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  • C#: Changing the order of columns when binding DataTable to a GridView

    - by Nir
    How is it possible to change the displayed order of columns from a DataTable? For example, dataTable "dt" contains two columns "a" and "b". I bind it to a GridView like this: gridView.DataSource = dt; gridView.DataBind(); But I'd like the GridView to display "b" first (leftmost). Important point: I'm using this to export to Excel and there's no actual output to screen, using: HtmlTextWriter htw = new HtmlTextWriter(sw); gridView.RenderControl(htw); Thanks!

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  • What's wrong in this SELECT statement

    - by user522211
    Protected Sub Page_Load(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles Me.Load Dim SQLData As New System.Data.SqlClient.SqlConnection("Data Source=.\SQLEXPRESS;AttachDbFilename=|DataDirectory|\Database.mdf;Integrated Security=True;User Instance=True") Dim cmdSelect As New System.Data.SqlClient.SqlCommand("SELECT * FROM Table1 WHERE Seats ='" & TextBox1.Text & "'", SQLData) SQLData.Open() Using adapter As New SqlDataAdapter(cmdSelect) Using table As New Data.DataTable() adapter.Fill(table) TextBox1.Text = [String].Join(", ", table.AsEnumerable().[Select](Function(r) r.Field(Of Integer)("seat_select"))) End Using End Using SQLData.Close() End Sub This line will be highlighted with blue line: TextBox1.Text = [String].Join(", ", table.AsEnumerable().[Select](Function(r) r.Field(Of Integer)("seat_select")))

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  • Oracle data provider hangs IIS worker process when web site is stopped

    - by Greg
    We're experiencing a nasty issue in Oracle 11g Release 2 where the w3wp process takes over and entire processor core, and debugging shows that the Oracle data provider is throwing ThreadAbortExceptions infinitely. A developer found this issue by doing the following: 1) Browse a web site that uses Oracle data connections locally (http://localhost/OracleWebSite) - we use IIS, not the ASP.NET dev server, for all of our sites. This ensures that the w3wp process is running and that an active Oracle pool of connections exists in the app pool. 2) Stop the web site (or perform a Rebuild All operation in Visual Studio on the web site in question). Our Oracle connection handling in the affected applications (all Oracle web apps) is well-established and robust. This issue does not occur if we disable connection pooling. This issue does not occur in Oracle 11g Release 1.

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  • Strategies for "Always-Connected" Windows Client Data Architecture

    - by magz2010
    Hi. Let me start by saying: this is my 1st post here, this is a bit lenghty, and I havent done Windows Forms development in years....with that in mind please excuse me if this isn't directly a programming question and please bear with me as I really need the help!! I have been asked to develop a Windows Forms app for our company that talks to a central (local area network) Linux Server hosting a PostgreSQL database. The app is to allow users to authenticate themselves into the system and thereafter conduct the usual transactions with the PG database. Ordinarily, I would propose writing a webforms app against Mono, but the clients need to utilise local resources such as USB peripheral devices, so that is out of the question. While it might not seem clear, my questions are italised below: Dilemma #1: The application is meant to be always connected. How should I structure my DAL/BLL - Should this reside on the server or with the client? Dilemma #2: I have been reading up on Client Application Services (CAS), and it seems like a great fit for authentication, as everything is exposed via URIs. I know that a .NET Data Provider exists for PostgreSQL, but not too sure if CAS will all work on a Linux (Debian) server? Believe me, I would get my hands dirty and try myself, but I need to come up with a logical design first before resources are allocated to me for "trial purposes"! Dilemma #3: If the DAL/BLL is to reside on the server, is there any way I can create data services, and expose only these services to authenticated clients. There is a (security) requirement whereby a connection string with username and password to the database cannot be present on any client machines...even if security on the database side is quite rigid. I'm guessing that the only way for this to work would be to create the various CRUD data service methods that are exposed by an ASP.NET app, and have the WindowsForms make a request for data or persist data to the ASP.NET app (thru a URI) and have that return a resultset or value. Would I be correct in assuming this? Should I be looking into WCF Data Services? and will WCF work with a non-SQL Server database? Thank you for taking the time out to read this, but know that I am desperately seeking any advice on this! THANKS A MILLION!!!!

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  • I need to convert the result of a stored procedure in a dbml file to IQueryable to view a list in an

    - by RJ
    I have a MVC project that has a Linq to SQL dbml class. It is a table called Clients that houses client information. I can easily get the information to display in a View using the code I followed in Nerd Dinner but I have added a stored procedure to the dbml and it's result set is of IQueryable, not IQueryable. I need to convert IQueryable to IQueryable so I can display it in the same View. The reason for the sproc is so I can pass a search string tothe sproc and return the same information as a full list but filtered on the search. I know I can use Linq to filter the whole list but I don't want the whole list so I am using the sproc. Here is the code in my ClientRepository with a comment where I need to convert. What code goes in the commented spot. public IQueryable<Client> SelectClientsBySearch(String search) { IQueryable<SelectClientsBySearchResult> spClientList = (from p in db.SelectClientsBySearch(search) select p).AsQueryable(); //what is the code to convert IQueryable<SelectClientsBySearchResult> to IQueryable<Client> return clientList; }

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  • EXC_MEMORY_ACCESS when trying to delete from Core Data ($cash solution)

    - by llloydxmas
    I have an application that downloads an xml file, parses the file, and creates core data objects while doing so. In the parse code I have a function called 'emptydatacontext' that removes all items from Core Data before creating replacements items from the xml data. This method looks like this: -(void) emptyDataContext { NSFetchRequest * allCon = [[NSFetchRequest alloc] init]; [allCon setEntity:[NSEntityDescription entityForName:@"Condition" inManagedObjectContext:managedObjectContext]]; NSError * error = nil; NSArray * conditions = [managedObjectContext executeFetchRequest:allCon error:&error]; DebugLog(@"ERROR: %@",error); DebugLog(@"RETRIEVED: %@", conditions); [allCon release]; for (NSManagedObject * condition in conditions) { [managedObjectContext deleteObject:condition]; } // Update the data model effectivly removing the objects we removed above. //NSError *error; if (![managedObjectContext save:&error]) { DebugLog(@"%@", [error domain]); } } The first time this runs it deletes all objects and functions as it should - creating new objects from the xml file. I created a 'update' button that starts the exact same process of retrieving the file the proceeding with the parse & build. All is well until its time to delete the core data objects. This 'deleteObject' call creates a "EXC_BAD_ACCESS" error each time. This only happens on the second time through. Captured errors return null. If I log the 'conditions' array I get a list of NSManagedObjects on the first run. On the second this log request causes a crash exactly as the deleteObject call does. I have a feeling it is something very simple I'm missing or not doing correctly to cause this behavior. The data works great on my tableviews - its only when trying to update I get the crashes. I have spent days & days on this trying numerous alternative methods. Whats left of my hair is falling out. I'd be willing to ante up some cash for anyone willing to look at my code and see what I'm doing wrong. Just need to get past this hurdle. Thanks in advance for the help!

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  • Haskell data serialization of some data implementing a common type class

    - by Evan
    Let's start with the following data A = A String deriving Show data B = B String deriving Show class X a where spooge :: a -> Q [ Some implementations of X for A and B ] Now let's say we have custom implementations of show and read, named show' and read' respectively which utilize Show as a serialization mechanism. I want show' and read' to have types show' :: X a => a -> String read' :: X a => String -> a So I can do things like f :: String -> [Q] f d = map (\x -> spooge $ read' x) d Where data could have been [show' (A "foo"), show' (B "bar")] In summary, I wanna serialize stuff of various types which share a common typeclass so I can call their separate implementations on the deserialized stuff automatically. Now, I realize you could write some template haskell which would generate a wrapper type, like data XWrap = AWrap A | BWrap B deriving (Show) and serialize the wrapped type which would guarantee that the type info would be stored with it, and that we'd be able to get ourselves back at least an XWrap... but is there a better way using haskell ninja-ery? EDIT Okay I need to be more application specific. This is an API. Users will define their As, and Bs and fs as they see fit. I don't ever want them hacking through the rest of the code updating their XWraps, or switches or anything. The most i'm willing to compromise is one list somewhere of all the A, B, etc. in some format. Why? Here's the application. A is "Download a file from an FTP server." B is "convert from flac to mp3". A contains username, password, port, etc. information. B contains file path information. A and B are Xs, and Xs shall be called "Tickets." Q is IO (). Spooge is runTicket. I want to read the tickets off into their relevant data types and then write generic code that will runTicket on the stuff read' from the stuff on disk. At some point I have to jam type information into the serialized data.

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  • relating data stored in NoSQL DB to data stored in SQL DB

    - by seanbrant
    Whats the best way to use a SQL DB along side a NoSQL DB? I want to keep my users and other data in postgres but have some data that would be better suited for a NoSQL DB like redis. I see a lot of talk about switching to NoSQL but little talk on integrating it with existing systems. I think it would be foolish to throw the baby out with the bath water and ditch SQL all together, unless it makes things easier to maintain and develop. I'm wondering what the best approach is for relating data stored in SQL to my data in redis. I was thinking of something along the line of this. User object stored in SQL Book object in redis, key sh1 hash of value, value is a JSON string Relations stored in redis, key User.pk:books, value redis set of sha1's Anyone have experience, tips, better ways?

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  • How to set order of appearance for fields when using Html.EditorFor in MVC 2?

    - by Anrie
    I have the following classes in my Model: public abstract class Entity : IEntity { [ScaffoldColumn(false)] public int Id { get; set; } [Required,StringLength(500)] public string Name { get; set; } } and public class Model : SortableEntity { [Required] public ModelType Type { get; set; } [ListRequired] public List<Producer> Producers { get; set; } public List<PrintArea> PrintAreas { get; set; } public List<Color> Colors { get; set; } } To display the "Model" class in the view I simply call Html.EditorFor(model=model), but the "Name" property of the base class is rendered last, which is not the desired behaviour. Is it possible to influenece on the order of displayed fields somehow?

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  • How to get the id of Updatepanel which initiated a postback

    - by Voice
    Hi I need to intercept server callback after udate panel async post back and determine which panel initiated the request. The code is pretty simple: Sys.WebForms.PageRequestManager.getInstance().add_pageLoaded(InterceptUpdateCallback); function InterceptUpdateCallback(sender, args) { var updatedPanels = args.get_panelsUpdated(); for (idx = 0; idx < updatedPanels.length; idx++) { if (updatedPanels[idx].id == "myUpdatePanel") { StartSmth(); break; } } } And it works when UpdatePanel is not inside another UpdatePanel. But when it is inside another UpdatePanel updatedPanels[idx].id has parent Updatepanel id. So how can I get the id of UpdatePanel which initiated the request (the inner UpdatePanel)? Thanx

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  • Access parent class from custom attribute

    - by madcapnmckay
    Hi, Is it possible to access a parent class from within an attribute. For example I would like to create a DropDownListAttribute which can be applied to a property of a viewmodel class in MVC and then create a drop down list from an editor template. I am following a similar line as Kazi Manzur Rashid here. He adds the collection of categories into viewdata and retrieves them using the key supplied to the attribute. I would like to do something like the below, public ExampleDropDownViewModel { public IEnumerable<SelectListItem> Categories {get;set;} [DropDownList("Categories")] public int CategoryID { get;set; } } The attribute takes the name of the property containing the collection to bind to. I can't figure out how to access a property on the parent class of the attribute. Does anyone know how to do this? Thanks

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  • Incorrect component when querying immediately after insert using NHibernate

    - by Am
    I have the following mapping for my table in MySql: <class name="Tag, namespace" table="tags" > <id name="id" type="Int32" unsaved-value="0"> <generator class="native"></generator> </id> <property name="name" type="String" not-null="true"></property> <component name="record_dates" class="DateMetaData, namespace" > <property name="created_at" type="DateTime" not-null="true"></property> <property name="updated_at" type="DateTime" not-null="true"></property> </component> </class> As you see the record_dates property is defined as a component field of type DateMetaDate. Both created_at and updated_at fields in 'tags' table are updated via triggers. Thus I can insert a new record like such: var newTag = new Tag() { name = "some string here" } Int32 id = (Int32)Session.Save(tag); Session.Flush(); ITag t = Session.Get<Tag>(id); ViewData["xxx"] = t.name; // -----> not null ViewData["xxx"] = t.record_dates.created_at; // -----> is null However when querying the same record back immediately after it was inserted the record_dates field ends up null even though in the table those fields have got values. Can any one please point out why the Session.Get ignores getting everything back from the table? is it because it caches the newly created record for which the records_dates is null? If so how can it be told to ignore the cached version?

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  • Why is my form triggering the wrong controller action?

    - by COCoach
    This form has multiple submit buttons, when clicked, it calls a simple JavaScript function to change the value of a hidden input (function is called "setHidden". This worked before, after some other not relevant code, it has ceased working. Essentially, the action it is supposed to call is never called, instead it seems to default back to a previous URL. The Form: <form action="/League/RemoveOwner" method="post"> <input type="hidden" value="1007" name="lid"/> <input type="hidden" value="0" id="index" name="index"/> <input type="image" src="../../Resources/Images/Delete.png" height="12" alt="Remove Owner" title="Remove Owner" onclick="setHidden('index', '1031')"/></a> coach<br /> </form> The Controller: [HttpPost] public ActionResult RemoveOwner(int id, string index) { //yada return PartialView(); } When clicking the image, it should call the remove owner controller, instead it calls the "View" controller: public ActionResult View(int id) { //yada return View(); }

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  • InvalidOperationException in Default.aspx.cs

    - by zsharp
    I changed the default namespace of my solution and assembly name, but i still get an error that there is abiguity between these even though the latter namespace is no where to be found. NewName.Controllers.HomeController OldName.Controllers.HomeController

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  • MVC3 View For Loop values initialization

    - by Ryan
    So I have a for loop in my View that is supposed to render out the input boxes. Now inside these input boxes I want to put lables that disappear when you click on them. This is all simple. Now it's probably because my brain was wired for php first, and it has been difficult to get it to think in lambdas and object orientation, but I can't figure out how to do this: @{ for (int i = 0; i < 3; i++) { <div class="editor-label grid_2">User</div> Model.Users[i].UserFirstName = "First Name"; Model.Users[i].UserLastName = "Last Name"; Model.Users[i].UserEmailAddress = "Email Address"; <div class="grid_10"> @Html.TextBoxFor(m => Model.Users[i].UserFirstName, new { @class = "user-input" }) @Html.TextBoxFor(m => Model.Users[i].UserLastName, new { @class = "user-input" }) @Html.TextBoxFor(m => Model.Users[i].UserEmailAddress, new { @class = "user-input-long" }) @Html.CheckBoxFor(m => Model.Users[i].IsUserAdmin) <span>&nbsp;admin?</span> </div> <div class="clear"> </div> } } And initialize the values for the users. And you're probably thinking "Of course that won't work. You're going to get a Null Reference Exception", and you would be correct. I might need to initialize them somewhere else and I don't realize it but I'm just not sure. I've tried the [DefaultValue("First Name")] route and that doesn't work. I'm probably thinking about this wrong, but my brain is already shot from trying to figure out how to wire up these events to the controller, so any help would be appreciated!

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  • LINQ to SQL for tables across databases. Or View?

    - by BritishDeveloper
    I have a Message table and a User table. Both are in separate databases. There is a userID in the Message table that is used to join to the User table to find things like userName. How can I create this in LINQ to SQL? I can't seem to do a cross database join. Should I create a View in the database and use that instead? Will that work? What will happen to CRUD against it? E.g. if I delete a message - surely it won't delete the user? I'd imagine it would throw an error. What to do? I can't move the tables into the same database!

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  • How to handle null {id} on route?

    - by MattSlay
    What if a user hits my site with http://www.mysite.com/Quote/Edit rather than http://www.mysite.com/Quote/Edit/1000 In other words, they do not specify a value for {id}. If they do not, I want to display a nice "Not Found" page, since they did not give an ID. I currentl handle this by accepting a nullable int as the parameter in the Controller Action and it works fine. However, I'm curious if there a more standard MVC framework way of handling this, rather than the code I presently use (see below). Is a smoother way to handle this, or is this pretty mush the right way to do it? [HttpGet] public ActionResult Edit(int? id) { if (id == null) return View("QuoteNotFound"); int quoteId = (int)id; var viewModel = new QuoteViewModel(this.UserId); viewModel.LoadQuote(quoteId); if (viewModel.QuoteNo > 0) { return View("Create", viewModel.Quote.Entity); } else return View("QuoteNotFound"); }

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  • Extension method not working if I set controller property in Action, works in OnExecuting

    - by Blankman
    I have a class MyController that inherits from Controller, so all my controllers inherit from MyController. I have a property in MyController: public class MyController : Controller { public string SomeProperty {get;set;} } if I set this property in MyController's OnExecuting method, my HtmlHelper extension method works fine: public static string SomeExtension(this HtmlHelper htmlHelper) { StringBuilder sb = new StringBuilder(); string result = ""; var controller = htmlHelper.ViewContext.Controller as MyController; if (controller != null) { result = controller.SomeProperty; } return result; } it doesn't work if I set 'SomeProperty' in my controllers action method. I guess because I am doing 'as MyController' in the extension method? is there a way for it to work in both situations? I am using the value of SomeProperty to be outputted on my view pages.

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  • MVC Model Binding to a collection where collection does not begin with a 0 index

    - by FloatLeft
    I'm trying to perform remote validation on a property of an item within a collection. The validation works OK on the first item of the collection. The http request to the validation method looks like: /Validation/IsImeiAvailable?ImeiGadgets[0].ImeiNumber=123456789012345 However on the 2nd item where the url looks like below, the validation doesn't work /Validation/IsImeiAvailable?ImeiGadgets[1].ImeiNumber=123456789012345 Now I'm pretty sure the reason for this, is that binding wont work on a collection that doesn't begin with a zero index. My validation method has a signature as below: public JsonResult IsImeiAvailable([Bind(Prefix = "ImeiGadgets")] Models.ViewModels.ImeiGadget[] imeiGadget) Because I'm passing an item within a collection I have to bind like this yet what I'm really passing is just a single value. Is there anyway I can deal with this other than just binding it as a plain old query string. Thanks Edit: This is the quick fix to get the Imei variable but I'd rather use the model binding: string imeiNumber = Request.Url.AbsoluteUri.Substring(Request.Url.AbsoluteUri.IndexOf("=")+1);

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  • How to define and use a local variable in aspx page?

    - by Bruskvilla
    Hello how can I define a local variable in aspx page. I just did the below code it gives errors. I'm new please help. Thanks. <% Devamsizlik.Models.DevamDurumu obj; % <% foreach (var item in Model){ %> .....blabla <% obj = item; %> <%} %>//end of foreach < p <%: Html.ActionLink("Create New", "DevamsizEkle", new { ogrId = obj.devamOgrenciID }, new { subeId = obj.devamsizlikSubeID })% < / p > ....< /p cause a compilation error Compiler Error Message: CS0165: Use of unassigned local variable 'obj'

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  • PortableArea and MasterPages

    - by Sunny
    How can I design my portable areas such that the consumer can specify the MasterPage & various content placeholders & my portable area renders into those regions at run time? Any code samples and/or ideas? Thanks!

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  • ASP.NET MVC Render Ajax / Standard View

    - by Wayne
    I am a little confused and making it alot more complicated than this needs to be! Here is what I have... A view which displays a drop down of US States. When the user chooses a state it loads a list of data from a database and returns the results (populates the View Model) and the View renders the information. What I wanted to do was have have the dropdown trigger an Ajax event which performs the data load, but also wanted it to depreciate if the user didn't have Javascript enabled. How would I go about rendering the view with AND without javascript / ajax? Hope that makes sense. Thanks for your help.

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