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• why Thinkpad T410s intermittent keyboard death?

  - by patrickmdnet

  I have a Thinkpad T410s running Windows 7 64-bit. I have had it for three months. It has the latest BIOS (1.41) and trackpad drivers. In the last week I have started to notice that the keyboard intermittently stops working. Specifically, keystrokes have no effect, including Fn-F12 (shutdown) and Ctrl-Alt-Del. The LED on the capslock key does not turn on or off. Whatever state the lighted keys (e.g. mute) were in remains. The trackpad and trackpoint work properly, and I can close apps and properly shut down the machine. When I attach a USB keyboard it is recognized, but no keys work. If I run the Lenovo keyboard test, all the keys register properly and the caps lock light works again. When I quit the test app, the caps lock light stops working. If I hit Fn-F12 while the keyboard test is running, it goes into hibernation. When the machine comes back from hibernation, once I exit the keyboard test I again cannot do any input on the keyboard. I'm pretty convinced there is a software or driver problem. I never saw this the first three months I had the laptop. I do not recall installing anything recently. I am sure I've received some Windows security updates. I tried using wired networking instead of wireless - no difference. There doesn't appear to be any inciting event; it usually happens when I am working over ssh. I switched from rxvt+ssh to Putty and the problem still occurs. Any ideas?

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• keyboard intermittently stops working, even after reinstalling windows 7; possibly a Chrome issue?

  - by neverskipbreakfast

  My keyboard intermittently stops working. Sometimes a couple of keys will work, but usually none. Sometimes if I mash a couple of the ctrl+alt+windows type keys randomly for a bit, the keyboard will let me type one more letter before stopping again. Sometimes the keys will open a program menu, but usually not. I have even completely wiped my machine and reinstalled windows 7; the problem continues. Specs: Intel iMac (early 2006, 2.0GHz, 2MB RAM, 240GB HD) running ONLY Windows 7 Professional, 32-bit (NOT through boot camp) and using a USB keyboard (Saitek Eclipse II.) *Unplugging & reconnecting keyboard does NOT fix it. *Connecting a different keyboard does NOT fix it. That one won't work, either. *Drivers are up-to-date. Removing and reinstalling drivers does NOT fix it. *Restarting the computer does NOT fix it. In fact, when the Windows logon screen appears, they keyboard won't work, and neither will the icon to pull up the on-screen keyboard. Otherwise my mouse can click around just fine. I can only log onto a non-password protected account. *Generally, logging into as different Windows user fixes it. I can then log back on to my main user account and continue work for a few hours until it happens again. *Clearing my Chrome browsing data stopped the problem from recurring for a week or so. *I use Avira free antivirus software, and repeated scans turn up nothing fishy. *I have already REINSTALLED Windows 7 (not just a restore.) The problem returned after 2 days of use. The only thing I suspect is something in Google Chrome -- I used my google account to reload all my previous Chrome extensions, saved data, etc. (Chrome Extensions Installed: AdBlock, Better Google Tasks, DropBox, FB Photo Zoom, Google Mail Checker, StayFocusd.) Any ideas? Any at all?

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• Scripting a permanent CTRL / CAPS swap in Gnome?

  - by Duncan Bayne

  I have a bash script that I use to configure a vanilla Ubuntu (10.10 Maverick Meerkat) installation to be exactly the way I want it. I make extensive use of gconftool-2 to configure the desktop, set up shortcut keys, etc. Now, I'm trying to swap the CTRL and CAPS keys. I have found two ways of doing this: In Gnome, go to System - Preferences - Keyboard - Layout - Options and make the change in there. This works well, but I don't know how to script this; the setting doesn't seem to be stored in the usual place as I can't find it with gconf-editor. Add the line setxkbmap -option "ctrl:swapcaps" to my .bashrc file. That works too, until I suspend the machine & then resume it. At that point the CTRL and CAPS behaviour return to normal, until I cause .bashrc to be run again by opening a new shell. This behaviour has been reported as a bug in RedHat. Could someone please suggest a way of switching those keys that is both permanent, and can be scripted? I'm sure I must be missing something obvious here ...

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• SSH does not allow the use of a key with group readable permissions

  - by scjr

  I have a development git server that deploys to a live server when the live branch is pushed to. Every user has their own login and therefore the post-receive hook which does the live deployment is run under their own user. Because I don't want to have to maintain the users public keys as authorized keys on the remote live server I have made up a set of keys that 'belong's to the git system to add to remote live servers (In the post-receive hook I am using $GIT_SSH to set the private key with the -i option). My problem is that because of all the users might want to deploy to live, the git system's private key has to be at least group readable and SSH really doesn't like this. Here's a sample of the error: XXXX@XXXX /srv/git/identity % ssh -i id_rsa XXXXX@XXXXX @@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@ @ WARNING: UNPROTECTED PRIVATE KEY FILE! @ @@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@@ Permissions 0640 for 'id_rsa' are too open. It is required that your private key files are NOT accessible by others. This private key will be ignored. bad permissions: ignore key: id_rsa I've looked around expecting to find something in the way of forcing ssh to just go through with the connection but I've found nothing but people blindly saying that you just shouldn't allow access to anything but a single user.

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• Is it ok to share private key file between multiple computers/services?

  - by Behrang

  So we all know how to use public key/private keys using SSH, etc. But what's the best way to use/reuse them? Should I keep them in a safe place forever? I mean, I needed a pair of keys for accessing GitHub. I created a pair from scratch and used that for some time to access GitHub. Then I formatted my HDD and lost that pair. Big deal, I created a new pair and configured GitHub to use my new pair. Or is it something that I don't want to lose? I also needed a pair of public key/private keys to access our company systems. Our admin asked me for my public key and I generated a new pair and gave it to him. Is it generally better to create a new pair for access to different systems or is it better to have one pair and reuse it to access different systems? Similarly, is it better to create two different pairs and use one to access our companies systems from home and the other one to access the systems from work, or is it better to just have one pair and use it from both places?

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• AutoHotKey temporarily rebind Winkey

  - by wes

  I've got a wireless keyboard that puts some media keys on top of the Function keys, so that by default F4 is actually lock (Rwin & l) and Fn+F4 is a real F4. So I'd like to basically switch those around. Here's what the key history shows: VK SC Type Up/Dn Elapsed Key ------------------------------------- 73 03E d 17.32 F4 ; Fn+F4 73 03E u 0.16 F4 5C 15C d 2.96 Right Windows ; F4 4C 026 d 0.00 L 5C 15C u 0.13 Right Windows 4C 026 u 0.00 L This doesn't do anything: SC15C & SC026::MsgBox,Pressed F4 But this prints that I hit F4 then goes to the login screen: Rwin & l::MsgBox,Pressed F4 So how can I stop it from switching to the login screen? Ideally I'd like F4 (which registers as Rwin & l) to just send F4, Fn+F4 to send Rwin & l, and also have them work with other keys (e.g., a manual !F4 should still close a window). Is this possible?

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• Is this a legitimate registry key? (windows 7)

  - by Keyes

  In hkey_local_machine/software/classes I found some registry keys named msime.taiwan, msime.japan and a couple others with similar names, except with a number at the end of, so there was 4 keys altogether. From what I know itmcoulc be associated with a thing in windows that lets you write japanese characters or whatever. I also found a macaffee page, , which seemed dated but it said the key is created by a virus named w32 virut. Just wondering is this a legit key? I found it on another pc and both pcs show when exported to a .txt show it was last written to in 2009. Here is the reg query for the 4 keys. (added lines to differentiate them.) HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\Software\Classes\MSIME.Japan (Default) REG_SZ Microsoft IME (Japanese) HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\Software\Classes\MSIME.Japan\CLSID (Default) REG_SZ {6A91029E-AA49-471B-AEE7-7D332785660D} HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\Software\Classes\MSIME.Japan\CurVer (Default) REG_SZ MSIME.Japan.11 HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\Software\Classes\MSIME.Japan.11 (Default) REG_SZ Microsoft IME (Japanese) HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\Software\Classes\MSIME.Japan.11\CLSID (Default) REG_SZ {6A91029E-AA49-471B-AEE7-7D332785660D} HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\Software\Classes\MSIME.Taiwan\CLSID (Default) REG_SZ {F407D01A-0BCB-4591-9BD6-EA4A71DF0799} HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\Software\Classes\MSIME.Taiwan\CurVer (Default) REG_SZ MSIME.Taiwan.8 HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\Software\Classes\MSIME.Taiwan.8 (Default) REG_SZ IMTCCORE HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\Software\Classes\MSIME.Taiwan.8\CLSID (Default) REG_SZ {F407D01A-0BCB-4591-9BD6-EA4A71DF0799}

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• Getting the EFS Private Key out of system image

  - by thaimin

  I had to recently re-install Windows 7 and I lost my exported private key for EFS. I however have the entirety of my user directory and my figuring that the key must be in there SOMEWHERE. The only question is how to get it out. I did find the PUBLIC keys in AppData\Roaming\Microsoft\SystemCertificates\My\Certificates If I import them using certmg.msc it says I do have the private key in the information, but if I try export them it says I do not have the private key. Also, decryption of files doesn't work. There is also a "keys" folder at AppData\Roaming\Microsoft\SystemCertificates\My\Keys. After importing the certificates I copy those over into my new installation but it has no effect. I am starting to believe they are either in AppData\Roaming\Microsoft\Protect\S-1-5-21-...\ or AppData\Roaming\Microsoft\Crypto\RSA\S-1-5-21-...\ but I am unsure how to use the files in those folders. Also, since my SID has changed, will I be able to use them? The other parts of the account have remained the same (name and password). I also have complete access to the user registry hive and most of the old system files (including the old system registry hives). I do keep seeing references to "Key Recovery Agent" but have not found anything about using, just that it can be used. Thanks!

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• Sed: Deleting all content matching a pattern

  - by Svish

  I have some plist files on mac os x that I would like to shrink. They have a lot of <dict> with <key> and values. One of these keys is a thumbnail which has a <data> value with base64 encoded binary (I think). I would like to remove this key and value. I was thinking this could maybe be done by sed, but I don't really know how to use it and it seems like sed only works on a line-by-line basis? Either way I was hoping someone could help me out. In the file I would like to delete everything that matches the following pattern or something close to that: <key>Thumbnail<\/key>[^<]*<\/data> In the file it looks like this: // Other keys and values <key>Thumbnail</key> <data> TU0AKgAAOEi25Pqx3/ip2fak0vOdzPCVxu2RweuPv+mLu+mIt+aGtuaEtOSB ... dCBBcHBsZSBDb21wdXRlciwgSW5jLiwgMjAwNQAAAAA= </data> // Other keys and values Anyone know how I could do this? Also, if there are any better tools that I can use in the terminal to do this, I would like to know about that as well :)

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• Identifying test machines in analytics logs

  - by RTigger

  We're just beginning to add analytics to our SaaS application, to begin (among other things) billing clients based on usage. The problem we're running into is there's a few circumstances where our support team will simulate a log in into production to try to reproduce reported issues with a client's configuration. When they log in, an entry will be made into our analytics logs that their specific account has logged in, which we use to calculate billing. A few ideas we had to solve this: 1) We log IP addresses as well as machine keys for each PC that logs in - we could filter out known IP addresses and/or machine keys belonging to support. The drawback is we have to maintain a list of keys / addresses manually. 2) If support (or anyone else internal) runs our application in debug mode (as opposed to release), it will not report analytics. This is fine, as long as support / anyone else remembers to switch to debug mode. 3) Include some sort of reg key / similar setting required to be set when configuring a production system in order to send analytics. Again, fine, as long as our infrastructure team remembers to set the reg key or setting. All of these approaches require some sort of human involvement, which we all know can be iffy at best. Has anyone run into a similar situation? Is there an automated approach to this problem? (PS Of course, we shouldn't be testing in production, but there are a few one-off instances with customer set up that we can't reproduce without logging in as them in production. This is the only time we do so, and this is the case I'm talking about in this question.)

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• Correctly calling setGridWidth on a jqGrid inside a jQueryUI Dialog

  - by Dan

  I have a jQueryUI dialog (#locDialog) which has a jqGrid ($grid) inside it. When the Dialog opens (initially, but it gets called whenever it opens), I want the $grid to resize to the size of the $locDialog. When I do this initially, I get scrollbars inside the grid (not inside the dialog). If I debug the code, I see the width of the $grid is 677. So, I call setGridWidth() again and check the width and now I have 659, which is 18px less, which is the size of the scroll area for the jqGrid (Dun-dun-dun..) When I rezie the dialog, I resize the grid as well, and everything is happy - no scrollbars, except where necessary. My dialog init code: $locDialog = $('#location-dialog').dialog({ autoOpen: false, modal: true, position: ['center', 100], width: 700, height:500, resizable: true, buttons: { "Show Selected": function() {alert($('#grid').jqGrid('getGridParam','selarrrow'));}, "OK": function() {$(this).dialog('close');}, "Cancel": function() {$(this).dialog('close');} }, open: function(event, ui) { $grid.setGridHeight($(this).height()-54); // No idea why 54 is the magic number here $grid.setGridWidth($(this).width(), true); }, close: function(event, ui) { }, resizeStop: function(event, ui) { $grid.setGridWidth($locDialog.width(), true); $grid.setGridHeight($locDialog.height()-54); } }); I am curious if anyone has seen this before. Really, it isn't the end of the world if I initially have unnecessary scrollbars at first, but it is just odd that when I call setGridWidth initially, it doesn't take into account the scroll area of 18px. As far as the magical number 54, that is the number I had to subtract from the height of the dialog value to get the grid to render without unnecessary scrollbars.

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• WPF 4.0 Custom panel won't show dynamically added controls in VS 2010 Designer

  - by Matt Ruwe

  I have a custom panel control that I'm trying to dynamically add controls within. When I run the application the static and dynamically added controls show up perfectly, but the dynamic controls do not appear within the visual studio designer. Only the controls placed declaratively in the XAML appear. I'm currently adding the dynamic control in the CreateUIElementCollection override, but I've also tried this in the constructor without success. Public Class CustomPanel1 Inherits Panel Public Sub New() End Sub Protected Overrides Function MeasureOverride(ByVal availableSize As System.Windows.Size) As System.Windows.Size Dim returnValue As New Size(0, 0) For Each child As UIElement In Children child.Measure(availableSize) returnValue.Width = Math.Max(returnValue.Width, child.DesiredSize.Width) returnValue.Height = Math.Max(returnValue.Height, child.DesiredSize.Height) Next returnValue.Width = If(Double.IsPositiveInfinity(availableSize.Width), returnValue.Width, availableSize.Width) returnValue.Height = If(Double.IsPositiveInfinity(availableSize.Height), returnValue.Height, availableSize.Height) Return returnValue End Function Protected Overrides Function ArrangeOverride(ByVal finalSize As System.Windows.Size) As System.Windows.Size Dim currentHeight As Integer For Each child As UIElement In Children child.Arrange(New Rect(0, currentHeight, child.DesiredSize.Width, child.DesiredSize.Height)) currentHeight += child.DesiredSize.Height Next Return finalSize End Function Protected Overrides Function CreateUIElementCollection(ByVal logicalParent As System.Windows.FrameworkElement) As System.Windows.Controls.UIElementCollection Dim returnValue As UIElementCollection = MyBase.CreateUIElementCollection(logicalParent) returnValue.Add(New TextBlock With {.Text = "Hello, World!"}) Return returnValue End Function Protected Overrides Sub OnPropertyChanged(ByVal e As System.Windows.DependencyPropertyChangedEventArgs) MyBase.OnPropertyChanged(e) End Sub End Class And my usage of this custom panel <Window x:Class="MainWindow" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xmlns:local="clr-namespace:CustomPanel" Title="MainWindow" Height="364" Width="434"> <local:CustomPanel1> <CheckBox /> <RadioButton /> </local:CustomPanel1> </Window>

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• MVC 2: Html.TextBoxFor, etc. in VB.NET 2010

  - by Brian

  Hello, I have this sample ASP.NET MVC 2.0 view in C#, bound to a strongly typed model that has a first name, last name, and email: <div> First: <%= Html.TextBoxFor(i => i.FirstName) %> <%= Html.ValidationMessageFor(i => i.FirstName, "*") %> </div> <div> Last: <%= Html.TextBoxFor(i => i.LastName) %> <%= Html.ValidationMessageFor(i => i.LastName, "*")%> </div> <div> Email: <%= Html.TextBoxFor(i => i.Email) %> <%= Html.ValidationMessageFor(i => i.Email, "*")%> </div> I converted it to VB.NET, seeing the appropriate constructs in VB.NET 10, as: <div> First: <%= Html.TextBoxFor(Function(i) i.FirstName) %> <%= Html.ValidationMessageFor(Function(i) i.FirstName, "*") %> </div> <div> Last: <%= Html.TextBoxFor(Function(i) i.LastName)%> <%= Html.ValidationMessageFor(Function(i) i.LastName, "*")%> </div> <div> Email: <%= Html.TextBoxFor(Function(i) i.Email)%> <%= Html.ValidationMessageFor(Function(i) i.Email, "*")%> </div> No luck. Is this right, and if not, what syntax do I need to use? Again, I'm using ASP.NET MVC 2.0, this is a view bound to a strongly typed model... does MVC 2 still not support the new language constructs in .NET 2010? Thanks.

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• DHTMLX Calendar onChange

  - by Sickaaron

  I am having an issue with the DHTMLX Calendar with the onChange in the input field. I am initialisating the code with the following: jQuery(document).ready(function($){ var calendar; calendar = new dhtmlXCalendarObject(["date"]); calendar.hideTime(); calendar.setDateFormat("%d/%m/%Y"); $('.lightbox').lightbox(); $('#slider').cycle(); }); function checkDate() { var date = $("[name='date']").val(); alert(date); } In the form i am using: <input type="text" name="date" id="date" onchange="checkDate();" /> How it should be (and was working with JQuery UI datepicker) once the date is entered into the input field the onchange function would fire. However in this case: the onchange with this calendar does nothing. I have tried changing the following to this: jQuery(document).ready(function($){ var calendar; calendar = new dhtmlXCalendarObject(["date"]); calendar.hideTime(); calendar.setDateFormat("%d/%m/%Y"); calendar.attachEvent("onChange",function(date, state){ checkDate(); }); $('.lightbox').lightbox(); $('#slider').cycle(); }); function checkDate() { var date = $("[name='date']").val(); alert(date); } But the onchange event happens before the date is entered, ie when i click on the input field. Reason for changing from JQuery UI to this DHTMLX is that JQuery UI Datepicker does not support all platforms (iPhones/iPads etc) and DHTMLX does.

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• Why jquery have problem with onbeforeprint even?

  - by Cesar Lopez

  Hi all, I have the following function. $(function() { $(".sectionHeader:gt(0)").click(function() { $(this).next(".fieldset").slideToggle("fast"); }); $("img[alt='minimize']").click(function(e) { $(this).closest("table").next(".fieldset").slideUp("fast"); e.stopPropagation(); return false; }); $("img[alt='maximize']").click(function(e) { $(this).closest("table").next(".fieldset").slideDown("fast"); e.stopPropagation(); return false; }); }); <script type="text/javascript"> window.onbeforeprint = expandAll; function expandAll(){ $(".fieldset:gt(0)").slideDown("fast"); } </script> For this html <table class="sectionHeader" ><tr ><td>Heading 1</td></tr></table> <div style="display:none;" class="fieldset">Content 1</div> <table class="sectionHeader" ><tr ><td>Heading 2</td></tr></table> <div style="display:none;" class="fieldset">Content 2</div> I have several div class="fieldset" over the page, but when I do print preview or print, I can see all divs sliding down before opening the print preview or printing but on the actual print preview or print out they are all collapse. I would appreciate if anyone comes with a solution for this. Anyone have any idea why is this or how to fix it? Thanks. PS:Using a does not work either ( I assume because jquery using toggle) and its not the kind of question I am looking for.

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• Extjs Dynamic Grid

  - by rkenshin

  Hi, I'm trying to create a dynamic grid using Extjs. The grid is built and displayed when a click event is fired then an ajax request is sent to the server to fetch the columns, records and records definition a.k.a Store Fields. Each node could have different grid structure and that depends on the level of the node in the tree. The only way i came up with so far is function showGrid(response, request) { var jsonData = Ext.util.JSON.decode(response.responseText); var grid = Ext.getCmp('contentGrid'+request.params.owner); if(grid) { grid.destroy(); } var store = new Ext.data.ArrayStore({ id : 'arrayStore', fields : jsonData.recordFields, autoDestroy : true }); grid = new Ext.grid.GridPanel({ defaults: {sortable:true}, id:'contentGrid'+request.params.owner, store: store, columns: jsonData.columns, //width:540, //height:200, loadMask: true }); store.loadData(jsonData.records); if(Ext.getCmp('tab-'+request.params.owner)) { Ext.getCmp('tab-'+request.params.owner).show(); } else { grid.render('grid-div'); Ext.getCmp('card-tabs-panel').add({ id:'tab-'+request.params.owner, title: request.params.text, iconCls:'silk-tab', html:Ext.getDom('grid-div').innerHTML, closable:true }).show(); } } The function above is called when a click event is fired 'click': function(node) { Ext.Ajax.request({ url: 'showCtn', success: function(response, request) { alert('Success'); showGrid(response,request); }, failure: function(results, request) { alert('Error'); }, params: Ext.urlDecode(node.attributes.options); } The problem i'm getting with this code is that a new grid is displayed each time the showGrid function is called. The end user sees the old grids and the new one. To mitigate this problem, I tried destroying the grid and also removing the grid element on each request, and that seems to solve the problem only that records never get displayed this time. if(grid) { grid.destroy(true); } The behavior i'm looking for is to display the result of a grid within a tab and if that tab exists replaced the old grid. Any help is appreciated. Thank you

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• JQuery, JSF and a4j:commandLink

  - by JQueryNeeded

  Hello ppl, I have a problem with using jQuery Dialog and Ajax submit in JSF. I have the following code for displaying Dialog windows: <script type="text/javascript"> jQuery(function(){ // Dialog jQuery('#dialog').dialog({ dialogClass: 'alert', autoOpen: false, width: 300, height: 150, modal: true, resizable: false, overlay: { backgroundColor: '#000', opacity: 0.5 }, buttons: { "Ok": function() { jQuery(this).dialog("close"); return true; }, "Cancel": function() { jQuery(this).dialog("close"); return false; } } }); // Dialog Link jQuery('#dialog_link').click(function(){ jQuery('#dialog').dialog('open'); return false; }) .hover( function() { jQuery(this).addClass('ui-hover-state'); }, function() { jQuery(this).removeClass('ui-hover-state'); } ); }); </script> It works as it should - it displays box when link is clicked. Now, I have something like this, for deleting something: <a4j:commandLink actionListener="#some.action" reRender="something" onclick="if(!jQuery('#dialog').dialog('open')){return false}" ok, this commandLink is rendered as follows: <a href="#" id="some:long:id:j_id338" name="formName:something:j_id338" onclick="if(!jQuery('#dialog').dialog('open')){return false};A4J.AJAX.Submit('something:something'); return false;" >drop</a> now, after displaying the dialog box, the A4j.AJAX.Submit(..) is executed, is there anyway, that I can for example, pass the whole A4J.AJAX.Submit(...) to "dialog" and execute it from "ok" option? I simply need to execute submit if and only if user clicks OK. Thank you for help JQ

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• How do I fix: InvalidOperationException upon Session timeout in Ajax WebService call

  - by Ngm

  Hi All, We are invoking Asp.Net ajax web service from the client side. So the JavaScript functions have calls like: // The function to alter the server side state object and set the selected node for the case tree. function JSMethod(caseId, url) { Sample.XYZ.Method(param1, param2, OnMethodReturn); } function OnMethodReturn(result) { var sessionExpiry = CheckForSessionExpiry(result); var error = CheckForErrors(result); ... process result } And on the server side in the ".asmx.cs" file: namespace Sample [ScriptService] class XYZ : WebService { [WebMethod(EnableSession = true)] public string Method(string param1, string param2) { if (SessionExpired()) { return sessionExpiredMessage; } . . . } } The website is setup to use form based authentication. Now if the session has expired and then the JavaScript function "JSMethod" is invoked, then the following error is obtained: Microsoft JScript runtime error: Sys.Net.WebServiceFailedException: The server method 'Method' failed with the following error: System.InvalidOperationException-- Authentication failed. This exception is raised by method "function Sys$Net$WebServiceProxy$invoke" in file "ScriptResource.axd": function Sys$Net$WebServiceProxy$invoke { . . . { // In debug mode, if no error was registered, display some trace information var error; if (result && errorObj) { // If we got a result, we're likely dealing with an error in the method itself error = result.get_exceptionType() + "-- " + result.get_message(); } else { // Otherwise, it's probably a 'top-level' error, in which case we dump the // whole response in the trace error = response.get_responseData(); } // DevDiv 89485: throw, not alert() throw Sys.Net.WebServiceProxy._createFailedError(methodName, String.format(Sys.Res.webServiceFailed, methodName, error)); } So the problem is that the exception is raised even before "Method" is invoked, the exception occurs during the creation of the Web Proxy. Any ideas on how to resolve this problem

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• jQuery UI - Close Dialog When Clicked Outside

  - by Sonny

  I have a jQuery UI Dialog that gets displayed when specific elements are clicked. I would like to close the dialog if a click occurs anywhere other than on those triggering elements or the dialog itself. Here's the code for opening the dialog: $(document).ready(function() { var $field_hint = $('<div></div>') .dialog({ autoOpen: false, minHeight: 50, resizable: false, width: 375 }); $('.hint').click(function() { var $hint = $(this); $field_hint.html($hint.html()); $field_hint.dialog('option', 'position', [162, $hint.offset().top + 25]); $field_hint.dialog('option', 'title', $hint.siblings('label').html()); $field_hint.dialog('open'); }); /*$(document).click(function() { $field_hint.dialog('close'); });*/ }); If I uncomment the last part, the dialog never opens. I assume it's because the same click that opens the dialog is closing it again. Final Working Code $(document).ready(function() { var $field_hint = $('<div></div>') .dialog({ autoOpen: false, minHeight: 50, resizable: false, width: 375 }) .bind('clickoutside', function(e) { if (!$(e.target).filter('.hint').length) { $field_hint.dialog('close'); } }); $('.hint').click(function() { var $hint = $(this); $field_hint.html($hint.html()); $field_hint.dialog('option', 'position', [162, $hint.offset().top + 25]); $field_hint.dialog('option', 'title', $hint.siblings('label').html()); $field_hint.dialog('open'); }); });

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• Javascript html5 database transaction problem in loops

  - by Marek

  I'm hittig my head on this and i will be glad for any help. I need to store in a database a context (a list of string ids) for another page. I open a page with a list of artworks and this page save into the database those artowrks ids. When i click on an artwork i open its webpage but i can access the database to know the context and refer to the next and prev artwork. This is my code to retrieve the contex: updateContext = function () { alert("updating context"); try { mydb.transaction( function(transaction) { transaction.executeSql("select artworks.number from artworks, collections where collections.id = artworks.section_id and collections.short_name in ('cro', 'cra', 'crp', 'crm');", [], contextDataHandler, errorHandler); }); } catch(e) { alert(e.message); } } the contextDatahandler function then iterates through the results and fill again the current_context table: contextDataHandler = function(transaction, results) { try { mydb.transaction( function(transaction) { transaction.executeSql("drop table current_context;", [], nullDataHandler, errorHandler); transaction.executeSql("create table current_context(id String);", [], nullDataHandler, errorHandler); } ) } catch(e) { alert(e.message); } var s = ""; for (var i=0; i < results.rows.length; i++) { var item = results.rows.item(0); s += item['number'] + " "; mydb.transaction( function(tx) { tx.executeSql("insert into current_context(id) values (?);", [item['number']]); } ) } alert(s); } the result is, i get the current_context table deleted, recreated, and filled, but all the rows are filled with the LAST artwork id. the query to retrieve the artworks ids works, so i think it's a transaction problem, but i cant figure out where. thanks for any help

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• beginning oop php question: do constructors take the place of getter?

  - by Joel

  I'm working through this tutorial: http://www.killerphp.com/tutorials/object-oriented-php/php-objects-page-3.php At first he has you create a setter and getter method in the class: <?php class person{ var $name; function set_name($new_name){ $this->name=$new_name; } function get_name(){ return $this->name; } } php?> And then you create the object and echo the results: <?php $stefan = new person(); $jimmy = new person(); $stefan ->set_name("Stefan Mischook"); $jimmy ->set_name("Nick Waddles"); echo "The first Object name is: ".$stefan->get_name(); echo "The second Object name is: ".$jimmy->get_name(); ?> Works as expected, and I understand. Then he introduces constructors: class person{ var $name; function __construct($persons_name) { $this->name = $persons_name; } function set_name($new_name){ $this->name=$new_name; } function get_name(){ return $this->name; } } And returns like so: <?php $joel = new person("Joel"); echo "The third Object name is: ".$joel->get_name(); ?> This is all fine and makes sense. Then I tried to combine the two and got an error, so I'm curious-is a constructor always taking the place of a "get" function? If you have a constructor, do you always need to include an argument when creating an object? Gives errors: <?php $stefan = new person(); $jimmy = new person(); $joel = new person("Joel Laviolette"); $stefan ->set_name("Stefan Mischook"); $jimmy ->set_name("Nick Waddles"); echo "The first Object name is: ".$stefan->get_name(); echo "The second Object name is: ".$jimmy->get_name(); echo "The third Object name is: ".$joel->get_name(); ?>

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• JScript.NET private variables

  - by Paul Podlipensky

  I'm wondering about JScript.NET private variables. Please take a look on the following code: import System; import System.Windows.Forms; import System.Drawing; var jsPDF = function(){ var state = 0; var beginPage = function(){ state = 2; out('beginPage'); } var out = function(text){ if(state == 2){ var st = 3; } MessageBox.Show(text + ' ' + state); } var addHeader = function(){ out('header'); } return { endDocument: function(){ state = 1; addHeader(); out('endDocument'); }, beginDocument: function(){ beginPage(); } } } var j = new jsPDF(); j.beginDocument(); j.endDocument(); Output: beginPage 2 header 2 endDocument 2 if I run the same script in any browser, the output is: beginPage 2 header 1 endDocument 1 Why it is so?? Thanks, Paul.

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• jQuery validation plugin and .ajax

  - by FALCONSEYE

  So, I have a form where I load divs as I go asking for various user input and displaying some offers. I have the following: $("#calcPrice").click(function() { $("#invPricing").validate({ rules: { ... }, messages: {... } , submitHandler: function(form) { .... $.ajax({ }); $.ajax({ }); return false; } }); My problem is after validation, none of the ajax calls work. If I remove the validation methods (rules, messages, submitHandler), everything works fine. Can somebody tell me what I am missing here? thanks in advance. btw, these are the ajax calls: $.ajax({ dataType: "json", type: "get", url: <cfoutput>"#actURL#"</cfoutput>, data: formData+"&p_type=LOW&returnJSON=true", cache: false, success: function(result) { // fields to populate: $("#rent").val(result.RENT); $("#discount").val(result.DISCOUNT); $("#salesPrice1").val(result.SALESPRICE); $("#cashPrice1").val(result.CASHSALESPRICE); $("#tax1").val(result.SALESTAX); $("#payment1").val(result.PAYMENTS); } , error: function(xmlHttpRequest, status, err) { confirm('Error!' + err); } }); $.ajax({ dataType: "json", type: "get", url: <cfoutput>"#actURL#"</cfoutput>, data: formData+"&p_type=HIGH&returnJSON=true", cache: false, success: function(result) { // fields to populate: $("#rent").val(result.RENT); $("#discount").val(result.DISCOUNT); $("#salesPrice2").val(result.SALESPRICE); $("#cashPrice2").val(result.CASHSALESPRICE); $("#tax2").val(result.SALESTAX); $("#payment2").val(result.PAYMENTS); } , error: function(xmlHttpRequest, status, err) { confirm('Error!' + err); } }); I am basically displaying two offers one Low, one High.

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• How to upload images from iPhone app developed using Titanium

  - by Karthik.K

  Hi, I finally landed up in developing an iPhone app using Titanium Mobile. Now the problem I face is, Im able to run the app, and the app also sends the image to the server. But Im not able to see the file that got uploaded to the server. I have pasted the iPhone app's code to send image to the server and also, the PHP file that would receive the file from the app. var win = Titanium.UI.currentWindow; var ind=Titanium.UI.createProgressBar({ width:200, height:50, min:0, max:1, value:0, style:Titanium.UI.iPhone.ProgressBarStyle.PLAIN, top:10, message:'Uploading Image', font:{fontSize:12, fontWeight:'bold'}, color:'#888' }); win.add(ind); ind.show(); Titanium.Media.openPhotoGallery({ success:function(event) { Ti.API.info("success! event: " + JSON.stringify(event)); var image = event.media; var xhr = Titanium.Network.createHTTPClient(); xhr.onerror = function(e) { Ti.API.info('IN ERROR ' + e.error); }; xhr.onload = function() { Ti.API.info('IN ONLOAD ' + this.status + ' readyState ' + this.readyState); }; xhr.onsendstream = function(e) { ind.value = e.progress ; Ti.API.info('ONSENDSTREAM - PROGRESS: ' + e.progress+' '+this.status+' '+this.readyState); }; // open the client xhr.open('POST','http://www.myserver.com/tmp/upload2.php'); xhr.setRequestHeader("Connection", "close"); // send the data xhr.send({media:image}); }, cancel:function() { }, error:function(error) { }, allowImageEditing:true }); And here is the PHP code on the server: http://www.pastie.org/891050 I'm not sure where I'm going wrong. Please help me out in this issue. Would love to provide if you need some more information.

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• jQuery UI - addClass removeClass - CSS values are stuck

  - by Jason D

  Hi, I'm trying to do a simple animation. You show the div. It animates correctly. You hide the div. Correct. You show the div again. It shows but there is no animation. It is stuck at the value of when you first interrupted it. So somehow the interpolation CSS that is happening during [add|remove]Class is getting stuck there. The second time around, the [add|remove]Class is actually running, but the css it's setting from the class is getting ignored (I think being overshadowed). How can I fix this WITHOUT resorting to .animate and hard-coded style values? The whole point was to put the animation end point in a css class. Thanks! <!doctype html> <style type="text/css"> div { width: 400px; height: 200px; } .green { background-color: green; } </style> <script src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.4.2/jquery.min.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jqueryui/1.8/jquery-ui.min.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(function() { $('#show').bind({ click: function() { showAndRun() } }) $('#hide').bind({ click: function() { $('div').stop(true, false).fadeOut('slow') } }) function showAndRun() { function pulse() { $('div').removeClass('green', 2000, function() { $(this).addClass('green', 2000, pulse) }) } $('div').stop(true, false).hide().addClass('green').fadeIn('slow', pulse) } }) </script> <input id="show" type="button" value="show" /><input id="hide" type="button" value="hide" /> <div style="display: none;"></div>

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