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  • Plagued by multithreaded bugs

    - by koncurrency
    On my new team that I manage, the majority of our code is platform, TCP socket, and http networking code. All C++. Most of it originated from other developers that have left the team. The current developers on the team are very smart, but mostly junior in terms of experience. Our biggest problem: multi-threaded concurrency bugs. Most of our class libraries are written to be asynchronous by use of some thread pool classes. Methods on the class libraries often enqueue long running taks onto the thread pool from one thread and then the callback methods of that class get invoked on a different thread. As a result, we have a lot of edge case bugs involving incorrect threading assumptions. This results in subtle bugs that go beyond just having critical sections and locks to guard against concurrency issues. What makes these problems even harder is that the attempts to fix are often incorrect. Some mistakes I've observed the team attempting (or within the legacy code itself) includes something like the following: Common mistake #1 - Fixing concurrency issue by just put a lock around the shared data, but forgetting about what happens when methods don't get called in an expected order. Here's a very simple example: void Foo::OnHttpRequestComplete(statuscode status) { m_pBar->DoSomethingImportant(status); } void Foo::Shutdown() { m_pBar->Cleanup(); delete m_pBar; m_pBar=nullptr; } So now we have a bug in which Shutdown could get called while OnHttpNetworkRequestComplete is occuring on. A tester finds the bug, captures the crash dump, and assigns the bug to a developer. He in turn fixes the bug like this. void Foo::OnHttpRequestComplete(statuscode status) { AutoLock lock(m_cs); m_pBar->DoSomethingImportant(status); } void Foo::Shutdown() { AutoLock lock(m_cs); m_pBar->Cleanup(); delete m_pBar; m_pBar=nullptr; } The above fix looks good until you realize there's an even more subtle edge case. What happens if Shutdown gets called before OnHttpRequestComplete gets called back? The real world examples my team has are even more complex, and the edge cases are even harder to spot during the code review process. Common Mistake #2 - fixing deadlock issues by blindly exiting the lock, wait for the other thread to finish, then re-enter the lock - but without handling the case that the object just got updated by the other thread! Common Mistake #3 - Even though the objects are reference counted, the shutdown sequence "releases" it's pointer. But forgets to wait for the thread that is still running to release it's instance. As such, components are shutdown cleanly, then spurious or late callbacks are invoked on an object in an state not expecting any more calls. There are other edge cases, but the bottom line is this: Multithreaded programming is just plain hard, even for smart people. As I catch these mistakes, I spend time discussing the errors with each developer on developing a more appropriate fix. But I suspect they are often confused on how to solve each issue because of the enormous amount of legacy code that the "right" fix will involve touching. We're going to be shipping soon, and I'm sure the patches we're applying will hold for the upcoming release. Afterwards, we're going to have some time to improve the code base and refactor where needed. We won't have time to just re-write everything. And the majority of the code isn't all that bad. But I'm looking to refactor code such that threading issues can be avoided altogether. One approach I am considering is this. For each significant platform feature, have a dedicated single thread where all events and network callbacks get marshalled onto. Similar to COM apartment threading in Windows with use of a message loop. Long blocking operations could still get dispatched to a work pool thread, but the completion callback is invoked on on the component's thread. Components could possibly even share the same thread. Then all the class libraries running inside the thread can be written under the assumption of a single threaded world. Before I go down that path, I am also very interested if there are other standard techniques or design patterns for dealing with multithreaded issues. And I have to emphasize - something beyond a book that describes the basics of mutexes and semaphores. What do you think? I am also interested in any other approaches to take towards a refactoring process. Including any of the following: Literature or papers on design patterns around threads. Something beyond an introduction to mutexes and semaphores. We don't need massive parallelism either, just ways to design an object model so as to handle asynchronous events from other threads correctly. Ways to diagram the threading of various components, so that it will be easy to study and evolve solutions for. (That is, a UML equivalent for discussing threads across objects and classes) Educating your development team on the issues with multithreaded code. What would you do?

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  • Configuring Cisco 877W router from scratch for DHCP, WiFi, ADSL2+, NAT

    - by David M Williams
    Hi all, I apologise if this is a BIG question but I am quite lost with the Cisco IOS. I know what I want to achieve just not how to do it :( I have a Cisco 877W router with 4 FastEthernet interfaces, 1 ATM interface and 1 802.11 Radio. I want to set it up for a small network and am trying to construct a configuration below. I was using Google to try and flesh it out but I think I need help and guidance from actual experts! If it helps, output from show ver says Cisco IOS software, C870 software (C870-ADVSECURITYK9-M), version 12.4(4)T7, release software (fc1) ROM: System bootstrap, version 12.3(8r)YI4, release software Here's what I have so far, which hopefully outlines clearly enough what I am wanting to do. The bits in angle brackets are placeholders (eg the secret password). ! ! Set router hostname ! hostname Shazam ! ! Set usernames and passwords ! username david privilege 15 secret 0 <PASSWORD> enable secret <SECRETPASSWORD> ! ! Configure SSH and telnet access ! line vty 0 4 privilege level 15 login local transport input telnet ssh ! ! Local logging ! logging buffered 51200 warning ! ! Set date and time for NSW, Australia (GMT +10h) ! ! ! Set router IP address to 192.168.1.1 on FastEthernet0 port ! interface FastEthernet0 ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0 no shut ip nat inside ! ! Forward any unknown DNS requests to Google ! ip dns server ip name-server 8.8.8.8 ip name-server 8.8.4.4 ! ! Set up DHCP ! DHCP pool covers 192.168.1.100 - .199 ! Set gateway and DNS server to be the router, ie 192.168.1.1 ! service dhcp ip routing ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.1.1 192.168.1.99 ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.1.200 192.168.1.255 ip dhcp pool <DHCPPOOLNAME> network 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 default-router 192.168.1.1 dns-server 192.168.1.1 lease 7 ! ! DHCP reservations ! ! Assign IP address 192.168.1.105 to MAC address 00-21-5D-2F-58-04 ! ! Configure ADSL2 connection details ! interface atm dsl operating-mode adsl2+ ! ! Set up NAT rules ! ! Forward port 35394 to 192.168.1.105 ! ! Set up WiFi ! ! SSID visible, WPA2 security, Pre-shared key I'm hoping most of this is boiler-plate stuff to you guys. I'm keen to not just get a working script but to actually understand it also. Unfortunately, I'm finding the Cisco reference material online very complex. Thank you!

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  • Windows 7 Boot to VHD using a VHD clone of the system drive

    - by daveh551
    This seems like a not too difficult problem, and, after several hurdles, I'm maddeningly close. But I can't quite get there. I'm running Windows 7 in development shop. I want to start using VS2010 to work on some stuff that won't be released for awhile. My boss said no beta code on the production machine, but I could run VS2010 for this project IF I could do it in an isolated environment, like a virtual PC. Well, I've used the beta and RC of Win7 on VPC's before, and it was painfully slow because of the VPC environment. But everyone has been singing the praises of Windows 7's boot-to-VHD capability, where only the disk is virtualized, and you're actually running on the hardware. Supposed to be little slower, but nowhere near the speed penalty of VPC. I've spent a fair amount of time getting everything installed the way I want it. So I figured, I'll just clone my system drive using Disk2VHD, and boot off of that, and then install VS2010 onto that. (I keep most of my user data, including all my projects, in a separate partition, so that wouldn't have to be duplicated and would still be available.) Well, I had some difficulties with that, owing mainly to the fact that I was using an old version of Disk2VHD - (get the latest if you're going to try it.) But I did finally get it to boot. (Scott Hanselman has a good blog post on boot to VHD). But it wasn't exactly what I was expecting or hoping for. What I expected was that the VHD would become the C: drive, and the original (physical) C: drive would be either hidden or mounted under a different letter, and thus isolated and protected from any changes. What you actually get is that the VHD becomes the D: drive AND you boot from the D: drive, BUT your original C: drive is still there. Which is sort of okay EXCEPT that the Registry on the VHD is a clone of the Registry on C: drive, and includes many hard-coded references to C:. So the result is that some things come from (and modify) D: (the VHD), but some things come from (and modify) C:. (If you open a cmd prompt and do a SET to look at your environment variables, you will see a mixture of D:\ and C:\ paths.) So I don't really have an isolated environment. Most importantly, %ProgramFiles% is still set to C:\Program Files. What I really need is a tool that can access the registry files on the mounted VHD AS FILES, not as registry entries, and do a global search and replace on all the C:\ in strings to D:. I haven't found such a program. (I've tried to do it with a program called Registry Replace, but, even when running as Administrator, there are certain entries that the Registry won't let you change.) Does anyone know of one? Or any other solution to my problem (other than starting from scratch with a clean VHD and installing Win7 and all my programs on it.)?

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  • What Apache/PHP configurations do you know and how good are they?

    - by FractalizeR
    Hello. I wanted to ask you about PHP/Apache configuration methods you know, their pros and cons. I will start myself: ---------------- PHP as Apache module---------------- Pros: good speed since you don't need to start exe every time especially in mpm-worker mode. You can also use various PHP accelerators in this mode like APC or eAccelerator. Cons: if you are running apache in mpm-worker mode, you may face stability issues because every glitch in any php script will lead to unstability to the whole thread pool of that apache process. Also in this mode all scripts are executed on behalf of apache user. This is bad for security. mpm-worker configuration requires PHP compiled in thread-safe mode. At least CentOS and RedHat default repositories doesn't have thread-safe PHP version so on these OSes you need to compile at least PHP yourself (there is a way to activate worker mpm on Apache). The use of thread-safe PHP binaries is considered experimental and unstable. Plus, many PHP extensions does not support thread-safe mode or were not well-tested in thread-safe mode. ---------------- PHP as CGI ---------------- This seems to be the slowest default configuration which seems to be a "con" itself ;) ---------------- PHP as CGI via mod_suphp ---------------- Pros: suphp allows you to execute php scipts on behalf of the script file owner. This way you can securely separate different sites on the same machine. Also, suphp allows to use different php.ini files per virtual host. Cons: PHP in CGI mode means less performance. In this mode you can't use php accelerators like APC because each time new process is spawned to handle script rendering the cache of previous process useless. BTW, do you know the way to apply some accelerator in this config? I heard something about using shm for php bytecode cache. Also, you cannot configure PHP via .htaccess files in this mode. You will need to install PECL htscanner for this if you need to set various per-script options via .htaccess (php_value / php_flag directives) ---------------- PHP as CGI via suexec ---------------- This configuration looks the same as with suphp, but I heard, that it's slower and less safe. Almost same pros and cons apply. ---------------- PHP as FastCGI ---------------- Pros: FastCGI standard allows single php process to handle several scripts before php process is killed. This way you gain performance since no need to spin up new php process for each script. You can also use PHP accelerators in this configuration (see cons section for comment). Also, FCGI almost like suphp also allows php processes to be executed on behalf of some user. mod_fcgid seems to have the most complete fcgi support and flexibility for apache. Cons: The use of php accelerator in fastcgi mode will lead to high memory consumption because each PHP process will have his own bytecode cache (unless there is some accelerator that can use shared memory for bytecode cache. Is there such?). FastCGI is also a little bit complex to configure. You need to create various configuration files and make some configuration modifications. It seems, that fastcgi is the most stable, secure, fast and flexible PHP configuration, however, a bit difficult to be configured. But, may be, I missed something? Comments are welcome!

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  • Is Apache 2.2.22 able to sustain 1.000 simultaneous connected clients?

    - by Fnux
    For an article in a news paper, I'm benchmarking 5 different web servers (Apache2, Cherokee, Lighttpd, Monkey and Nginx). The tests made consist of measuring the execution times as well as different parameters such as the number of request served per second, the amount of RAM, the CPU used, during a growing load of simultaneous clients (from 1 to 1.000 with a step of 10) each client sending 1.000.000 requets of a small fixed file, then of a medium fixed file, then a small dynamic content (hello.php) and finally a complex dynamic content (the computation of the reimbursment of a loan). All the web servers are able to sustain such a load (up to 1.000 clients) but Apache2 which always stops to respond when the test reach 450 to 500 simultaneous clients. My configuration is : CPU: AMD FX 8150 8 cores @ 4.2 GHz RAM: 32 Gb. SSD: 2 x Crucial 240 Gb SATA6 OS: Ubuntu 12.04.3 64 bit WS: Apache 2.2.22 My Apache2 configuration is as follows: /etc/apache2/apache2.conf LockFile ${APACHE_LOCK_DIR}/accept.lock PidFile ${APACHE_PID_FILE} Timeout 30 KeepAlive On MaxKeepAliveRequests 1000000 KeepAliveTimeout 2 ServerName "fnux.net" <IfModule mpm_prefork_module> StartServers 16 MinSpareServers 16 MaxSpareServers 16 ServerLimit 2048 MaxClients 1024 MaxRequestsPerChild 0 </IfModule> User ${APACHE_RUN_USER} Group ${APACHE_RUN_GROUP} AccessFileName .htaccess <Files ~ "^\.ht"> Order allow,deny Deny from all Satisfy all </Files> DefaultType None HostnameLookups Off ErrorLog ${APACHE_LOG_DIR}/error.log LogLevel emerg Include mods-enabled/*.load Include mods-enabled/*.conf Include httpd.conf Include ports.conf LogFormat "%v:%p %h %l %u %t \"%r\" %>s %O \"%{Referer}i\" \"%{User-Agent}i\"" vhost_combined LogFormat "%h %l %u %t \"%r\" %>s %O \"%{Referer}i\" \"%{User-Agent}i\"" combined LogFormat "%h %l %u %t \"%r\" %>s %O" common LogFormat "%{Referer}i -> %U" referer LogFormat "%{User-agent}i" agent Include conf.d/ Include sites-enabled/ /etc/apache2/ports.conf NameVirtualHost *:8180 Listen 8180 <IfModule mod_ssl.c> Listen 443 </IfModule> <IfModule mod_gnutls.c> Listen 443 </IfModule> /etc/apache2/mods-available <IfModule mod_fastcgi.c> AddHandler php5-fcgi .php Action php5-fcgi /cgi-bin/php5.external <Location "/cgi-bin/php5.external"> Order Deny,Allow Deny from All Allow from env=REDIRECT_STATUS </Location> </IfModule> /etc/apache2/sites-available/default <VirtualHost *:8180> ServerAdmin webmaster@localhost DocumentRoot /var/www/apache2 <Directory /> Options FollowSymLinks AllowOverride None </Directory> <Directory /var/www/> Options Indexes FollowSymLinks MultiViews AllowOverride None Order allow,deny allow from all </Directory> ScriptAlias /cgi-bin/ /usr/lib/cgi-bin/ <Directory "/usr/lib/cgi-bin"> AllowOverride None Options +ExecCGI -MultiViews +SymLinksIfOwnerMatch Order allow,deny Allow from all </Directory> ErrorLog ${APACHE_LOG_DIR}/error.log LogLevel emerg ##### CustomLog ${APACHE_LOG_DIR}/access.log combined Alias /doc/ "/usr/share/doc/" <Directory "/usr/share/doc/"> Options Indexes MultiViews FollowSymLinks AllowOverride None Order deny,allow Deny from all Allow from 127.0.0.0/255.0.0.0 ::1/128 </Directory> <IfModule mod_fastcgi.c> AddHandler php5-fcgi .php Action php5-fcgi /php5-fcgi Alias /php5-fcgi /usr/lib/cgi-bin/php5-fcgi FastCgiExternalServer /usr/lib/cgi-bin/php5-fcgi -host 127.0.0.1:9000 -pass-header Authorization </IfModule> </VirtualHost> /etc/security/limits.conf * soft nofile 1000000 * hard nofile 1000000 So, I would trully appreciate your advice to setup Apache2 to make it able to sustain 1.000 simultaneous clients, if this is even possible. TIA for your help. Cheers.

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  • Single-Signon options for Exchange 2010

    - by freiheit
    We're working on a project to migrate employee email from Unix/open-source (courier IMAP, exim, squirrelmail, etc) to Exchange 2010, and trying to figure out options for single-signon for Outlook Web Access. So far all the options I've found are very ugly and "unsupportable", and may simply not work with Forefront. We already have JA-SIG CAS for token-based single-signon and Shibboleth for SAML. Users are directed to a simple in-house portal (a Perl CGI, really) that they use to sign in to most stuff. We have an HA OpenLDAP cluster that's already synchronized against another AD domain and will be synchronized with the AD domain Exchange will be using. CAS authenticates against LDAP. The portal authenticates against CAS. Shibboleth authenticates with CAS but pulls additional data from LDAP. We're moving in the direction of having web services authenticate against CAS or Shibboleth. (Students are already on SAML/Shibboleth authenticated Google Apps for Education) With Squirrelmail we have a horrible hack linked to from that portal page that authenticates against CAS, gets your original plaintext password (yes, I know, evil), and gives you an HTTP form pre-filled with all the necessary squirrelmail login details with javaScript onLoad stuff to immediately submit the form. Trying to find out exactly what is possible with Exchange/OWA seems to be difficult. "CAS" is both the acronym for our single-signon server and an Exchange component. From what I've been able to tell there's an addon for Exchange that does SAML, but only for federating things like free/busy calendar info, not authenticating users. Plus it costs additional money so there's no way to experiment with it to see if it can be coaxed into doing what we want. Our plans for the Exchange cluster involve Forefront Threat Management Gateway (the new ISA) in the DMZ front-ending the CAS servers. So, the real question: Has anybody managed to make Exchange authenticate with CAS (token-based single-signon) or SAML, or with something I can reasonably likely make authenticate with one of those (such as anything that will accept apache's authentication)? With Forefront? Failing that, anybody have some tips on convincing OWA Forms Based Authentication (FBA) into letting us somehow "pre-login" the user? (log in as them and pass back cookies to the user, or giving the user a pre-filled form that autosubmits like we do with squirrelmail). This is the least-favorite option for a number of reasons, but it would (just barely) satisfy our requirements. From what I hear from the guy implementing Forefront, we may have to set OWA to basic authentication and do forms in Forefront for authentication, so it's possible this isn't even possible. I did find CasOwa, but it only mentions Exchange 2007, looks kinda scary, and as near as I can tell is mostly the same OWA FBA hack I was considering slightly more integrated with the CAS server. It also didn't look like many people had had much success with it. And it may not work with Forefront. There's also "CASifying Outlook Web Access 2", but that one scares me, too, and involves setting up a complex proxy config, which seems more likely to break. And, again, doesn't look like it would work with Forefront. Am I missing something with Exchange SAML (OWA Federated whatchamacallit) where it is possible to configure to do user authentication and not just free/busy access authorization?

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  • Backup a hosted Sharepoint

    - by David Mackintosh
    One of my customers has outsourced their Sharepoint and Exchange services to a hosted services provider. I believe it is a Sharepoint 2007 service. It is a shared hosting solution, so we do not have any kind of access to the server itself; we only have user-level and sharepoint-administrator-level access to the Sharepoint application. They have come to the point where they would like to have a copy of everything that is on the Sharepoint server. I have downloaded the Office Sharepoint Designer 2007, and it features three (!) ways to backup a Sharepoint server, none (!) of which work for me: File-Export-Personal Web Package: When selecting everything, it calculates a negative size. Barfs with No "content-type" in CGI environment error. File-Export-Sharepoint Template: barfs with a A World Wide Web browser, such as Windows Internet Explorer, is required to use this feature error. Site-Administration-Backup Web Site: wants to create the backup .cmp file on the sharepoint server itself. I don't have access to any servers on the same network so I can't redirect it to any form of the suggested \\server\place. Barfs with a The Web application at $URL could not be found. [...] error. Possibly moot because Google tells me that bad things happen using OSD to back up sites larger than 24MB (which this site is most definitely). So I called the helpdesk of the outsource provider, and got told that they recommend using OSD, but no they don't actually provide any application support for OSD (not that I blame them for that), but they could do a stsadm.exe backup and provide us with that, and OSD should be able to read the resulting cmp file. Then for authorization reasons they had my customer call them directly (since I can't authorize such an operation), and they told him that he didn't want a stsadm.exe backup, he wanted to get into an 'explorer view' and deal with things that way (they were vague). Google hasn't been much help in figuring out what an 'explorer view' is, let alone how I bring one up. The end goal of this operation is to have a backup of the site as it exists (hopefully today, but shortly anyways) in such a format that we don't need another sharepoint server to restore it to. Ie we'd like to be able to pick individual content directly out of this backup. We are not excessively concerned with things like formatting. We just want the documents. This is a fairly complex site with multiple subsites and multiple folders per subsite, so sitting there and manually downloading each file isn't really going to happen if there is a better easier way. So, my questions: Is the stsadm.exe backup what I want? If not, what do I want? If I manage to convince them that I do want the stsadm.exe backup, can I pick files out of the resulting backup file with OSD? If OSD isn't going to let me extract individual files, is there a tool I can use that can?

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  • Causes of sudden massive filesystem damage? ("root inode is not a directory")

    - by poolie
    I have a laptop running Maverick (very happily until yesterday), with a Patriot Torx SSD; LUKS encryption of the whole partition; one lvm physical volume on top of that; then home and root in ext4 logical volumes on top of that. When I tried to boot it yesterday, it complained that it couldn't mount the root filesystem. Running fsck, basically every inode seems to be wrong. Both home and root filesystems show similar problems. Checking a backup superblock doesn't help. e2fsck 1.41.12 (17-May-2010) lithe_root was not cleanly unmounted, check forced. Resize inode not valid. Recreate? no Pass 1: Checking inodes, blocks, and sizes Root inode is not a directory. Clear? no Root inode has dtime set (probably due to old mke2fs). Fix? no Inode 2 is in use, but has dtime set. Fix? no Inode 2 has a extra size (4730) which is invalid Fix? no Inode 2 has compression flag set on filesystem without compression support. Clear? no Inode 2 has INDEX_FL flag set but is not a directory. Clear HTree index? no HTREE directory inode 2 has an invalid root node. Clear HTree index? no Inode 2, i_size is 9581392125871137995, should be 0. Fix? no Inode 2, i_blocks is 40456527802719, should be 0. Fix? no Reserved inode 3 (<The ACL index inode>) has invalid mode. Clear? no Inode 3 has compression flag set on filesystem without compression support. Clear? no Inode 3 has INDEX_FL flag set but is not a directory. Clear HTree index? no .... Running strings across the filesystems, I can see there are what look like filenames and user data there. I do have sufficiently good backups (touch wood) that it's not worth grovelling around to pull back individual files, though I might save an image of the unencrypted disk before I rebuild, just in case. smartctl doesn't show any errors, neither does the kernel log. Running a write-mode badblocks across the swap lv doesn't find problems either. So the disk may be failing, but not in an obvious way. At this point I'm basically, as they say, fscked? Back to reinstalling, perhaps running badblocks over the disk, then restoring from backup? There doesn't even seem to be enough data to file a meaningful bug... I don't recall that this machine crashed last time I used it. At this point I suspect a bug or memory corruption caused it to write garbage across the disks when it was last running, or some kind of subtle failure mode for the SSD. What do you think would have caused this? Is there anything else you'd try?

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  • /usr/bin/sshd isn't linked against PAM on one of my systems. What is wrong and how can I fix it?

    - by marc.riera
    Hi, I'm using AD as my user account server with ldap. Most of the servers run with UsePam yes except this one, it has lack of pam support on sshd. root@linserv9:~# ldd /usr/sbin/sshd linux-vdso.so.1 => (0x00007fff621fe000) libutil.so.1 => /lib/libutil.so.1 (0x00007fd759d0b000) libz.so.1 => /usr/lib/libz.so.1 (0x00007fd759af4000) libnsl.so.1 => /lib/libnsl.so.1 (0x00007fd7598db000) libcrypto.so.0.9.8 => /usr/lib/libcrypto.so.0.9.8 (0x00007fd75955b000) libcrypt.so.1 => /lib/libcrypt.so.1 (0x00007fd759323000) libc.so.6 => /lib/libc.so.6 (0x00007fd758fc1000) libdl.so.2 => /lib/libdl.so.2 (0x00007fd758dbd000) /lib64/ld-linux-x86-64.so.2 (0x00007fd759f0e000) I have this packages installed root@linserv9:~# dpkg -l|grep -E 'pam|ssh' ii denyhosts 2.6-2.1 an utility to help sys admins thwart ssh hac ii libpam-modules 0.99.7.1-5ubuntu6.1 Pluggable Authentication Modules for PAM ii libpam-runtime 0.99.7.1-5ubuntu6.1 Runtime support for the PAM library ii libpam-ssh 1.91.0-9.2 enable SSO behavior for ssh and pam ii libpam0g 0.99.7.1-5ubuntu6.1 Pluggable Authentication Modules library ii libpam0g-dev 0.99.7.1-5ubuntu6.1 Development files for PAM ii openssh-blacklist 0.1-1ubuntu0.8.04.1 list of blacklisted OpenSSH RSA and DSA keys ii openssh-client 1:4.7p1-8ubuntu1.2 secure shell client, an rlogin/rsh/rcp repla ii openssh-server 1:4.7p1-8ubuntu1.2 secure shell server, an rshd replacement ii quest-openssh 5.2p1_q13-1 Secure shell root@linserv9:~# What I'm doing wrong? thanks. Edit: root@linserv9:~# cat /etc/pam.d/sshd # PAM configuration for the Secure Shell service # Read environment variables from /etc/environment and # /etc/security/pam_env.conf. auth required pam_env.so # [1] # In Debian 4.0 (etch), locale-related environment variables were moved to # /etc/default/locale, so read that as well. auth required pam_env.so envfile=/etc/default/locale # Standard Un*x authentication. @include common-auth # Disallow non-root logins when /etc/nologin exists. account required pam_nologin.so # Uncomment and edit /etc/security/access.conf if you need to set complex # access limits that are hard to express in sshd_config. # account required pam_access.so # Standard Un*x authorization. @include common-account # Standard Un*x session setup and teardown. @include common-session # Print the message of the day upon successful login. session optional pam_motd.so # [1] # Print the status of the user's mailbox upon successful login. session optional pam_mail.so standard noenv # [1] # Set up user limits from /etc/security/limits.conf. session required pam_limits.so # Set up SELinux capabilities (need modified pam) # session required pam_selinux.so multiple # Standard Un*x password updating. @include common-password Edit2: UsePAM yes fails With this configuration ssh fails to start : root@linserv9:/home/admmarc# cat /etc/ssh/sshd_config |grep -vE "^[ \t]*$|^#" Port 22 Protocol 2 ListenAddress 0.0.0.0 RSAAuthentication yes PubkeyAuthentication yes AuthorizedKeysFile .ssh/authorized_keys ChallengeResponseAuthentication yes UsePAM yes Subsystem sftp /usr/lib/sftp-server root@linserv9:/home/admmarc# The error it gives is as follows root@linserv9:/home/admmarc# /etc/init.d/ssh start * Starting OpenBSD Secure Shell server sshd /etc/ssh/sshd_config: line 75: Bad configuration option: UsePAM /etc/ssh/sshd_config: terminating, 1 bad configuration options ...fail! root@linserv9:/home/admmarc#

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  • Setting environment variables in OS X

    - by Percival Ulysses
    Despite the warning that questions that can be answered are preferred, this question is more a request for comments. I apologize for this, but I feel that it is valuable nonetheless. The problem to set up environment variables such that they are available for GUI applications has been around since the dawn of Mac OS X. The solution with ~/.MacOSX/environment.plist never satisfied me because it was not reliable, and bash style globbing wasn't available. Another solution is the use of Login Hooks with a suitable shell script, but these are deprecated. The Apple approved way for such functionality as provided by login hooks is the use of Launch Agents. I provided a launch agent that is located in /Library/LaunchAgents/: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <!DOCTYPE plist PUBLIC "-//Apple//DTD PLIST 1.0//EN" "http://www.apple.com/DTDs/PropertyList-1.0.dtd"> <plist version="1.0"> <dict> <key>Label</key> <string>user.conf.launchd</string> <key>Program</key> <string>/Users/Shared/conflaunchd.sh</string> <key>ProgramArguments</key> <array> <string>~/.conf.launchd</string> </array> <key>EnableGlobbing</key> <true/> <key>RunAtLoad</key> <true/> <key>LimitLoadToSessionType</key> <array> <string>Aqua</string> <string>StandardIO</string> </array> </dict> </plist> The real work is done in the shell script /Users/Shared/conflaunchd.sh, which reads ~/.conf.launchd and feeds it to launchctl: #! /bin/bash #filename="$1" filename="$HOME/.conf.launchd" if [ ! -r "$filename" ]; then exit fi eval $(/usr/libexec/path_helper -s) while read line; do # skip lines that only contain whitespace or a comment if [ ! -n "$line" -o `expr "$line" : '#'` -gt 0 ]; then continue; fi eval launchctl $line done <"$filename" exit 0 Notice the call of path_helper to get PATH set up right. Finally, ~/.conf.launchd looks like that setenv PATH ~/Applications:"${PATH}" setenv TEXINPUTS .:~/Documents/texmf//: setenv BIBINPUTS .:~/Documents/texmf/bibtex//: setenv BSTINPUTS .:~/Documents/texmf/bibtex//: # Locale setenv LANG en_US.UTF-8 These are launchctl commands, see its manpage for further information. Works fine for me (I should mention that I'm still a Snow Leopard guy), GUI applications such as texstudio can see my local texmf tree. Things that can be improved: The shell script has a #filename="$1" in it. This is not accidental, as the file name should be feeded to the script by the launch agent as an argument, but that doesn't work. It is possible to put the script in the launch agent itsself. I am not sure how secure this solution is, as it uses eval with user provided strings. It should be mentioned that Apple intended a somewhat similar approach by putting stuff in ~/launchd.conf, but it is currently unsupported as to this date and OS (see the manpage of launchd.conf). I guess that things like globbing would not work as they do in this proposal. Finally, I would mention the sources I used as information on Launch Agents, but StackExchange doesn't let me [1], [2], [3]. Again, I am sorry that this is not a real question, I still hope it is useful.

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  • Why am I unable to telnet to a local port that has a listening service?

    - by Skip Huffman
    I suspect this is either a very simple question, or a very complex one. I have a headless server running ubuntu 10.04 that I can ssh into. I have full root access to the system. I am trying to set up an ssh tunnel to allow me to vnc to the system (but that isn't my question. I have vnc running on port 5903, here is the netstat output for that: Proto Recv-Q Send-Q Local Address Foreign Address State PID/Program name tcp 0 0 0.0.0.0:5903 0.0.0.0:* LISTEN 7173/Xtightvnc tcp 0 0 0.0.0.0:22 0.0.0.0:* LISTEN 465/sshd But when I try to telnet to that port, from within the same system and login, I get unable to connect errors # telnet localhost 5903 Trying ::1... Trying 127.0.0.1... telnet: Unable to connect to remote host: Connection timed out I am able to telnet to port 22 (as a verification) ~# telnet localhost 22 Trying ::1... Connected to localhost. Escape character is '^]'. SSH-2.0-OpenSSH_5.3p1 Debian-3ubuntu7 I have tried to open up any possible ports using ufw (probably clumsy fashion) # ufw status numbered Status: active To Action From -- ------ ---- [ 1] 5903 ALLOW IN Anywhere [ 2] 22 ALLOW IN Anywhere What else might be blocking this connection locally? Thank you, Edit: The only reference to port 5903 in iptable -L -n is this: Chain ufw-user-input (1 references) target prot opt source destination ACCEPT tcp -- 0.0.0.0/0 0.0.0.0/0 tcp dpt:5903 ACCEPT udp -- 0.0.0.0/0 0.0.0.0/0 udp dpt:5903 ACCEPT tcp -- 0.0.0.0/0 0.0.0.0/0 tcp dpt:22 ACCEPT udp -- 0.0.0.0/0 0.0.0.0/0 udp dpt:22 ACCEPT tcp -- 0.0.0.0/0 0.0.0.0/0 tcp dpt:8080 ACCEPT udp -- 0.0.0.0/0 0.0.0.0/0 udp dpt:8080 I can post the whole output if that will be useful. hosts.allow and hosts.deny both contain only comments. Re-Edit: Some other questions pointed me to nmap, so I ran a portscan through that utility: # nmap -v -sT localhost -p1-65535 Starting Nmap 5.00 ( http://nmap.org ) at 2011-11-09 09:58 PST NSE: Loaded 0 scripts for scanning. Warning: Hostname localhost resolves to 2 IPs. Using 127.0.0.1. Initiating Connect Scan at 09:58 Scanning localhost (127.0.0.1) [65535 ports] Discovered open port 22/tcp on 127.0.0.1 Connect Scan Timing: About 18.56% done; ETC: 10:01 (0:02:16 remaining) Connect Scan Timing: About 44.35% done; ETC: 10:00 (0:01:17 remaining) Completed Connect Scan at 10:00, 112.36s elapsed (65535 total ports) Host localhost (127.0.0.1) is up (0.00s latency). Interesting ports on localhost (127.0.0.1): Not shown: 65533 filtered ports PORT STATE SERVICE 22/tcp open ssh 80/tcp closed http Read data files from: /usr/share/nmap Nmap done: 1 IP address (1 host up) scanned in 112.43 seconds Raw packets sent: 0 (0B) | Rcvd: 0 (0B) I think this shows that 5903 is blocked somehow. Which I pretty much knew. The question remains what is blocking it and how to modify. Re-re-edit: To check Paul Lathrop's suggested answer, I first verified my ip address with ifconfig: eth0 Link encap:Ethernet HWaddr 02:16:3e:42:28:8f inet addr:10.0.10.3 Bcast:10.0.10.255 Mask:255.255.255.0 Then tried to telnet to 5903 from that address: # telnet 10.0.10.3 5903 Trying 10.0.10.3... telnet: Unable to connect to remote host: Connection timed out No luck. Re-re-re-re-edit: Ok, I think I have isolated it a bit to vncserver, not the firewall, darn it. I shut off vncserver and had netcat listen on port 5903. My vnc client then was able to establish a connnection and sit and wait for a response. Looks like I should be chasing a vnc problem. At least that is progress Thanks for the help

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  • How to get attribute value using SelectSingleNode?

    - by Nano HE
    I am parsing a xml document, I need find out the gid (an attribute) value (3810). Based on SelectSingleNode(). I found it is not easy to find the attribute name and it's value. Can I use this method or I must switch to other way. Attached my code. How can I use book obj to get the attribute value3810 for gid. Thank you. My test.xml file as below <?xml version="1.0" ?> <root> <VersionInfo date="2007-11-28" version="1.0.0.2" /> <Attributes> <AttrDir name="EFEM" DirID="1"> <AttrDir name="Aligner" DirID="2"> <AttrDir name="SequenceID" DirID="3"> <AttrObj text="Slot01" gid="3810" unit="" scale="1" /> <AttrObjCount value="1" /> </AttrDir> </AttrDir> </AttrDir> </Attributes> </root> I wrote the test.cs as below public class Sample { public static void Main() { XmlDocument doc = new XmlDocument(); doc.Load("test.xml"); XmlNode book; XmlNode root = doc.DocumentElement; book = root.SelectSingleNode("Attributes[AttrDir[@name='EFEM']/AttrDir[@name='Aligner']/AttrDir[@name='SequenceID']/AttrObj[@text='Slot01']]"); Console.WriteLine("Display the modified XML document...."); doc.Save(Console.Out); } } [Update 06/10/2010] The xml file is a complex file. Included thousands of gids. But for each of Xpath, the gid is unique. I load the xml file to a TreeView control. this.treeView1.AfterSelect += new System.Windows.Forms.TreeViewEventHandler(this.treeView1_AfterSelect);. When treeView1_AfterSelect event occurred, the e.Node.FullPath will return as a String Value. I parse the string Value e.Node.FullPath. Then I got the member of XPath Above. Then I tried to find which gid item was selected. I need find the gid value as a return value indeed.

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  • AutoMapper recursive

    - by fra
    Hi! I would like to make a deep copy of a complex object tree using AutoMapper. The problem is that for each member I would like to construct a new object and then map it, and not simply copying the existing one. Here it is an example: public abstract class Test { public Test() { this.Id = Guid.NewGuid(); } public Guid Id { get; private set; } } public class OuterTest : Test { public InnerTest Inner { get; set; } } public class InnerTest : Test { public int Value { get; set; } } and how to test it: OuterTest outerDest = Mapper.Map<OuterTest, OuterTest>(outerSource); System.Diagnostics.Debug.WriteLine("InnerSource id: " + innerSource.Id); System.Diagnostics.Debug.WriteLine("InnerSource value: " + innerSource.Value); System.Diagnostics.Debug.WriteLine("OuterSource id: " + outerSource.Id); System.Diagnostics.Debug.WriteLine("OuterDest id: " + outerDest.Id); System.Diagnostics.Debug.WriteLine("OuterDest.Inner id: " + outerDest.Inner.Id); System.Diagnostics.Debug.WriteLine("OuterDest.Inner value: " + outerDest.Inner.Value); This is the result from the output window: InnerSource id: a60fda37-206a-40a8-a7f8-db480149c906 InnerSource value: 2119686684 OuterSource id: 7486899e-2da8-4873-9160-d6096b555c73 OuterDest id: 7486899e-2da8-4873-9160-d6096b555c73 OuterDest.Inner id: a60fda37-206a-40a8-a7f8-db480149c906 OuterDest.Inner value: 2119686684 The problem is thet the object innerSource is always the same instance as outerDest.Inner (I verified through MakeObjectId of VS debugger) but I would like them to be two different instances. How could I create a recursive map with this behavior? I tried creating a custom IValueResolver like the following, without success. public class AutoMapperNewObjectResolver : IValueResolver { public ResolutionResult Resolve(ResolutionResult source) { object resolved; if (source.Value != null) { object instance = Activator.CreateInstance(source.MemberType); resolved = Mapper.Map(source.Value, instance, source.MemberType, source.MemberType); } else { resolved = null; } ResolutionResult result = source.New(resolved, source.Context.DestinationType); return result; } } and configured like this: Mapper.CreateMap<OuterTest, OuterTest>() .ForMember(d => d.Inner, o => o.ResolveUsing<AutoMapperNewObjectResolver>().FromMember(src => src.Inner)); Any help appreciated, thank you

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  • System.ServiceModel.Syndication.SyndicationFeed throws when the RSS document includes a <script> blo

    - by Cheeso
    The code: using (XmlReader xmlr = XmlReader.Create(new StringReader(allXml))) { var items = from item in SyndicationFeed.Load(xmlr).Items select item; } The exception: Exception: System.Xml.XmlException: Unexpected node type Element. ReadElementString method can only be called on elements with simple or empty content. Line 11, position 25. at System.Xml.XmlReader.ReadElementString() at System.ServiceModel.Syndication.Rss20FeedFormatter.ReadXml(XmlReader reader, SyndicationFeed result) at System.ServiceModel.Syndication.Rss20FeedFormatter.ReadFeed(XmlReader reader) at System.ServiceModel.Syndication.Rss20FeedFormatter.ReadFrom(XmlReader reader) at System.ServiceModel.Syndication.SyndicationFeed.Load[TSyndicationFeed](XmlReader reader) at System.ServiceModel.Syndication.SyndicationFeed.Load(XmlReader reader) at Ionic.ToolsAndTests.ReadRss.Run() in c:\dev\dotnet\ReadRss.cs:line 90 The XML content: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <?xml-stylesheet type="text/xsl" href="https://www.ibm.com/developerworks/mydeveloperworks/blogs/roller-ui/styles/rss.xsl" media="screen"?><rss version="2.0" xmlns:dc="http://purl.org/dc/elements/1.1/" xmlns:atom="http://www.w3.org/2005/Atom" > <channel> <title>Software architecture, software engineering, and Renaissance Jazz</title> <link>https://www.ibm.com/developerworks/mydeveloperworks/blogs/gradybooch</link> <atom:link rel="self" type="application/rss+xml" href="https://www.ibm.com/developerworks/mydeveloperworks/blogs/gradybooch/feed/entries/rss?lang=en" /> <description>Software architecture, software engineering, and Renaissance Jazz</description> <language>en-us</language> <copyright>Copyright <script type='text/javascript'> document.write(blogsDate.date.localize (1273534889181));</script></copyright> <lastBuildDate>Mon, 10 May 2010 19:41:29 -0400</lastBuildDate> As you can see, on line 11, at position 25, there's a script block inside the <copyright> element. Other people have reported similar errors with other XML documents. The way I worked around this was to do a StreamReader.ReadToEnd, then do Regex.Replace on the result of that to yank out the script block, before passing the modified string to XmlReader.Create(). Feels like a hack. Has anyone got a better approach? I don't like this because I have to read in a 125k string into memory. Is it valid rss to include "complex content" like that - a script block inside an element?

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  • Dissertation about website and database security - in need of some pointers

    - by ClarkeyBoy
    Hi, I am on my dissertation in my final year at university at the moment. One of the areas I need to research is security - for both websites and for databases. I currently have sections on the following: Website Form security - such as data validation. This section is more about preventing errors made by legitimate users as much as possible rather than stopping hackers, for example comparing a field to a regular expression and giving them meaningful feedback on any errors which did occur so as to stop it happening again. Constraints. For example if a value must be true or false then use a checkbox. If it is likely to be one of several values then use a dropdown or a set of radio boxes, and so on. If the value is unpredictable then use regular expressions to limit what characters they are allowed to enter, and to restrict the length of the string, and sometimes to limit the format (such as for dates / times, post codes and so on). Sometimes you can limit permissions to the form. This is on the occasion that you know exactly who (whether it be peoples names or a group of people - such as administrators or employees) is going to need access to the form. Restricting permissions will stop members of the public from being able to access the form. Symbols or strings which could be used maliciously or cause the website to act incorrectly (such as the script tag) should be filtered out or html encoded. Captcha images can be used to prevent automated systems from filling in and submitting the form. There are some hacks for file uploads - such as using double extensions - which can allow hackers to upload malicious files. Databases (this is nowhere near done yet but the sections I have planned are listed below) SQL statements vs stored procedures Throwing an error when one of the variables contains particular characters or groups of characters (I cant remember what characters they are, but I have seen a message thrown back at me before where I have tried to enter html or something into a text area). SQL Injection - and ways around it, with some examples. Does anyone have any hints and tips on where I could go for some decent, reliable information either about these areas or about other areas of security that I could cover? Thanks in advance. Regards, Richard PS I am a complete newbie when it comes to security, so please be patient with me. If any of the information I have put down is wrong or could be sub-sectioned then please feel free to say so.

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  • Html.EditorFor not updating model on post

    - by Dave
    I have a complex type composed of two nullable DateTimes: public class Period { public DateTime? Start { get; set; } public DateTime? End { get; set; } public static implicit operator string(Period period) { /* converts from Period to string */ } public static implicit operator Period(string value) { /* and back again */ } } I want to display them together in a single textbox as a date range so I can provide a nice jQuery UI date range selector. To make that happen have the following custom editor template: <%@ Control Language="C#" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewUserControl<Period>" %> <% string name = ViewData.TemplateInfo.HtmlFieldPrefix; %> <%= Html.PeriodTextBox(name, Model.EarliestDate, Model.LatestDate) %> Where Html.PeriodTextBox is an extension method I've written that just concatenates the two dates sensibly, turns off autocomplete and generates a textbox, like so: public static MvcHelperString PeriodTextBox(this HtmlHelper helper, string name, DateTime? startDate, DateTime? endDate) { TagBuilder builder = new TagBuilder("input"); builder.GenerateId(name); builder.Attributes.Add("name", name); builder.Attributes.Add("type", "text"); builder.Attributes.Add("autocomplete", "off"); builder.Attributes.Add("value", ConcatDates(startDate, endDate)); return MvcHtmlString.Create(builder.ToString()); } That's working fine in that I can call <%= Html.EditorFor(m => m.ReportPeriod) %> and I get my textbox, then when the form is submitted the FormCollection passed to the post action will contain an entry named ReportPeriod with the correct value. [HttpPost] public ActionResult ReportByRange(FormCollection formValues) { Period reportPeriod = formValues["ReportPeriod"]; // creates a Period, with the expected values } The problem is if I replace the FormCollection with the model type I'm passing to the view then the ReportPeriod property never gets set. [HttpPost] public ActionResult ReportByRange(ReportViewModel viewModel) { Period reportPeriod = viewModel.ReportPeriod; // this is null } I expected MVC would try to set the string from the textbox to that property and it would automatically generate a Period (as in my FormCollection example), but it's not. How do I tell the textbox I've generated in the custom editor to poplate that property on the model?

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  • How to override C# DateTime serialization with class auto-generated from wsdl?

    - by Calvin Fisher
    I have a WSDL that the consumer of my web service expects will be adhered to strictly. I converted it into an interface with wsdl.exe and had my web service implement it. Except for this problem, I have been generally pleased with the results. A simple GetCurrentTime method will have the following response class generated from the WSDL in the interface definition: [System.CodeDobmCompiler.GeneratedCodeAttribute("wsdl", "2.0.50727.3038")] [System.SerializableAttribute()] [System.Diagnostics.DebuggerStepThroughAttribute()] [System.ComponentModel.DesignerCategoryAttribute("code")] [System.Xml.Serialization.XmlTypeAttribute(Namespace="[Client Namespace]")] public partial class GetCurrentTimeResponse { private System.DateTime timeStampField; [System.Xml.Serialization.XmlElementAttribute(Form=System.Xml.Schema.XmlSchemaForm.Unqualified] public System.DateTime TimeStamp{ // [accesses timeStampField] } } When I put the response data into the automatically generated response class, it gets serialized into an appropriate XML response. (Most of the web methods have much more complicated return types with multiple levels of arrays.) The problem is that the default serialization of DateTime objects violates one of the requirements in the WSDL: ... <xsd:simpleType name="SearchTimeStamp"> <xsd:restriction base="xsd:dateTime"> <xsd:pattern value="[0-9]{4}-[0-9]{2}-[0-9]{2}T[0-9]{2}:[0-9]{2}:[0-9]{2}(.[0-9]{1,7})?Z"> </xsd:restriction> </xsd:simpleType> ... Note the last part of the pattern where subseconds must be either 1 or 7 characters if they are included. The client seems to be rejecting the response because it does not match that requirement. The main issue is that when .NET serializes a DateTime object, it omits all trailing zeroes, meaning the resulting subsecond value varies in length. (e.g., "12:34:56.700" gets serialized as "<TimeStamp>12:34:56:7</TimeStamp>" by default). We use millisecond precision, so I need all timestamps to format with 7 subsecond digits in order to be compliant with the WSDL. It would be easy if I could specify a format string, but I'm not sure how to control the string that the DateTime object uses to serialize to XML, or to otherwise override the serialization behavior. How do I do this? Keeping in mind the following... I would like to modify the generated code as little as possible... preferably not at all if the change can be made through a partial class or inherited class. Using an inherited class for the return type of the web method will cause the web service to no longer implement the auto-generated interface. The TimeStamp type occurs in other, more complex response types. So, manually overriding the entire serialization process may be prohibitively time-consuming.

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  • iPhone 3DES encryption key length issue

    - by Russell Hill
    Hi, I have been banging my head on a wall with this one. I need to code my iPhone application to encrypt a 4 digit "pin" using 3DES in ECB mode for transmission to a webservice which I believe is written in .NET. + (NSData *)TripleDESEncryptWithKey:(NSString *)key dataToEncrypt:(NSData*)encryptData { NSLog(@"kCCKeySize3DES=%d", kCCKeySize3DES); char keyBuffer[kCCKeySize3DES+1]; // room for terminator (unused) bzero( keyBuffer, sizeof(keyBuffer) ); // fill with zeroes (for padding) [key getCString: keyBuffer maxLength: sizeof(keyBuffer) encoding: NSUTF8StringEncoding]; // encrypts in-place, since this is a mutable data object size_t numBytesEncrypted = 0; size_t returnLength = ([encryptData length] + kCCBlockSize3DES) & ~(kCCBlockSize3DES - 1); // NSMutableData* returnBuffer = [NSMutableData dataWithLength:returnLength]; char* returnBuffer = malloc(returnLength * sizeof(uint8_t) ); CCCryptorStatus ccStatus = CCCrypt(kCCEncrypt, kCCAlgorithm3DES , kCCOptionECBMode, keyBuffer, kCCKeySize3DES, nil, [encryptData bytes], [encryptData length], returnBuffer, returnLength, &numBytesEncrypted); if (ccStatus == kCCParamError) NSLog(@"PARAM ERROR"); else if (ccStatus == kCCBufferTooSmall) NSLog(@"BUFFER TOO SMALL"); else if (ccStatus == kCCMemoryFailure) NSLog(@"MEMORY FAILURE"); else if (ccStatus == kCCAlignmentError) NSLog(@"ALIGNMENT"); else if (ccStatus == kCCDecodeError) NSLog(@"DECODE ERROR"); else if (ccStatus == kCCUnimplemented) NSLog(@"UNIMPLEMENTED"); if(ccStatus == kCCSuccess) { NSLog(@"TripleDESEncryptWithKey encrypted: %@", [NSData dataWithBytes:returnBuffer length:numBytesEncrypted]); return [NSData dataWithBytes:returnBuffer length:numBytesEncrypted]; } else return nil; } } I do get a value encrypted using the above code, however it does not match the value from the .NET web service. I believe the issue is that the encryption key I have been supplied by the web service developers is 48 characters long. I see that the iPhone SDK constant "kCCKeySize3DES" is 24. So I SUSPECT, but don't know, that the commoncrypto API call is only using the first 24 characters of the supplied key. Is this correct? Is there ANY way I can get this to generate the correct encrypted pin? I have output the data bytes from the encryption PRIOR to base64 encoding it and have attempted to match this against those generated from the .NET code (with the help of a .NET developer who sent the byte array output to me). Neither the non-base64 encoded byte array nor the final base64 encoded strings match.

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  • Android: OutofMemoryError: bitmap size exceeds VM budget with no reason I can see.

    - by Meymann
    Hi. I am having an OutOfMemory exception with a gallery over 600x800 pixels JPEG's. The environment I've been using Gallery with JPG images around 600x800 pixels. Since my content may be a bit more complex than just images, I have set each view to be a RelativeLayout that wraps ImageView with the JPG. In order to "speed up" the user experience I have a simple cache of 4 slots that prefetches (in a looper) about 1 image left and 1 image right to the displayed image and keeps them in a 4 slot HashMap. The platform I am using AVD of 256 RAM and 128 Heap Size, with a 600x800 screen. It also happens on an Entourage Edge target, except that with the device it's harder to debug. The problem I have been getting an exception: OutofMemoryError: bitmap size exceeds VM budget And it happens when fetching the fifth image. I have tried to change the size of my image cache, and it is still the same. The strange thing: There should not be a memory problem In order to make sure the heap limit is very far away from what I need, I have defined a dummy 8MB array in the beginning, and left it unreferenced so it's immediately dispatched. It is a member of the activity thread and is defined as following static { @SuppressWarnings("unused") byte dummy[] = new byte[ 8*1024*1024 ]; } The result is that the heap size is nearly 11MB and it's all free. Note I have added that trick after it began to crash. It makes OutOfMemory less frequent. Now, I am using DDMS. Just before the crash (does not change much after the crash), DDMS shows: ID Heap Size Allocated Free %Used #Objects 1 11.195 MB 2.428 MB 8.767 MB 21.69% 47,156 And in the detail table it shows: Type Count Total Size Smallest Largest Median Average free 1,536 8.739MB 16B 7.750MB 24B 5.825KB The largest block is 7.7MB. And yet the LogCat says: ERROR/dalvikvm-heap(1923): 925200-byte external allocation too large for this process. If you mind the relation of the median and the average, it is plausible to assume that most of the available blocks are very small. However, there is a block large enough for the bitmap, it's 7.7M. How come it is still not enough? Note: I recorded a heap trace. When looking at the amount of data allocated, it does not feel like more than 2M is allocated. It does match the free memory report by DDMS. Could it be that I experience some problem like heap-fragmentation? How do I solve/workaround the problem? Is the heap shared to all threads? Could it be that I interpret the DDMS readout in a wrong way, and there is really no 900K block to allocate? If so, can anybody please tell me where I can see that? Thanks a lot Meymann

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  • How to get dropdown value using jsp:useBean and jsp:setProperty?

    - by littlevahn
    I have a rather simple form in JSP that looks like this: <form action="response.jsp" method="POST"> <label>First Name:</label><input type="text" name="firstName" /><br> <label>Last Name:</label><input type="text" name="lastName" /><br> <label>Email:</label><input type="text" name="email" /><br> <label>Re-enter Email:</label><input type="text" name="emailRe" /><br> <label>Address:</label><input type="text" name="address" /><br> <label>Address 2:</label><input type="text" name="address2" /><br> <label>City:</label><input type="text" name="city" /><br> <label>Country:</label> <select name="country"> <option value="0">--Country--</option> <option value="1">United States</option> <option value="2">Canada</option> <option value="3">Mexico</option> </select><br> <label>Phone:</label><input type="text" name="phone" /><br> <label>Alt Phone:</label><input type="text" name="phoneAlt" /><br> <input type="submit" value="submit" /> </form> But when I try and access the value of the select box in my Java class I get null. Ive tried reading it in as a String and an Array of strings neither though seems to be grabbing the right value. The response.jsp looks like this: <%@ page language="java" %> <%@ page import="java.util.*" %> <%@page contentType="text/html" pageEncoding="UTF-8"%> <%! %> <jsp:useBean id="formHandler" class="validation.RegHandler" scope="request"> <jsp:setProperty name="formHandler" property="*" /> </jsp:useBean> <% if (formHandler.validate()) { %> <jsp:forward page="success.jsp"/> <% } else { %> <jsp:forward page="retryReg.jsp"/> <% } %> I already have Java script validation in place but I wanted to make sure I covered validation and checking for non-JS users. The RegHandler just uses the name field to refer to the value in the form. Any Idea how I could access the select box's value?

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  • Binding not writing to datasource on .NET Compact Framework Form -- works on Full Framework

    - by Dave Welling
    I have a problem with a bound user control writing back to it's datasource on a NetCF forms application. The application is too complex to post code, so I made a toy version to show you. I create a form, usercontrol with a combobox, a class (testBind) and another class (TestLookup). I bind a property of the usercontrol ("value") to a property ("selectedValue") on the testBind class. The testBind class implements INotifyPropertyChanged. I create a few fascade methods on the user control to bind the contained combobox to a BindingList(of TestLookup). I create a button to show the value of the testBind bound property (in a MessageBox). The messagebox returns "-1" every time regardless of the combobox entry selected. I can take the EXACT same code, paste it in a full framework Forms app and it will return the correct value of the selected combobox entry. Imports System.ComponentModel Public Class Form2 Inherits Form Private _testBind1 As testBind Private _testUserControlX As UserControlX Friend WithEvents _buttonX As System.Windows.Forms.Button Public Sub New() _buttonX = New System.Windows.Forms.Button _buttonX.Location = New System.Drawing.Point(126, 228) _buttonX.Size = New System.Drawing.Size(70, 21) _testBind1 = New testBind _testUserControlX = New UserControlX() Dim _lookup As New System.ComponentModel.BindingList(Of TestLookup)() _lookup.Add(New TestLookup(1, "text1")) _lookup.Add(New TestLookup(2, "text2")) _testUserControlX.DataSource = _lookup _testUserControlX.DisplayMember = "Text" _testUserControlX.ValueMember = "ID" _testUserControlX.DataBindings.Add("Value", _testBind1, "SelectedID", False, DataSourceUpdateMode.OnValidation) MinimizeBox = False Controls.Add(_testUserControlX) Controls.Add(_buttonX) End Sub Private Sub ButtonX_Click(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles _buttonX.Click MessageBox.Show(_testBind1.SelectedID.ToString()) End Sub Public Class testBind Implements System.ComponentModel.INotifyPropertyChanged Private _selectedRow As Integer = -1 Public Event PropertyChanged(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.ComponentModel.PropertyChangedEventArgs) Implements System.ComponentModel.INotifyPropertyChanged.PropertyChanged Protected Sub OnPropertyChanged(ByVal PropertyName As String) RaiseEvent PropertyChanged(Me, New PropertyChangedEventArgs(PropertyName)) End Sub Public Property SelectedID() As Integer Get Return _selectedRow End Get Set(ByVal value As Integer) _selectedRow = value OnPropertyChanged("SelectedID") End Set End Property End Class Public Class TestLookup Private _text As String Private _id As Integer Public Sub New(ByVal id As Integer, ByVal text As String) _text = text _id = id End Sub Public Property ID() As Integer Get Return _id End Get Set(ByVal value As Integer) _id = value End Set End Property Public Property Text() As String Get Return _text End Get Set(ByVal value As String) _text = value End Set End Property End Class End Class Public Class UserControlX Inherits System.Windows.Forms.UserControl Friend WithEvents ComboBox1 As System.Windows.Forms.ComboBox Public Sub New() Me.ComboBox1 = New System.Windows.Forms.ComboBox Me.Controls.Add(Me.ComboBox1) End Sub Public Property Value() As Integer Get Return ComboBox1.SelectedValue End Get Set(ByVal value As Integer) ComboBox1.SelectedValue = value End Set End Property Public Property DataSource() As Object Get Return ComboBox1.DataSource End Get Set(ByVal value As Object) ComboBox1.DataSource = value End Set End Property Public Property ValueMember() As String Get Return ComboBox1.ValueMember End Get Set(ByVal value As String) ComboBox1.ValueMember = value End Set End Property Public Property DisplayMember() As String Get Return ComboBox1.DisplayMember End Get Set(ByVal value As String) ComboBox1.DisplayMember = value End Set End Property End Class

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  • Compare NSArray with NSMutableArray adding delta objects to NSMutableArray

    - by Hooligancat
    I have an NSMutableArray that is populated with objects of strings. For simplicity sake we'll say that the objects are a person and each person object contains information about that person. Thus I would have an NSMutableArray that is populated with person objects: person.firstName person.lastName person.age person.height And so on. The initial source of data comes from a web server and is populated when my application loads and completes it's initialization with the server. Periodically my application polls the server for the latest list of names. Currently I am creating an NSArray of the result set, emptying the NSMutableArray and then re-populating the NSMutableArray with NSArray results before destroying the NSArray object. This seems inefficient to me on a few levels and also presents me with a problem losing table row references which I can work around, but might be creating more work for myself in doing so. The inefficiency seems to be that I should be able to compare the two arrays and end up with a filtered NSArray. I could then add the filtered set to the NSMutableArray. This would mean that I can simply append new data to the NSMutableArray instead of throwing everything out and re-populating. Conversely I would need to do the same filter in reverse to see if there are records that need removing from the NSMutableArray. Is there any method to do this in a more efficient manner? Have I overlooked something in the docs some place that refers to a simpler technique? I have a problem when I empty the NSMutableArray and re-populate in that any referencing tables lose their selected row state. I can track it and re-select it, but my theory is that using some form of compare and adding objects and removing objects instead of dealing with the whole array in one block might mean I keep my row reference (assuming the item isn't deleted of course). Any suggestions or help much appreciated. Update Would it be just as fast to do a fast enumeration over each comparing each line item as I go? It seems like an expensive operation, but with the last fast enumeration code it might be pretty efficient...

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  • Objective-C Out of scope problem

    - by davbryn
    Hi, I'm having a few problems with some Objective-C and would appreciate some pointers. So I have a class MapFileGroup which has the following simple interface (There are other member variables but they aren't important): @interface MapFileGroup : NSObject { NSMutableArray *mapArray; } @property (nonatomic, retain) NSMutableArray *mapArray; mapArray is @synthesize'd in the .m file. It has an init method: -(MapFileGroup*) init { self = [super init]; if (self) { mapArray = [NSMutableArray arrayWithCapacity: 10]; } return self; } It also has a method for adding a custom object to the array: -(BOOL) addMapFile:(MapFile*) mapfile { if (mapfile == nil) return NO; mapArray addObject:mapfile]; return YES; } The problem I get comes when I want to use this class - obviously due to a misunderstanding of memory management on my part. In my view controller I declare as follows: (in the @interface): MapFileGroup *fullGroupOfMaps; With @property @property (nonatomic, retain) MapFileGroup *fullGroupOfMaps; Then in the .m file I have a function called loadMapData that does the following: MapFileGroup *mapContainer = [[MapFileGroup alloc] init]; // create a predicate that we can use to filter an array // for all strings ending in .png (case insensitive) NSPredicate *caseInsensitivePNGFiles = [NSPredicate predicateWithFormat:@"SELF endswith[c] '.png'"]; mapNames = [unfilteredArray filteredArrayUsingPredicate:caseInsensitivePNGFiles]; [mapNames retain]; NSEnumerator * enumerator = [mapNames objectEnumerator]; NSString * currentFileName; NSString *nameOfMap; MapFile *mapfile; while(currentFileName = [enumerator nextObject]) { nameOfMap = [currentFileName substringToIndex:[currentFileName length]-4]; //strip the extension mapfile = [[MapFile alloc] initWithName:nameOfMap]; [mapfile retain]; // add to array [fullGroupOfMaps addMapFile:mapfile]; } This seems to work ok (Though I can tell I've not got the memory management working properly, I'm still learning Objective-C); however, I have an (IBAction) that interacts with the fullGroupOfMaps later. It calls a method within fullGroupOfMaps, but if I step into the class from that line while debugging, all fullGroupOfMaps's objects are now out of scope and I get a crash. So apologies for the long question and big amount of code, but I guess my main question it: How should I handle a class with an NSMutableArray as an instance variable? What is the proper way of creating objects to be added to the class so that they don't get freed before I'm done with them? Many thanks

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  • ASP.NET MVC 2: Updating a Linq-To-Sql Entity with an EntitySet

    - by Simon
    I have a Linq to Sql Entity which has an EntitySet. In my View I display the Entity with it's properties plus an editable list for the child entites. The user can dynamically add and delete those child entities. The DefaultModelBinder works fine so far, it correctly binds the child entites. Now my problem is that I just can't get Linq To Sql to delete the deleted child entities, it will happily add new ones but not delete the deleted ones. I have enabled cascade deleting in the foreign key relationship, and the Linq To Sql designer added the "DeleteOnNull=true" attribute to the foreign key relationships. If I manually delete a child entity like this: myObject.Childs.Remove(child); context.SubmitChanges(); This will delete the child record from the DB. But I can't get it to work for a model binded object. I tried the following: // this does nothing public ActionResult Update(int id, MyObject obj) // obj now has 4 child entities { var obj2 = _repository.GetObj(id); // obj2 has 6 child entities if(TryUpdateModel(obj2)) //it sucessfully updates obj2 and its childs { _repository.SubmitChanges(); // nothing happens, records stay in DB } else ..... return RedirectToAction("List"); } and this throws an InvalidOperationException, I have a german OS so I'm not exactly sure what the error message is in english, but it says something along the lines of that the entity needs a Version (Timestamp row?) or no update check policies. I have set UpdateCheck="Never" to every column except the primary key column. public ActionResult Update(MyObject obj) { _repository.MyObjectTable.Attach(obj, true); _repository.SubmitChanges(); // never gets here, exception at attach } I've read alot about similar "problems" with Linq To Sql, but it seems most of those "problems" are actually by design. So am I right in my assumption that this doesn't work like I expect it to work? Do I really have to manually iterate through the child entities and delete, update and insert them manually? For such a simple object this may work, but I plan to create more complex objects with nested EntitySets and so on. This is just a test to see what works and what not. So far I'm disappointed with Linq To Sql (maybe I just don't get it). Would be the Entity Framework or NHibernate a better choice for this scenario? Or would I run into the same problem?

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  • Extracting pair member in lambda expressions and template typedef idiom

    - by Nazgob
    Hi, I have some complex types here so I decided to use nifty trick to have typedef on templated types. Then I have a class some_container that has a container as a member. Container is a vector of pairs composed of element and vector. I want to write std::find_if algorithm with lambda expression to find element that have certain value. To get the value I have to call first on pair and then get value from element. Below my std::find_if there is normal loop that does the trick. My lambda fails to compile. How to access value inside element which is inside pair? I use g++ 4.4+ and VS 2010 and I want to stick to boost lambda for now. #include <vector> #include <algorithm> #include <boost\lambda\lambda.hpp> #include <boost\lambda\bind.hpp> template<typename T> class element { public: T value; }; template<typename T> class element_vector_pair // idiom to have templated typedef { public: typedef std::pair<element<T>, std::vector<T> > type; }; template<typename T> class vector_containter // idiom to have templated typedef { public: typedef std::vector<typename element_vector_pair<T>::type > type; }; template<typename T> bool operator==(const typename element_vector_pair<T>::type & lhs, const typename element_vector_pair<T>::type & rhs) { return lhs.first.value == rhs.first.value; } template<typename T> class some_container { public: element<T> get_element(const T& value) const { std::find_if(container.begin(), container.end(), bind(&typename vector_containter<T>::type::value_type::first::value, boost::lambda::_1) == value); /*for(size_t i = 0; i < container.size(); ++i) { if(container.at(i).first.value == value) { return container.at(i); } }*/ return element<T>(); //whatever } protected: typename vector_containter<T>::type container; }; int main() { some_container<int> s; s.get_element(5); return 0; }

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