cell = new TableCell(); // various operations, including simple ones such as: cell.Text = queryResult[i].Name; row.Cells.Add(cell); // here I'm adding the current item to it's original index // to maintain order in the output list rowArray[i] = row; }); return rowArray; } So as you can see, because I'm returning a very different type of data (List<CardHolder> -> TableRow[]), I can't just simply omit the ordering from the original query to do it after the operations. Also, I also thought it would be a good idea to Dispose() the objects at the end of each loop, because the query can return a huge list and letting cell and row objects pile up in the heap could impact performance.(?) How badly did I do? Does anyone have a better solution in case mine is flawed?

    Read the article

  • Microsoft Fax Routing

    - by Gerard
    Hi All, I have a general question about MS Fax Routing service in Server 2008. Is it possible to have multiple extensions on the fax server. For example if the fax number is 90081000, can there be an extension for 1001, 1002 etc etc. Are we able to create these extension from within the MS Fax software and then route the different extensions to different email addresses? Thanks Regards g

    Read the article

  • [Symfony] Accessing user session from a custom routing class

    - by David
    Is there some way to acces the user object from a custom routing class? I'd like to add a parameter when generating a url, and that parameter is inside the user session, so I need to access it. The only way I found to access is using the sfContext::getInstance()-getUser(), but it's known to be inefficient. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Calling ASP.NET Web API using JQuery ajax - cross site scripting issue

    - by SimonF
    I have a Web API which I am calling using the JQuery ajax function. When I test the service directly (using the Chrome RESTEasy extension) it works fine, however when I call it using the JQuery ajax function I get an error. I'm calling it on port 81: $.ajax({ url: "http://127.0.0.1:81/api/people", data: JSON.stringify(personToCreate), type: "POST", contentType: "application/json;charset=utf-8", statusCode: { 201: function (newPerson) { callback(newPerson); } }, success: function (newPerson) { alert("New person created with an Id of " + newPerson.Id); }, error: function (jqXHR, textStatus, errorThrown) { alert('Error. '+textStatus+'. '+errorThrown); } }); ...but when I trace it using FireBug Lite the response comes from port 82: {"Message":"No HTTP resource was found that matches the request URI 'http://127.0.0.1:82/api/people'.","MessageDetail":"No action was found on the controller 'People' that matches the request."} I think the error is, effectively, due to cross-site scripting being blocked, but I'm not actually cross-site scripting, if you see what I mean. Has anyone else come across this and been able to fix it? Edit: Routing config (global.asax.vb) is: RouteTable.Routes.MapHttpRoute(name:="DefaultApi", routeTemplate:="api/{controller}/{id}", defaults:=New With {Key .id = System.Web.Http.RouteParameter.Optional}) Controller: Public Function PostValue(ByVal departmentid As Integer, ByVal emailaddress As String, ByVal firstname As String, ByVal lastname As String) As Guid Dim context As New WSMModelDataContext Dim bllPeople As New PeopleBLL(context) Return bllPeople.Create(firstname, lastname, emailaddress, departmentid) End Function When I debug it, it doesn't get as far as running the controller, although when calling it through RESTEasy it routes correctly and the controller executes successfully. The only difference seemes to be that wen called through RESTEasy it is (correctly) using http://127.0.0.1:81 but for some reason when called via JQuery/ajax it seems to be using http://127.0.0.1:82.

    Read the article

  • How do I tell ubuntu to send traffic to a single IP through eth6?

    - by flashnode
    I want to ensure that all IP traffic going to 172.16.60.62 uses eth6. Please provide complete commands because my linux-fu is rusty. The host is running Ubuntu Precise 12.04 user@host:~$ ifconfig eth3 eth3 Link encap:Ethernet HWaddr 00:e0:81:72:fe:c9 inet addr:172.16.60.122 Bcast:172.16.60.255 Mask:255.255.255.0 inet6 addr: fe80::2e0:81ff:fe72:fec9/64 Scope:Link UP BROADCAST RUNNING MULTICAST MTU:1500 Metric:1 RX packets:128500 errors:0 dropped:0 overruns:0 frame:0 TX packets:29082 errors:0 dropped:0 overruns:0 carrier:0 collisions:0 txqueuelen:1000 RX bytes:67524823 (67.5 MB) TX bytes:2217634 (2.2 MB) Interrupt:71 Base address:0x6000 user@host:~$ ifconfig eth6 eth6 Link encap:Ethernet HWaddr 00:60:dd:47:81:35 inet addr:172.16.60.61 Bcast:172.16.60.255 Mask:255.255.255.0 inet6 addr: fe80::260:ddff:fe47:8135/64 Scope:Link UP BROADCAST RUNNING MULTICAST MTU:9000 Metric:1 RX packets:109610 errors:0 dropped:0 overruns:0 frame:0 TX packets:109388 errors:0 dropped:0 overruns:0 carrier:0 collisions:0 txqueuelen:1000 RX bytes:10785630 (10.7 MB) TX bytes:10754350 (10.7 MB) Interrupt:70 user@host:~$ route -n Kernel IP routing table Destination Gateway Genmask Flags Metric Ref Use Iface 0.0.0.0 172.16.60.1 0.0.0.0 UG 0 0 0 eth3 169.254.0.0 0.0.0.0 255.255.0.0 U 1000 0 0 eth6 172.16.60.0 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 U 1 0 0 eth6 172.16.60.0 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 U 1 0 0 eth3

    Read the article

  • Joining two routers together, but I have no access to the second router, although I know it's IP address and Gateway

    - by JohnnyVegas
    I have temporarily moved into a rented apartment for 4 months, which has wireless. The trouble I am having is that the access points here are wifi only and no RJ45 and I need to use RJ45 to connect some equipment that I am working with. I have purchased an RT-N66U and installed Tomato (shibby ver. 1.28) and successfully replaced the existing access point, but now I want to enable the access point that I have replaced as it links wirelessly to 3 others. Can I plug in a cable from the access point to my RT-N66U and get it to access the internet via my router? I have no access to the existing wireless access point, and don't want to reset it as it's not mine. There is another router situated in the roof somewhere which I also have no access to, but it's supplying my RT-N66U internet and I most definitely have a double-nat, which although isn't the best way of doing things I am limited with what I can do. Any suggestions on routing tables, vlans etc would be helpful, but I have no experience in these fields before - but I know the tomato firmware can cater for this. My router is set to IP 10.0.1.1 and dhcp is 10.0.1.100-200 The wireless access point address was 192.168.1.2 but this was assigned by the router in the roof which has the address 192.168.1.1. There is a cable from this router going to a wall socket which I now have my RT-N66u attached to via the WAN port. I understand it's scruffy and it isn't the way to do things but I have tried to ask for the admin details but as the wireless network is looked after by a third party and nobody knows their details I am stuck with this dilemma. I could buy three wireless access points and replace the existing but this isn't what I want to do, and although I have installed plenty of DD-WRT wireless repeater bridges they simply don't work here for some unknown reason. The phone line here is very noisy too and I don't have the rights to install ADSL in a building that isn't mine, and 3G coverage isn't good enough either. Thanks for your time

    Read the article

  • Default route not on LAN

    - by jarmund
    I have a network that in principle looks like this: H1---\ /----Inet1 H2---->---GW1---< H3---/ \----GW2-----Inet2 H1 and H2 = Hosts that need access to internet with GW1 Inet1 = Internet link over 3G connection Inet2 = 5GHz link to Internet (not always up) GW1 = Works as a router, automatically picking the "best" connection between Inet1 and Inet2 (the latter via GW2). GW2 = 5GHz wifi router And here's the problem: H3 only needs internet access when Inet2 is up. What i was thinking of doing was a routing table that looks like this: route to GW2 via GW1 default route is via GW2 I first set the route to GW2 via GW1 without a problem. But when i try route add default gw 1.2.3.4 (1.2.3.4 being the IP of GW2), it complains "SIOCADDRT: No such device" Is the problem that the default gw i'm trying to set is not reachable directly? Is there a different approach that would allow me to achieve this? An alternative (and hypothetical) approach: Since H3 will be using a static IP, is it possible to do some magic with iptables on GW1 to forward any packets from H3 to GW3, thereby "tricking" H3 into using GW2 as its default router?

    Read the article

  • Why would Windows use slower network interface despite route metrics?

    - by tim11g
    On my previous notebook, the Dell/Broadcom wireless adapter had an option to automatically disable wireless when a wired network is connected, so I never dealt with multiple active interfaces. My current system has an Intel wireless adapter, and they apparently haven't figured out how to turn it off when there is a wired connection. Unless I explicitly remember to disable wireless when docked, the connection is active. That shouldn't be a problem (in theory), since the route metric will cause traffic to go over the fastest network (as indicated by the lowest metric in the routing table). Apparently not - I'm running a backup and seeing the throughput at 25Mbps or so (which is consistent with 802.11g) when a perfectly good Gigabit Ethernet interface is also connected. IPv4 Route Table =========================================================================== Active Routes: Network Destination Netmask Gateway Interface Metric 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.254 192.168.1.104 10 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.254 192.168.1.109 25 127.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 On-link 127.0.0.1 306 127.0.0.1 255.255.255.255 On-link 127.0.0.1 306 127.255.255.255 255.255.255.255 On-link 127.0.0.1 306 Windows has correctly identified the Ethernet interface (.104) and assigned it the lower (preferred) metric. So the Ethernet interface should be used exclusively, right? Why is the Ethernet connection not being used? What other factors are involved? (This is with Windows 7 if it makes a difference)

    Read the article

  • Add Route for machine in same DC

    - by gary
    My routing table on my machine with IP of 46.84.121.243 currently looks like this - Network Destination Netmask Gateway Interface Metric 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 46.84.121.225 46.84.121.243 21 46.84.121.224 255.255.255.224 On-link 46.84.121.243 276 46.84.121.239 255.255.255.255 On-link 46.84.121.243 21 46.84.121.243 255.255.255.255 On-link 46.84.121.243 276 46.84.121.255 255.255.255.255 On-link 46.84.121.243 276 I'm trying to access 46.84.121.239, which is my other machine in the same DC but my guess is the first rule is blocking it as it is trying to go via the gateway and failing - Tracing route to [46.84.121.239] over a maximum of 30 hops: 1 OWNEROR-9O83HBL [46.84.121.243] reports: Destination host unreachable. Trace complete. I'm doing all this via RDP and already tried changing the metric on the persistent rule with devastating consequences! Here's the persistent rule (working) - Persistent Routes: Network Address Netmask Gateway Address Metric 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 46.84.121.225 1 Any help to be able to access the 46.84.121.243 would be very helpful thanks very much.

    Read the article

  • New router messed up server 2003 setup...

    - by Aceth
    Hey, We were sent a new 2wire router today configured it as best we can to match the old bt voyager. We've also got X static IP's. We've manage to get our webserver on one of the new IP's public facing. then we use a hardware firewall which is in a DMZ again with a different static IP. This firewall then is our gateway for our internal LAN. with a few servers etc. The problem we're having is only our PDC (primary Domain controller which has exchange 2003 on) can't ping externally even an external IP. We've connected laptops to the 2wire router and obtain a private ip 192.168.1.X and it works fine can ping etc. our other servers with an internal ip behind the firewall can ping out fine. We've connected to the firewalls logging console and the pings from the server are allowed through so its fine there. The server in question is a Windows server 2003 R2 Enterprise SP2 + Exchange 2003 Server doesn't have firewall turned on. it has static private IP .. gateway is pointing to the right one External Static IP is routing fine inwards We've ran out of ideas .. help??

    Read the article

  • Why can't I route to some sites from my MacBook Pro that I can see from my iPad?

    - by Robert Atkins
    I am on M1 Cable (residential) broadband in Singapore. I have an intermittent problem routing to some sites from my MacBook Pro—often Google-related sites (arduino.googlecode.com and ajax.googleapis.com right now, but sometimes even gmail.com.) This prevents StackExchange chat from working, for instance. Funny thing is, my iPad can route to those sites and they're on the same wireless network! I can ping the sites, but not traceroute to them which I find odd. That I can get through via the iPad implies the problem is with the MBP. In any case, calling M1 support is... not helpful. I get the same behaviour when I bypass the Airport Express entirely and plug the MBP directly into the cable modem. Can anybody explain a) how this is even possible and b) how to fix it? mella:~ ratkins$ ping ajax.googleapis.com PING googleapis.l.google.com (209.85.132.95): 56 data bytes 64 bytes from 209.85.132.95: icmp_seq=0 ttl=50 time=11.488 ms 64 bytes from 209.85.132.95: icmp_seq=1 ttl=53 time=13.012 ms 64 bytes from 209.85.132.95: icmp_seq=2 ttl=53 time=13.048 ms ^C --- googleapis.l.google.com ping statistics --- 3 packets transmitted, 3 packets received, 0.0% packet loss round-trip min/avg/max/stddev = 11.488/12.516/13.048/0.727 ms mella:~ ratkins$ traceroute ajax.googleapis.com traceroute to googleapis.l.google.com (209.85.132.95), 64 hops max, 52 byte packets traceroute: sendto: No route to host 1 traceroute: wrote googleapis.l.google.com 52 chars, ret=-1 *traceroute: sendto: No route to host traceroute: wrote googleapis.l.google.com 52 chars, ret=-1 ^C mella:~ ratkins$ The traceroute from the iPad goes (and I'm copying this by hand): 10.0.1.1 119.56.34.1 172.20.8.222 172.31.253.11 202.65.245.1 202.65.245.142 209.85.243.156 72.14.233.145 209.85.132.82 From the MBP, I can't traceroute to any of the IPs from 172.20.8.222 onwards. [For extra flavour, not being able to access the above appears to stop me logging in to Server Fault via OpenID and formatting the above traceroutes correctly. Anyone with sufficient rep here to do so, I'd be much obliged.]

    Read the article

  • DansGuardian/Squid Traffic doesn't get back to user

    - by DKNUCKLES
    I've purchased a Squid appliance that I'm attempting to implement, however the lack of documentation has left me a bit high and dry. Forgive me if this is a silly question, but this is my first attempt at implementing Squid. From what I can ascertain from the documentation (or lack thereof), the users connect to DansGuardian first at port 8080 where the filtering is done, at which point it forwards it to the Squid appliance at port 3128. The traffic is then sent to the internet. The setup I have is as follows Gateway (MikroTik router) : 192.168.88.1 Squid/DansGuardian :192.168.88.100 Client : 192.168.88.238 Client --- Gateway --- Proxy --- Internet I have set up a simple NAT rule to forward all traffic from the client machine (for testing purposes) to go to the DansGuardian. The traffic seems to get there, although I see a lot of SYN_RECV w/ a netstat -antp command on the virtual appliance machine. From this I gather that the traffic is NOT being routed back to the client machine. Proto Recv-Q Send-Q Local Address Foreign Address State PID/Program name tcp 0 0 0.0.0.0:8080 0.0.0.0:* LISTEN - tcp 0 0 192.168.88.100:8080 192.168.88.238:55786 SYN_RECV - tcp 0 0 192.168.88.100:8080 192.168.88.238:55787 SYN_RECV - tcp 0 0 192.168.88.100:8080 192.168.88.238:55785 SYN_RECV - tcp 0 0 192.168.88.100:8080 192.168.88.238:55788 SYN_RECV - tcp 0 0 0.0.0.0:10000 0.0.0.0:* LISTEN - tcp 0 0 0.0.0.0:22 0.0.0.0:* LISTEN - Is this a routing issue or an issue with the Squid Appliance?

    Read the article

  • Cisco IOS policy route for router originated VPN traffic

    - by Paul
    We have a Cisco IOS router with two DSL connections. One of them is intended for general traffic (ADSL), the other for VPN links (BDSL) and various other traffic. So the default route is the ADSL link, and we have a combination of static routes for the VPN traffic, and policy routes for other traffic types that should go out the BDSL link. For site to site traffic, this is fine, we just static route the public IPs and remote networks out of the BDSL line. The policy based routing works fine for any internal traffic that matches an ACL. The problem is now that there are remote VPN sites originating from dynamic addresses, so we cannot use static routes. The replies to incoming ISAKMP requests are following the default route out of the ADSL (despite there being no crypto map on that interface). I want to route the outgoing VPN traffic out of the BDSL. I have tried adding udp/500 and esp to and from the route-map acl that pushes traffic out of the BDSL line, but it doesn't match, presumably because the route-map happen earlier than the IPSec stuff. Any ideas how I can do this? IOS ver: 12.4.13T.

    Read the article

facebook twitter digg google delicious technorati stumbleupon myspace wordpress linkedin gmail igoogle windows live tumblr viadeo yahoo buzz yahoo mail yahoo bookmarks favorites email print

< Previous Page | 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40  | Next Page >