Search Results

Search found 94532 results on 3782 pages for 'server management'.

Page 338/3782 | < Previous Page | 334 335 336 337 338 339 340 341 342 343 344 345  | Next Page >

  • SQL Server 2008 - Full Text Query

    - by user208662
    Hello, I have two tables in a SQL Server 2008 database in my company. The first table represents the products that my company sells. The second table contains the product manufacturer’s details. These tables are defined as follows: Product ------- ID Name ManufacturerID Description Manufacturer ------------ ID Name As you can imagine, I want to make this as easy as possible for our customers to query this data. However, I’m having problems writing a forgiving, yet powerful search query. For instance, I’m anticipating people to search based on phonetical spellings. Because of this, the data may not match the exact data in my database. In addition, I think some individuals will search by manufacturer’s name first, but I want the matching product names to appear first. Based on these requirements, I’m currently working on the following query: select p.Name as 'ProductName', m.Name as 'Manufacturer', r.Rank as 'Rank' from Product p inner join Manufacturer m on p.ManufacturerID=m.ID inner join CONTAINSTABLE(Product, Name, @searchQuery) as r Oddly, this query is throwing an error. However, I have no idea why. Squiggles appear to the right of the last parenthesis in management studio. The tool tip says "An expression of non-boolean type specified in a context where a condition is expected". I understand what this statement means. However, I guess I do not know how COntainsTable works. What am I doing wrong? Thank you

    Read the article

  • IPad SQLite Push and Pull Data from external MS SQL Server DB

    - by MattyD
    This carries on from my previous post (http://stackoverflow.com/questions/4182664/ipad-app-pull-and-push-relational-data). My plan is that when the ipad application starts I am going to pull data (config data i.e. Departments, Types etc etc relational data that is used across the system) from a webhosted MS SQL Server DB via a webservice and populate it into an SQL Lite DB on the IPad. Then when I load a listing I will pull the data over the line again via a webservice and populate it into the SQL Lite db on the ipad (than just run select commands to populate the listing). My questions are: 1. What is the most efficient way to transfer data across the line via the web? Everyone seems to do it a different way. My idea is that I will have a webService for each type of data pull (e.g. RetrieveContactListing) that will query the db and than convert that data into "something" to send across the line. My question really is what is the "something" that it should be converting into? 2. Everyone talks about odata services. Is this suited for applications where complex read and writes are needed? Ive created a simple iphone app before that talked to an sql server db (i just sent my own structured xml across the line) but now with this app the data calls are going to be a lot larger so efficiency is key.

    Read the article

  • Server side aggregation using Spring MVC Controllers

    - by Venu
    Hi! We have a web site with multiple pages each with lot of AJAX calls. All the Ajax calls go to a data proxy layer written in Spring 3 MVC application. In order to reduce the load on the server we are planning to aggregate calls on the client and send to the proxy layer. For ex: we have two calls /controller1/action1 and /controller2/action2 in different controllers. I want to write an aggregate controller and call it from the client instead of making two calls to the individual controllers. Something like /aggregatecontroller/aggregate (and we will post the information regarding which calls are being aggregated and required parameters). Is there any way we can call another controller/action from a controller/action and get output? The flow will be something like this: a. Call /aggregatecontroller/aggregate with info regd call1 and call2 b. aggregate action understands that it needs to aggregate call1 and call2 c. it calls /controller1/action1 and gets the response d. it calls /controller2/action2 and gets the response e. it merges both in a json response and sends it back to browser. Please let me know if you have any suggestion regd how to do this or if you think there is a better approach to do the server side aggregation. Thanks for your time.

    Read the article

  • Thumbnail image saved with worse quality on Windows Server 2003

    - by Angelo
    Hello, In asp.net 2.0 application I am trying to create thumbnails from uploaded images. However when I test the application on my PC under Windows7 it works fine, but on the real Windows 2003 Server the resized image has worse quality. Where this difference could come from? Different JPEG codec or what, if Yes how it can be updated on Win 2003 Server? Thanks! Here is the code: Resize of the Image: Bitmap newBmp = new Bitmap(imgWidth, imgHeight, PixelFormat.Format24bppRgb); newBmp.SetResolution(inputBmp.HorizontalResolution, inputBmp.VerticalResolution); //Create a graphics object attached to the new bitmap Graphics newBmpGraphics = Graphics.FromImage(newBmp); newBmpGraphics.InterpolationMode = InterpolationMode.HighQualityBicubic; newBmpGraphics.SmoothingMode = SmoothingMode.HighQuality; newBmpGraphics.PixelOffsetMode = PixelOffsetMode.HighQuality; newBmpGraphics.DrawImage(inputBmp, new Rectangle(0, 0, imgWidth, imgHeight), new Rectangle(0, 0, inputBmp.Width, inputBmp.Height), GraphicsUnit.Pixel); Save of the Image: System.IO.Stream imgStream = new System.IO.MemoryStream(); //Get the ImageCodecInfo for the desired target format ImageCodecInfo destCodec = FindCodecForType(ImageMimeTypes.JPEG); if (destCodec == null) { //No codec available for that format throw new ArgumentException("The requested format image/jpeg does not have an available codec installed", "destFormat"); } //Create an EncoderParameters collection to contain the //parameters that control the dest format's encoder EncoderParameters destEncParams = new EncoderParameters(1); EncoderParameter qualityParam = new EncoderParameter(System.Drawing.Imaging.Encoder.Quality,(long)quality); destEncParams.Param[0] = qualityParam; //Save w/ the selected codec and encoder parameters inputBmp.Save(imgStream, destCodec, destEncParams); Bitmap destBitmap = new Bitmap(imgStream);

    Read the article

  • Compiling a C++ application on Windows 7, but execute it on Win2003 Server

    - by dabs
    I have a C++ application (quite complex, multiple projects) in Visual Studio 2008, that produces a single dll. Recently I switched to Windows 7, but had previously been compiling under Windows XP. Suddenly the dll in question cannot be loaded by another application, i.e. on a machine running Windows 2003 Server. I've been trying various things: I've installed the VC9.0 redistributable package on the server Also copied various .dll's from that package to the application folder The project is of course compiled in release mode When I run depends.exe on the client machine, I do get the following error: "Error: The Side-by-Side configuration information for "my_dll.dll" contains errors. This application has failed to start because the application configuration is incorrect. Reinstalling the application may fix this problem (14001). Warning: At least one module has an unresolved import due to a missing export function in a delay-load dependent module." and the icon for shlwapi.dll has a red overlay icon. This didn't happen when I was compiling under WinXP, so I'm guessing that there really is no problem with the .dll's on the client machine, but somewhere there is a reference to that particular version of some dll. Does anyone know what would be the best way to resolve this? Regards, Daníel

    Read the article

  • How to run stored procedures and ad-hoc scripts asynchronously with "loosely" connected SQL Server 2

    - by sanga
    Is there a way to initiate a script against an instance of SQL server when it is not connected then have it run on the instance the next time it connects? This needs to happen without any intervention from me. Background situation if you are interested: We have about 120 machines each with their own instance of SQL Server 2000. Most of them are laptops. We have merge replication set up with each one. From time to time, there is a need to delete "rogue" guids from some tables in some instances that overwrite legitimate records on the main publisher as well as perform administrative tasks via stored procedure or adhoc sql statements. The problem is there is no telling when each machine is going to be connected to the network. Some folks turn their machines completely off at the end of the day. Others disconnect their machines and take them on business trips, home for the weekend etc. Did I mention that about 35 of these machines are in utility trucks and "attempt" to sync over a wireless connection. Thanks in advance for any assistance or suggestions. Sanga

    Read the article

  • SQL Server find and replace in TEXT field

    - by incubushead
    I have a database in SQL Server 2005 that was brought up from SQL Server 2000 and is still using TEXT type fields instead of varchar(max). I need to find and replace a string of characters in the text field but all of the examples of how to do this that I have found don't seem like they would work for me. It seems the UPDATETEXT command requires that the two parameters "insert_offset" and "delete_length" be set explicitly but the string i am searching for could show up in the text at any point or even at several points in the same cell. My understanding of these two parameters is that the string im searching for will always be in the same place, so that insert_offset is the number of spaces into the text that the UPDATETEXT command will start replacing text. Example: Need to find: &lt;u&gt; and Replace it with: <u> Text field example: *Everyone in the room was <b>&lt;u&gt;tired&lt;/u&gt;.</b><br>Then they woke <b>&lt;u&gt;up&lt;/u&gt;. Can anyone help me out with this? THANKS!

    Read the article

  • jquery dialog calls a server side method with button parameters

    - by Chiefy
    Hello all, I have a gridview control with delete asp:ImageButton for each row of the grid. What I would like is for a jquery dialog to pop up when a user clicks the delete button to ask if they are sure they want to delete it. So far I have the dialog coming up just fine, Ive got buttons on that dialog and I can make the buttons call server side methods but its getting the dialog to know the ID of the row that the user has selected and then passing that to the server side code. The button in the page row is currently just an 'a' tag with the id 'dialog_link'. The jquery on the page looks like this: $("button").button(); $("#DeleteButton").click(function () { $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "ManageUsers.aspx/DeleteUser", data: "{}", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", success: function (msg) { // Replace the div's content with the page method's return. $("#DeleteButton").text(msg.d); } }); }); // Dialog $('#dialog').dialog({ autoOpen: false, width: 400, modal: true, bgiframe: true }); // Dialog Link $('#dialog_link').click(function () { $('#dialog').dialog('open'); return false; }); The dialog itself is just a set of 'div' tags. Ive thought of lots of different ways of doing this (parameter passing, session variable etc...) but cant figure out how to get any of them working. Any ideas are most welcome As always, thanks in advance to those who contribute.

    Read the article

  • Handling inheritance with overriding efficiently

    - by Fyodor Soikin
    I have the following two data structures. First, a list of properties applied to object triples: Object1 Object2 Object3 Property Value O1 O2 O3 P1 "abc" O1 O2 O3 P2 "xyz" O1 O3 O4 P1 "123" O2 O4 O5 P1 "098" Second, an inheritance tree: O1 O2 O4 O3 O5 Or viewed as a relation: Object Parent O2 O1 O4 O2 O3 O1 O5 O3 O1 null The semantics of this being that O2 inherits properties from O1; O4 - from O2 and O1; O3 - from O1; and O5 - from O3 and O1, in that order of precedence. NOTE 1: I have an efficient way to select all children or all parents of a given object. This is currently implemented with left and right indexes, but hierarchyid could also work. This does not seem important right now. NOTE 2: I have tiggers in place that make sure that the "Object" column always contains all possible objects, even when they do not really have to be there (i.e. have no parent or children defined). This makes it possible to use inner joins rather than severely less effiecient outer joins. The objective is: Given a pair of (Property, Value), return all object triples that have that property with that value either defined explicitly or inherited from a parent. NOTE 1: An object triple (X,Y,Z) is considered a "parent" of triple (A,B,C) when it is true that either X = A or X is a parent of A, and the same is true for (Y,B) and (Z,C). NOTE 2: A property defined on a closer parent "overrides" the same property defined on a more distant parent. NOTE 3: When (A,B,C) has two parents - (X1,Y1,Z1) and (X2,Y2,Z2), then (X1,Y1,Z1) is considered a "closer" parent when: (a) X2 is a parent of X1, or (b) X2 = X1 and Y2 is a parent of Y1, or (c) X2 = X1 and Y2 = Y1 and Z2 is a parent of Z1 In other words, the "closeness" in ancestry for triples is defined based on the first components of the triples first, then on the second components, then on the third components. This rule establishes an unambigous partial order for triples in terms of ancestry. For example, given the pair of (P1, "abc"), the result set of triples will be: O1, O2, O3 -- Defined explicitly O1, O2, O5 -- Because O5 inherits from O3 O1, O4, O3 -- Because O4 inherits from O2 O1, O4, O5 -- Because O4 inherits from O2 and O5 inherits from O3 O2, O2, O3 -- Because O2 inherits from O1 O2, O2, O5 -- Because O2 inherits from O1 and O5 inherits from O3 O2, O4, O3 -- Because O2 inherits from O1 and O4 inherits from O2 O3, O2, O3 -- Because O3 inherits from O1 O3, O2, O5 -- Because O3 inherits from O1 and O5 inherits from O3 O3, O4, O3 -- Because O3 inherits from O1 and O4 inherits from O2 O3, O4, O5 -- Because O3 inherits from O1 and O4 inherits from O2 and O5 inherits from O3 O4, O2, O3 -- Because O4 inherits from O1 O4, O2, O5 -- Because O4 inherits from O1 and O5 inherits from O3 O4, O4, O3 -- Because O4 inherits from O1 and O4 inherits from O2 O5, O2, O3 -- Because O5 inherits from O1 O5, O2, O5 -- Because O5 inherits from O1 and O5 inherits from O3 O5, O4, O3 -- Because O5 inherits from O1 and O4 inherits from O2 O5, O4, O5 -- Because O5 inherits from O1 and O4 inherits from O2 and O5 inherits from O3 Note that the triple (O2, O4, O5) is absent from this list. This is because property P1 is defined explicitly for the triple (O2, O4, O5) and this prevents that triple from inheriting that property from (O1, O2, O3). Also note that the triple (O4, O4, O5) is also absent. This is because that triple inherits its value of P1="098" from (O2, O4, O5), because it is a closer parent than (O1, O2, O3). The straightforward way to do it is the following. First, for every triple that a property is defined on, select all possible child triples: select Children1.Id as O1, Children2.Id as O2, Children3.Id as O3, tp.Property, tp.Value from TriplesAndProperties tp -- Select corresponding objects of the triple inner join Objects as Objects1 on Objects1.Id = tp.O1 inner join Objects as Objects2 on Objects2.Id = tp.O2 inner join Objects as Objects3 on Objects3.Id = tp.O3 -- Then add all possible children of all those objects inner join Objects as Children1 on Objects1.Id [isparentof] Children1.Id inner join Objects as Children2 on Objects2.Id [isparentof] Children2.Id inner join Objects as Children3 on Objects3.Id [isparentof] Children3.Id But this is not the whole story: if some triple inherits the same property from several parents, this query will yield conflicting results. Therefore, second step is to select just one of those conflicting results: select * from ( select Children1.Id as O1, Children2.Id as O2, Children3.Id as O3, tp.Property, tp.Value, row_number() over( partition by Children1.Id, Children2.Id, Children3.Id, tp.Property order by Objects1.[depthInTheTree] descending, Objects2.[depthInTheTree] descending, Objects3.[depthInTheTree] descending ) as InheritancePriority from ... (see above) ) where InheritancePriority = 1 The window function row_number() over( ... ) does the following: for every unique combination of objects triple and property, it sorts all values by the ancestral distance from the triple to the parents that the value is inherited from, and then I only select the very first of the resulting list of values. A similar effect can be achieved with a GROUP BY and ORDER BY statements, but I just find the window function semantically cleaner (the execution plans they yield are identical). The point is, I need to select the closest of contributing ancestors, and for that I need to group and then sort within the group. And finally, now I can simply filter the result set by Property and Value. This scheme works. Very reliably and predictably. It has proven to be very powerful for the business task it implements. The only trouble is, it is awfuly slow. One might point out the join of seven tables might be slowing things down, but that is actually not the bottleneck. According to the actual execution plan I'm getting from the SQL Management Studio (as well as SQL Profiler), the bottleneck is the sorting. The problem is, in order to satisfy my window function, the server has to sort by Children1.Id, Children2.Id, Children3.Id, tp.Property, Parents1.[depthInTheTree] descending, Parents2.[depthInTheTree] descending, Parents3.[depthInTheTree] descending, and there can be no indexes it can use, because the values come from a cross join of several tables. EDIT: Per Michael Buen's suggestion (thank you, Michael), I have posted the whole puzzle to sqlfiddle here. One can see in the execution plan that the Sort operation accounts for 32% of the whole query, and that is going to grow with the number of total rows, because all the other operations use indexes. Usually in such cases I would use an indexed view, but not in this case, because indexed views cannot contain self-joins, of which there are six. The only way that I can think of so far is to create six copies of the Objects table and then use them for the joins, thus enabling an indexed view. Did the time come that I shall be reduced to that kind of hacks? The despair sets in.

    Read the article

  • Give Access to a Subdirectory Without Giving Access to Parent Directories

    - by allquixotic
    I have a scenario involving a Windows file server where the "owner" wants to dole out permissions to a group of users of the following sort: \\server\dir1\dir2\dir3: Read & Execute and Write \\server\dir1\dir2: No permissions. \\server\dir1: No permissions. \\server: Read & Execute To my understanding, it is not possible to do this because Read & Execute permission must be granted to all the parent directories in a directory chain in order for the operating system to be able to "see" the child directories and get to them. Without this permission, you can't even obtain the security context token when trying to access the nested directory, even if you have full access to the subdirectory. We are looking for ways to get around this, without moving the data from \\server\dir1\dir2\dir3 to \\server\dir4. One workaround I thought of, but which I am not sure if it will work, is creating some sort of link or junction \\server\dir4 which is a reference to \\server\dir1\dir2\dir3. I am not sure which of the available options (if any) would work for this purpose if the user does not have Read & Execute permission on \\server\dir1\dir2 or \\server\dir1, but as far as I know, the options are these: NTFS Symbolic Link, Junction, Hard Link. So the questions: Are any of these methods suitable to accomplish my goal? Are there any other methods of linking or indirectly referencing a directory, which I haven't listed above, which might be suitable? Are there any direct solutions that don't involve granting Read & Execute to \\server\dir1 or \\server\dir2 but still allowing access to \\server\dir1\dir2\dir3?

    Read the article

  • Generating the query plan takes 5 minutes, the query itself runs in milliseconds. What's up?

    - by TheImirOfGroofunkistan
    I have a fairly complex (or ugly depending on how you look at it) stored procedure running on SQL Server 2008. It bases a lot of the logic on a view that has a pk table and a fk table. The fk table is left joined to the pk table slightly more than 30 times (the fk table has a poor design - it uses name value pairs that I need to flatten out. Unfortunately, it's 3rd party and I cannot change it). Anyway, it had been running fine for weeks until I periodically noticed a run that would take 3-5 minutes. It turns out that this is the time it takes to generate the query plan. Once the query plan exists and is cached, the stored procedure itself runs very efficiently. Things run smoothly until there is a reason to regenerate and cache the query plan again. Has anyone seen this? Why does it take so long to generate the plan? Are there ways to make it come up with a plan faster?

    Read the article

  • How to configure replication? - This database is not enabled for publication.

    - by truthseeker
    Hi, I'm trying to configure repication on SQL Server 2005. I can done it using wizard. But when I'm trying to run generated scripts by this wizard the error message appears: Msg 14013, Level 16, State 1, Procedure sp_MSrepl_addpublication, Line 159 This database is not enabled for publication. Msg 18757, Level 16, State 1, Procedure sp_MSrepl_addpublication_snapshot, Line 66 Unable to execute procedure. The database is not published. Execute the procedure in a database that is published for replication. Msg 14013, Level 16, State 1, Procedure sp_MSrepl_addarticle, Line 168 This database is not enabled for publication. Msg 14294, Level 16, State 1, Procedure sp_verify_job_identifiers, Line 25 Supply either @job_id or @job_name to identify the job. It's a bit strange, because when I'm running this query on database where I clicked and then removed publication, everyting is going well. The problem is when I'm using my query on new database. What is more I'm using sp_replicationdboption stored procedure. When I'm tryin to run it, it says: The replication option 'publish' of database 'ReplicationTest00' has already been set to true. Please help me resolve this issue.

    Read the article

  • Cascading Deletes in SQL Sever 2008 not working.

    - by Vaccano
    I have the following table setup. Bag | +-> BagID (Guid) +-> BagNumber (Int) BagCommentRelation | +-> BagID (Int) +-> CommentID (Guid) BagComment | +-> CommentID (Guid) +-> Text (varchar(200)) BagCommentRelation has Foreign Keys to Bag and BagComment. So, I turned on cascading deletes for both those Foreign Keys, but when I delete a bag, it does not delete the Comment row. Do need to break out a trigger for this? Or am I missing something? (I am using SQL Server 2008) Note: Posting requested SQL. This is the defintion of the BagCommentRelation table. (I had the type of the bagID wrong (I thought it was a guid but it is an int).) CREATE TABLE [dbo].[Bag_CommentRelation]( [Id] [int] IDENTITY(1,1) NOT NULL, [BagId] [int] NOT NULL, [Sequence] [int] NOT NULL, [CommentId] [int] NOT NULL, CONSTRAINT [PK_Bag_CommentRelation] PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED ( [BagId] ASC, [Sequence] ASC )WITH (PAD_INDEX = OFF, STATISTICS_NORECOMPUTE = OFF, IGNORE_DUP_KEY = OFF, ALLOW_ROW_LOCKS = ON, ALLOW_PAGE_LOCKS = ON) ON [PRIMARY] ) ON [PRIMARY] GO ALTER TABLE [dbo].[Bag_CommentRelation] WITH CHECK ADD CONSTRAINT [FK_Bag_CommentRelation_Bag] FOREIGN KEY([BagId]) REFERENCES [dbo].[Bag] ([Id]) ON DELETE CASCADE GO ALTER TABLE [dbo].[Bag_CommentRelation] CHECK CONSTRAINT [FK_Bag_CommentRelation_Bag] GO ALTER TABLE [dbo].[Bag_CommentRelation] WITH CHECK ADD CONSTRAINT [FK_Bag_CommentRelation_Comment] FOREIGN KEY([CommentId]) REFERENCES [dbo].[Comment] ([CommentId]) ON DELETE CASCADE GO ALTER TABLE [dbo].[Bag_CommentRelation] CHECK CONSTRAINT [FK_Bag_CommentRelation_Comment] GO The row in this table deletes but the row in the comment table does not.

    Read the article

  • Generating the SQL query plan takes 5 minutes, the query itself runs in milliseconds. What's up?

    - by TheImirOfGroofunkistan
    I have a fairly complex (or ugly depending on how you look at it) stored procedure running on SQL Server 2008. It bases a lot of the logic on a view that has a pk table and a fk table. The fk table is left joined to the pk table slightly more than 30 times (the fk table has a poor design - it uses name value pairs that I need to flatten out. Unfortunately, it's 3rd party and I cannot change it). Anyway, it had been running fine for weeks until I periodically noticed a run that would take 3-5 minutes. It turns out that this is the time it takes to generate the query plan. Once the query plan exists and is cached, the stored procedure itself runs very efficiently. Things run smoothly until there is a reason to regenerate and cache the query plan again. Has anyone seen this? Why does it take so long to generate the plan? Are there ways to make it come up with a plan faster?

    Read the article

  • Sensible Way to Pass Web Data in XML to a SQL Server Database

    - by Emtucifor
    After exploring several different ways to pass web data to a database for update purposes, I'm wondering if XML might be a good strategy. The database is currently SQL 2000. In a few months it will move to SQL 2005 and I will be able to change things if needed, but I need a SQL 2000 solution now. First of all, the database in question uses the EAV model. I know that this kind of database is generally highly frowned on, so for the purposes of this question, please just accept that this is not going to change. The current update method has the web server inserting values (that have all been converted first to their correct underlying types, then to sql_variant) to a temp table. A stored procedure is then run which expects the temp table to exist and it takes care of updating, inserting, or deleting things as needed. So far, only a single element has needed to be updated at a time. But now, there is a requirement to be able to edit multiple elements at once, and also to support hierarchical elements, each of which can have its own list of attributes. Here's some example XML I hand-typed to demonstrate what I'm thinking of. Note that in this database the Entity is Element and an ID of 0 signifies "create" aka an insert of a new item. <Elements> <Element ID="1234"> <Attr ID="221">Value</Attr> <Attr ID="225">287</Attr> <Attr ID="234"> <Element ID="99825"> <Attr ID="7">Value1</Attr> <Attr ID="8">Value2</Attr> <Attr ID="9" Action="delete" /> </Element> <Element ID="99826" Action="delete" /> <Element ID="0" Type="24"> <Attr ID="7">Value4</Attr> <Attr ID="8">Value5</Attr> <Attr ID="9">Value6</Attr> </Element> <Element ID="0" Type="24"> <Attr ID="7">Value7</Attr> <Attr ID="8">Value8</Attr> <Attr ID="9">Value9</Attr> </Element> </Attr> <Rel ID="3827" Action="delete" /> <Rel ID="2284" Role="parent"> <Element ID="3827" /> <Element ID="3829" /> <Attr ID="665">1</Attr> </Rel> <Rel ID="0" Type="23" Role="child"> <Element ID="3830" /> <Attr ID="67" </Rel> </Element> <Element ID="0" Type="87"> <Attr ID="221">Value</Attr> <Attr ID="225">569</Attr> <Attr ID="234"> <Element ID="0" Type="24"> <Attr ID="7">Value10</Attr> <Attr ID="8">Value11</Attr> <Attr ID="9">Value12</Attr> </Element> </Attr> </Element> <Element ID="1235" Action="delete" /> </Elements> Some Attributes are straight value types, such as AttrID 221. But AttrID 234 is a special "multi-value" type that can have a list of elements underneath it, and each one can have one or more values. Types only need to be presented when a new item is created, since the ElementID fully implies the type if it already exists. I'll probably support only passing in changed items (as detected by javascript). And there may be an Action="Delete" on Attr elements as well, since NULLs are treated as "unselected"--sometimes it's very important to know if a Yes/No question has intentionally been answered No or if no one's bothered to say Yes yet. There is also a different kind of data, a Relationship. At this time, those are updated through individual AJAX calls as things are edited in the UI, but I'd like to include those so that changes to relationships can be canceled (right now, once you change it, it's done). So those are really elements, too, but they are called Rel instead of Element. Relationships are implemented as ElementID1 and ElementID2, so the RelID 2284 in the XML above is in the database as: ElementID 2284 ElementID1 1234 ElementID2 3827 Having multiple children in one relationship isn't currently supported, but it would be nice later. Does this strategy and the example XML make sense? Is there a more sensible way? I'm just looking for some broad critique to help save me from going down a bad path. Any aspect that you'd like to comment on would be helpful. The web language happens to be Classic ASP, but that could change to ASP.Net at some point. A persistence engine like Linq or nHibernate is probably not acceptable right now--I just want to get this already working application enhanced without a huge amount of development time. I'll choose the answer that shows experience and has a balance of good warnings about what not to do, confirmations of what I'm planning to do, and recommendations about something else to do. I'll make it as objective as possible. P.S. I'd like to handle unicode characters as well as very long strings (10k +). UPDATE I have had this working for some time and I used the ADO Recordset Save-To-Stream trick to make creating the XML really easy. The result seems to be fairly fast, though if speed ever becomes a problem I may revisit this. In the meantime, my code works to handle any number of elements and attributes on the page at once, including updating, deleting, and creating new items all in one go. I settled on a scheme like so for all my elements: Existing data elements Example: input name e12345_a678 (element 12345, attribute 678), the input value is the value of the attribute. New elements Javascript copies a hidden template of the set of HTML elements needed for the type into the correct location on the page, increments a counter to get a new ID for this item, and prepends the number to the names of the form items. var newid = 0; function metadataAdd(reference, nameid, value) { var t = document.createElement('input'); t.setAttribute('name', nameid); t.setAttribute('id', nameid); t.setAttribute('type', 'hidden'); t.setAttribute('value', value); reference.appendChild(t); } function multiAdd(target, parentelementid, attrid, elementtypeid) { var proto = document.getElementById('a' + attrid + '_proto'); var instance = document.createElement('p'); target.parentNode.parentNode.insertBefore(instance, target.parentNode); var thisid = ++newid; instance.innerHTML = proto.innerHTML.replace(/{prefix}/g, 'n' + thisid + '_'); instance.id = 'n' + thisid; instance.className += ' new'; metadataAdd(instance, 'n' + thisid + '_p', parentelementid); metadataAdd(instance, 'n' + thisid + '_c', attrid); metadataAdd(instance, 'n' + thisid + '_t', elementtypeid); return false; } Example: Template input name _a678 becomes n1_a678 (a new element, the first one on the page, attribute 678). all attributes of this new element are tagged with the same prefix of n1. The next new item will be n2, and so on. Some hidden form inputs are created: n1_t, value is the elementtype of the element to be created n1_p, value is the parent id of the element (if it is a relationship) n1_c, value is the child id of the element (if it is a relationship) Deleting elements A hidden input is created in the form e12345_t with value set to 0. The existing controls displaying that attribute's values are disabled so they are not included in the form post. So "set type to 0" is treated as delete. With this scheme, every item on the page has a unique name and can be distinguished properly, and every action can be represented properly. When the form is posted, here's a sample of building one of the two recordsets used (classic ASP code): Set Data = Server.CreateObject("ADODB.Recordset") Data.Fields.Append "ElementID", adInteger, 4, adFldKeyColumn Data.Fields.Append "AttrID", adInteger, 4, adFldKeyColumn Data.Fields.Append "Value", adLongVarWChar, 2147483647, adFldIsNullable Or adFldMayBeNull Data.CursorLocation = adUseClient Data.CursorType = adOpenDynamic Data.Open This is the recordset for values, the other is for the elements themselves. I step through the posted form and for the element recordset use a Scripting.Dictionary populated with instances of a custom Class that has the properties I need, so that I can add the values piecemeal, since they don't always come in order. New elements are added as negative to distinguish them from regular elements (rather than requiring a separate column to indicate if it is new or addresses an existing element). I use regular expression to tear apart the form keys: "^(e|n)([0-9]{1,10})_(a|p|t|c)([0-9]{0,10})$" Then, adding an attribute looks like this. Data.AddNew ElementID.Value = DataID AttrID.Value = Integerize(Matches(0).SubMatches(3)) AttrValue.Value = Request.Form(Key) Data.Update ElementID, AttrID, and AttrValue are references to the fields of the recordset. This method is hugely faster than using Data.Fields("ElementID").Value each time. I loop through the Dictionary of element updates and ignore any that don't have all the proper information, adding the good ones to the recordset. Then I call my data-updating stored procedure like so: Set Cmd = Server.CreateObject("ADODB.Command") With Cmd Set .ActiveConnection = MyDBConn .CommandType = adCmdStoredProc .CommandText = "DataPost" .Prepared = False .Parameters.Append .CreateParameter("@ElementMetadata", adLongVarWChar, adParamInput, 2147483647, XMLFromRecordset(Element)) .Parameters.Append .CreateParameter("@ElementData", adLongVarWChar, adParamInput, 2147483647, XMLFromRecordset(Data)) End With Result.Open Cmd ' previously created recordset object with options set Here's the function that does the xml conversion: Private Function XMLFromRecordset(Recordset) Dim Stream Set Stream = Server.CreateObject("ADODB.Stream") Stream.Open Recordset.Save Stream, adPersistXML Stream.Position = 0 XMLFromRecordset = Stream.ReadText End Function Just in case the web page needs to know, the SP returns a recordset of any new elements, showing their page value and their created value (so I can see that n1 is now e12346 for example). Here are some key snippets from the stored procedure. Note this is SQL 2000 for now, though I'll be able to switch to 2005 soon: CREATE PROCEDURE [dbo].[DataPost] @ElementMetaData ntext, @ElementData ntext AS DECLARE @hdoc int --- snip --- EXEC sp_xml_preparedocument @hdoc OUTPUT, @ElementMetaData, '<xml xmlns:s="uuid:BDC6E3F0-6DA3-11d1-A2A3-00AA00C14882" xmlns:dt="uuid:C2F41010-65B3-11d1-A29F-00AA00C14882" xmlns:rs="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:rowset" xmlns:z="#RowsetSchema" />' INSERT #ElementMetadata (ElementID, ElementTypeID, ElementID1, ElementID2) SELECT * FROM OPENXML(@hdoc, '/xml/rs:data/rs:insert/z:row', 0) WITH ( ElementID int, ElementTypeID int, ElementID1 int, ElementID2 int ) ORDER BY ElementID -- orders negative items (new elements) first so they begin counting at 1 for later ID calculation EXEC sp_xml_removedocument @hdoc --- snip --- UPDATE E SET E.ElementTypeID = M.ElementTypeID FROM Element E INNER JOIN #ElementMetadata M ON E.ElementID = M.ElementID WHERE E.ElementID >= 1 AND M.ElementTypeID >= 1 The following query does the correlation of the negative new element ids to the newly inserted ones: UPDATE #ElementMetadata -- Correlate the new ElementIDs with the input rows SET NewElementID = Scope_Identity() - @@RowCount + DataID WHERE ElementID < 0 Other set-based queries do all the other work of validating that the attributes are allowed, are the correct data type, and inserting, updating, and deleting elements and attributes. I hope this brief run-down is useful to others some day! Converting ADO Recordsets to an XML stream was a huge winner for me as it saved all sorts of time and had a namespace and schema already defined that made the results come out correctly. Using a flatter XML format with 2 inputs was also much easier than sticking to some ideal about having everything in a single XML stream.

    Read the article

  • Sensible Way to Pass Web Data to Sql Server Database

    - by Emtucifor
    After exploring several different ways to pass web data to a database for update purposes, I'm wondering if XML might be a good strategy. The database is currently SQL 2000. In a few months it will move to SQL 2005 and I will be able to change things if needed, but I need a SQL 2000 solution now. First of all, the database in question uses the EAV model. I know that this kind of database is generally highly frowned on, so for the purposes of this question, please just accept that this is not going to change. The current update method has the web server inserting values (that have all been converted first to their correct underlying types, then to sql_variant) to a temp table. A stored procedure is then run which expects the temp table to exist and it takes care of updating, inserting, or deleting things as needed. So far, only a single element has needed to be updated at a time. But now, there is a requirement to be able to edit multiple elements at once, and also to support hierarchical elements, each of which can have its own list of attributes. Here's some example XML I hand-typed to demonstrate what I'm thinking of. Note that in this database the Entity is Element and an ID of 0 signifies "create" aka an insert of a new item. <Elements> <Element ID="1234"> <Attr ID="221">Value</Attr> <Attr ID="225">287</Attr> <Attr ID="234"> <Element ID="99825"> <Attr ID="7">Value1</Attr> <Attr ID="8">Value2</Attr> <Attr ID="9" Action="delete" /> </Element> <Element ID="99826" Action="delete" /> <Element ID="0" Type="24"> <Attr ID="7">Value4</Attr> <Attr ID="8">Value5</Attr> <Attr ID="9">Value6</Attr> </Element> <Element ID="0" Type="24"> <Attr ID="7">Value7</Attr> <Attr ID="8">Value8</Attr> <Attr ID="9">Value9</Attr> </Element> </Attr> <Rel ID="3827" Action="delete" /> <Rel ID="2284" Role="parent"> <Element ID="3827" /> <Element ID="3829" /> <Attr ID="665">1</Attr> </Rel> <Rel ID="0" Type="23" Role="child"> <Element ID="3830" /> <Attr ID="67" </Rel> </Element> <Element ID="0" Type="87"> <Attr ID="221">Value</Attr> <Attr ID="225">569</Attr> <Attr ID="234"> <Element ID="0" Type="24"> <Attr ID="7">Value10</Attr> <Attr ID="8">Value11</Attr> <Attr ID="9">Value12</Attr> </Element> </Attr> </Element> <Element ID="1235" Action="delete" /> </Elements> Some Attributes are straight value types, such as AttrID 221. But AttrID 234 is a special "multi-value" type that can have a list of elements underneath it, and each one can have one or more values. Types only need to be presented when a new item is created, since the ElementID fully implies the type if it already exists. I'll probably support only passing in changed items (as detected by javascript). And there may be an Action="Delete" on Attr elements as well, since NULLs are treated as "unselected"--sometimes it's very important to know if a Yes/No question has intentionally been answered No or if no one's bothered to say Yes yet. There is also a different kind of data, a Relationship. At this time, those are updated through individual AJAX calls as things are edited in the UI, but I'd like to include those so that changes to relationships can be canceled (right now, once you change it, it's done). So those are really elements, too, but they are called Rel instead of Element. Relationships are implemented as ElementID1 and ElementID2, so the RelID 2284 in the XML above is in the database as: ElementID 2284 ElementID1 1234 ElementID2 3827 Having multiple children in one relationship isn't currently supported, but it would be nice later. Does this strategy and the example XML make sense? Is there a more sensible way? I'm just looking for some broad critique to help save me from going down a bad path. Any aspect that you'd like to comment on would be helpful. The web language happens to be Classic ASP, but that could change to ASP.Net at some point. A persistence engine like Linq or nHibernate is probably not acceptable right now--I just want to get this already working application enhanced without a huge amount of development time. I'll choose the answer that shows experience and has a balance of good warnings about what not to do, confirmations of what I'm planning to do, and recommendations about something else to do. I'll make it as objective as possible. P.S. I'd like to handle unicode characters as well as very long strings (10k +). UPDATE I have had this working for some time and I used the ADO Recordset Save-To-Stream trick to make creating the XML really easy. The result seems to be fairly fast, though if speed ever becomes a problem I may revisit this. In the meantime, my code works to handle any number of elements and attributes on the page at once, including updating, deleting, and creating new items all in one go. I settled on a scheme like so for all my elements: Existing data elements Example: input name e12345_a678 (element 12345, attribute 678), the input value is the value of the attribute. New elements Javascript copies a hidden template of the set of HTML elements needed for the type into the correct location on the page, increments a counter to get a new ID for this item, and prepends the number to the names of the form items. var newid = 0; function metadataAdd(reference, nameid, value) { var t = document.createElement('input'); t.setAttribute('name', nameid); t.setAttribute('id', nameid); t.setAttribute('type', 'hidden'); t.setAttribute('value', value); reference.appendChild(t); } function multiAdd(target, parentelementid, attrid, elementtypeid) { var proto = document.getElementById('a' + attrid + '_proto'); var instance = document.createElement('p'); target.parentNode.parentNode.insertBefore(instance, target.parentNode); var thisid = ++newid; instance.innerHTML = proto.innerHTML.replace(/{prefix}/g, 'n' + thisid + '_'); instance.id = 'n' + thisid; instance.className += ' new'; metadataAdd(instance, 'n' + thisid + '_p', parentelementid); metadataAdd(instance, 'n' + thisid + '_c', attrid); metadataAdd(instance, 'n' + thisid + '_t', elementtypeid); return false; } Example: Template input name _a678 becomes n1_a678 (a new element, the first one on the page, attribute 678). all attributes of this new element are tagged with the same prefix of n1. The next new item will be n2, and so on. Some hidden form inputs are created: n1_t, value is the elementtype of the element to be created n1_p, value is the parent id of the element (if it is a relationship) n1_c, value is the child id of the element (if it is a relationship) Deleting elements A hidden input is created in the form e12345_t with value set to 0. The existing controls displaying that attribute's values are disabled so they are not included in the form post. So "set type to 0" is treated as delete. With this scheme, every item on the page has a unique name and can be distinguished properly, and every action can be represented properly. When the form is posted, here's a sample of building one of the two recordsets used (classic ASP code): Set Data = Server.CreateObject("ADODB.Recordset") Data.Fields.Append "ElementID", adInteger, 4, adFldKeyColumn Data.Fields.Append "AttrID", adInteger, 4, adFldKeyColumn Data.Fields.Append "Value", adLongVarWChar, 2147483647, adFldIsNullable Or adFldMayBeNull Data.CursorLocation = adUseClient Data.CursorType = adOpenDynamic Data.Open This is the recordset for values, the other is for the elements themselves. I step through the posted form and for the element recordset use a Scripting.Dictionary populated with instances of a custom Class that has the properties I need, so that I can add the values piecemeal, since they don't always come in order. New elements are added as negative to distinguish them from regular elements (rather than requiring a separate column to indicate if it is new or addresses an existing element). I use regular expression to tear apart the form keys: "^(e|n)([0-9]{1,10})_(a|p|t|c)([0-9]{0,10})$" Then, adding an attribute looks like this. Data.AddNew ElementID.Value = DataID AttrID.Value = Integerize(Matches(0).SubMatches(3)) AttrValue.Value = Request.Form(Key) Data.Update ElementID, AttrID, and AttrValue are references to the fields of the recordset. This method is hugely faster than using Data.Fields("ElementID").Value each time. I loop through the Dictionary of element updates and ignore any that don't have all the proper information, adding the good ones to the recordset. Then I call my data-updating stored procedure like so: Set Cmd = Server.CreateObject("ADODB.Command") With Cmd Set .ActiveConnection = MyDBConn .CommandType = adCmdStoredProc .CommandText = "DataPost" .Prepared = False .Parameters.Append .CreateParameter("@ElementMetadata", adLongVarWChar, adParamInput, 2147483647, XMLFromRecordset(Element)) .Parameters.Append .CreateParameter("@ElementData", adLongVarWChar, adParamInput, 2147483647, XMLFromRecordset(Data)) End With Result.Open Cmd ' previously created recordset object with options set Here's the function that does the xml conversion: Private Function XMLFromRecordset(Recordset) Dim Stream Set Stream = Server.CreateObject("ADODB.Stream") Stream.Open Recordset.Save Stream, adPersistXML Stream.Position = 0 XMLFromRecordset = Stream.ReadText End Function Just in case the web page needs to know, the SP returns a recordset of any new elements, showing their page value and their created value (so I can see that n1 is now e12346 for example). Here are some key snippets from the stored procedure. Note this is SQL 2000 for now, though I'll be able to switch to 2005 soon: CREATE PROCEDURE [dbo].[DataPost] @ElementMetaData ntext, @ElementData ntext AS DECLARE @hdoc int --- snip --- EXEC sp_xml_preparedocument @hdoc OUTPUT, @ElementMetaData, '<xml xmlns:s="uuid:BDC6E3F0-6DA3-11d1-A2A3-00AA00C14882" xmlns:dt="uuid:C2F41010-65B3-11d1-A29F-00AA00C14882" xmlns:rs="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:rowset" xmlns:z="#RowsetSchema" />' INSERT #ElementMetadata (ElementID, ElementTypeID, ElementID1, ElementID2) SELECT * FROM OPENXML(@hdoc, '/xml/rs:data/rs:insert/z:row', 0) WITH ( ElementID int, ElementTypeID int, ElementID1 int, ElementID2 int ) ORDER BY ElementID -- orders negative items (new elements) first so they begin counting at 1 for later ID calculation EXEC sp_xml_removedocument @hdoc --- snip --- UPDATE E SET E.ElementTypeID = M.ElementTypeID FROM Element E INNER JOIN #ElementMetadata M ON E.ElementID = M.ElementID WHERE E.ElementID >= 1 AND M.ElementTypeID >= 1 The following query does the correlation of the negative new element ids to the newly inserted ones: UPDATE #ElementMetadata -- Correlate the new ElementIDs with the input rows SET NewElementID = Scope_Identity() - @@RowCount + DataID WHERE ElementID < 0 Other set-based queries do all the other work of validating that the attributes are allowed, are the correct data type, and inserting, updating, and deleting elements and attributes. I hope this brief run-down is useful to others some day! Converting ADO Recordsets to an XML stream was a huge winner for me as it saved all sorts of time and had a namespace and schema already defined that made the results come out correctly. Using a flatter XML format with 2 inputs was also much easier than sticking to some ideal about having everything in a single XML stream.

    Read the article

  • What can be a cookie? How to set with OUTPUT? RETURNVALUE?

    - by Ronnie Chester Lynwood
    hello. i think i got some problems with setting a cookie data. for this code: Set cmdDB = Server.CreateObject("ADODB.Command") With cmdDB .ActiveConnection = ADOConM .CommandText = "usp_jaljava_member_select" .CommandType = adCmdStoredProc .Parameters.Append .CreateParameter("RETURN_VALUE", adInteger, adParamReturnValue, 0) .Parameters.Append .CreateParameter("@TLoginName", adVarChar, adParamInput, 15,lcase(TLoginName)) .Parameters.Append .CreateParameter("@TPassword", adVarChar, adParamInput, 20,TPassword) .Parameters.Append .CreateParameter("@retval", adVarChar, adParamOutput, 50) ' .Parameters.Append .CreateParameter("@TPinCode", adVarChar, adParamInput, 15,TPinCode) .Execute,,adExecuteNoRecords RetVal = .Parameters("@retval") Ret = Trim(.Parameters("RETURN_VALUE")) 'Set .ActiveConnection = Nothing End With Set cmdDB = Nothing UTid = RetVal if Ret = 100 then deleteInvalidLogin(TLoginName) SetDomainCookie "UTid",UTid SetDomainCookie "Uid", TLoginName if redirect_domain <> "" then Response.Write "<form name=frm action=" & urlserver & " method=post><input type=hidden name=loginname value='" & TLoginName & "'><input type=hidden name=id value=""" & Request.Cookies("UTID") & """></form><script>frm.submit();</script>" Response.End else%> <% Response.Redirect ("kologin.asp?id=OK") Response.End end if RETURN_VALUE is returns as 100. But I don't know.. UTID! What is UTID have to be? If I set UTID same as UID will it work? thanks..

    Read the article

  • Delphi Application using COMMIT and ROLLBACK for Multiple SQL Updates

    - by Matt
    Is it possible to use the SQL BEGIN TRANSACTION, COMMIT TRANSACTION, ROLLBACK TRANSACTION when embedding SQL Queries into an application with mutiple calls to the SQL for Table Updates. For example I have the following code: Q.SQL.ADD(<UPDATE A RECORD>); Q.ExecSQL; Q.Close; Q.SQL.Clear; Q.SQL.ADD(<Select Some Data>); Q.Open; Set Some Variables Q.Close; Q.SQL.Clear; Q.SQL.ADD(<UPDATE A RECORD>); Q.ExecSQL; What I would like to do is if the second update fails I want to roll back the first transaction. If I set a unique notation for the BEGIN, COMMIT, ROLLBACK so as to specify what is being committed or rolled back, is it feasible. i.e. before the first Update specify BEGIN TRANSACTION_A then after the last update specify COMMIT TRANSACTION_A I hope that makes sense. If I was doing this in a SQL Stored Procedure then I would be able to specify this at the start and end of the procedure, but I have had to break the code down into manageable chunks due to process blocks and deadlocks on a heavy loaded SQL Server.

    Read the article

  • SSIS: "Failure inserting into the read-only column <ColumnName>"

    - by Cory
    I have an Excel source going into an OLE DB destination. I'm inserting data into a view that has an INSTEAD OF trigger that handles all inserts. When I try to execute the package I receive this error: "Failure inserting into the read-only column ColumnName" What can I do to let SSIS know that this view is safe to insert into because there is an INSTEAD OF trigger that will handle the insert? EDIT (Additional info): Some more additional info. I have a flat file that is being inserted into a normalized database. My initial problem was how do I take a flat file and insert that data into multiple tables while keeping track of all the primary/foreign key relationships. My solution was to create a VIEW that mimicked the structure of the flat file and then create an INSTEAD OF trigger on that view. In my INSTEAD OF trigger I would handle the logic of maintaining all the relationships between tables My view looks something like this. CREATE VIEW ImportView AS SELECT CONVERT(varchar(100, NULL) AS CustomerName, CONVERT(varchar(100), NULL) AS Address1, CONVERT(varchar(100), NULL) AS Address2, CONVERT(varchar(100), NULL) AS City, CONVERT(char(2), NULL) AS State, CONVERT(varchar(250), NULL) AS ItemOrdered, CONVERT(int, NULL) AS QuantityOrdered ... I will never need to select from this view, I only use it to insert data into it from this flat file I receive. I need someway to tell SQL Server that the fields aren't really read only because there is an INSTEAD OF trigger on this view.

    Read the article

  • Generating Random Records Date Wise

    - by Julian
    I work for a non-profit organization where we send volunteers to aided schools everyday. I am creating a site to display this info and am using SQL server express. I want some help regarding a query so here's my first post We have 15 volunteers currently who will go to 4 different schools to teach. Here are some conditions: We have to create a 'new' group comprising of 1 Leader and 4 TeamSupporters 'every day' except Sunday who will go to teach everyday If a person becomes a Leader in a week, he cannot become a leader again for the same week. A leader can become a TeamSupporter in the same week. Moving ahead, we can have more number of school to target, so 4 is not a constant Here's how the output should look like School1 School2 School3 School4 Jun14 Leader V6 V6 V6 V6 Support1 V3 V3 V3 V3 Support2 V9 V9 V9 V9 Support3 V12 V12 V12 V12 Support4 V1 V1 V1 V1 Jun15 Leader V2 V2 V2 V2 Support1 V7 V7 V7 V7 Support2 V9 V9 V9 V9 Support3 V8 V8 V8 V8 Support4 V11 V11 V11 V11 Jun16 Leader V9 V9 V9 V9 Support1 V6 V6 V6 V6 Support2 V4 V4 V4 V4 Support3 V3 V3 V3 V3 Support4 V14 V14 V14 V14 and so on..

    Read the article

  • Find out which row caused the error

    - by Felipe Fiali
    I have a big fat query that's written dynamically to integrate some data. Basically what it does is query some tables, join some other ones, treat some data, and then insert it into a final table. The problem is that there's too much data, and we can't really trust the sources, because there could be some errored or inconsistent data. For example, I've spent almost an hour looking for an error while developing using a customer's database because somewhere in the middle of my big fat query there was an error converting some varchar to datetime. It turned out to be that they had some sales dating '2009-02-29', an out-of-range date. And yes, I know. Why was that stored as varchar? Well, the source database has 3 columns for dates, 'Month', 'Day' and 'Year'. I have no idea why it's like that, but still, it is. But how the hell would I treat that, if the source is not trustable? I can't HANDLE exceptions, I really need that it comes up to another level with the original message, but I wanted to provide some more info, so that the user could at least try to solve it before calling us. So I thought about displaying to the user the row number, or some ID that would at least give him some idea of what record he'd have to correct. That's also a hard job because there will be times when the integration will run up to 80000 records. And in an 80000 records integration, a single dummy error message: 'The conversion of a varchar data type to a datetime data type resulted in an out-of-range datetime value' means nothing at all. So any idea would be appreciated. Oh I'm using SQL Server 2005 with Service Pack 3.

    Read the article

  • Working with Decimal fields in SSIS

    - by CoffeeAddict
    I'm using SQL Server 2008 w/SP2. I've got an incoming decimal(9,2) field incoming through my OLE DB transformation to my recordset destination transformation. It's like it's reading it as something other than a decimal? I don't know..I'm not an SSIS guru. So continuing on...the problem I have starts here with me trying to stuff the value into a variable for this decimal field. In a foreach loop, I have a variable to represent this decimal field so I can work with it. The first problem that I believe is pretty well known is SSIS variables do not have a decimal type. And from my own testing and what I've read out there, people are using type object for the variable to make SSIS "happy" with decimal values? It makes mine happy. But, then in my foreach loop, I have a for loop. And inside that I'm using an E*xecute SQL Task transformation*. In it, I need to create a parameter mapping to my variable so I can work with that decimal field in my T-SQL call in here. So now I see a type decimal for the parameter and use it and set that to point to my variable. When I run SSIS and it hits my SQL call, I get this in my output window.: The type is not supported.DBTYPE_DECIMAL So I am hitting a wall here. All I wanna do is work with a decimal!!!

    Read the article

  • Selecting data in clustered index order without ORDER BY

    - by kcrumley
    I know there is no guarantee without an ORDER BY clause, but are there any techniques to tune SQL Server tables so they're more likely to return rows in clustered index order, without having to specify ORDER BY every single time I want to run a super-quick ad hoc query? For example, would rebuilding my clustered index or updating statistics help? I'm aware that I can't count on a query like: select * from AuditLog where UserId = 992 to return records in the order of the clustered index, so I would never build code into an application based on this assumption. But for simple ad hoc queries, on almost all of my tables, the data consistently comes out in clustered index order, and I've gotten used to being able to expect the most recent results to be at the bottom. Out of all the many tables we use, I've only noticed two ever giving me results in an unpredicted order. This is really just an annoyance, but it would be nice to be able to minimize it. In case this is relevant because of page boundary issues or something like that, I should mention that one of the tables that has inconsistent ordering, the AuditLog table, is the longest table we have that has a clustered index on an identity column. Also, this database has recently been moved from SQL 2005 to SQL 2008, and we've seen no noticeable change in this behavior.

    Read the article

  • Conversion failed when converting the varchar value to int

    - by onedaywhen
    Microsoft SQL Server 2008 (SP1), getting an unexpected 'Conversion failed' error. Not quite sure how to describe this problem, so below is a simple example. The CTE extracts the numeric portion of certain IDs using a search condition to ensure a numeric portion actually exists. The CTE is then used to find the lowest unused sequence number (kind of): CREATE TABLE IDs (ID CHAR(3) NOT NULL UNIQUE); INSERT INTO IDs (ID) VALUES ('A01'), ('A02'), ('A04'), ('ERR'); WITH ValidIDs (ID, seq) AS ( SELECT ID, CAST(RIGHT(ID, 2) AS INTEGER) FROM IDs WHERE ID LIKE 'A[0-9][0-9]' ) SELECT MIN(V1.seq) + 1 AS next_seq FROM ValidIDs AS V1 WHERE NOT EXISTS ( SELECT * FROM ValidIDs AS V2 WHERE V2.seq = V1.seq + 1 ); The error is, 'Conversion failed when converting the varchar value 'RR' to data type int.' I can't understand why the value ID = 'ERR' should be being considered for conversion because the predicate ID LIKE 'A[0-9][0-9]' should have removed the invalid row from the resultset. When the base table is substituted with an equivalent CTE the problem goes away i.e. WITH IDs (ID) AS ( SELECT 'A01' UNION ALL SELECT 'A02' UNION ALL SELECT 'A04' UNION ALL SELECT 'ERR' ), ValidIDs (ID, seq) AS ( SELECT ID, CAST(RIGHT(ID, 2) AS INTEGER) FROM IDs WHERE ID LIKE 'A[0-9][0-9]' ) SELECT MIN(V1.seq) + 1 AS next_seq FROM ValidIDs AS V1 WHERE NOT EXISTS ( SELECT * FROM ValidIDs AS V2 WHERE V2.seq = V1.seq + 1 ); Why would a base table cause this error? Is this a known issue? UPDATE @sgmoore: no, doing the filtering in one CTE and the casting in another CTE still results in the same error e.g. WITH FilteredIDs (ID) AS ( SELECT ID FROM IDs WHERE ID LIKE 'A[0-9][0-9]' ), ValidIDs (ID, seq) AS ( SELECT ID, CAST(RIGHT(ID, 2) AS INTEGER) FROM FilteredIDs ) SELECT MIN(V1.seq) + 1 AS next_seq FROM ValidIDs AS V1 WHERE NOT EXISTS ( SELECT * FROM ValidIDs AS V2 WHERE V2.seq = V1.seq + 1 );

    Read the article

  • Is it possible to definitively identify whether a DML command was issued from a stored procedure?

    - by Ed Harper
    I have inherited a SQL Server 2008 database to which calling applications have access through stored procedures. Each table in the database has a shadow audit table into which Insert/Update/Delete operations for are logged. Performance testing on populating the audit tables showed that inserting the audit records using OUTPUT clauses was 20% or so faster than using triggers, so this has been implemented in the stored procedures. However, because this design cannot track changes made directly to the tables through DML statements issued directly against the tables, triggers have also been implemented which use the value of @@NESTLEVEL to determine whether or not to run the trigger (the assumption being that all DML run through stored procedures will have @@NESTLEVEL 1). i.e. the body of the trigger code looks something like: IF @@NESTLEVEL = 1 -- implies call is direct sql so generate history from here BEGIN ... insert into audit table This design is flawed because it won't track updates where DML statements are executed in dynamic SQL, or any other context where @@NESTLEVEL is raised above 1. Can anyone suggest a completely reliable method we can use in the triggers to execute them only if not triggered by a stored procedure? Or is this (as I suspect) not possible?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 334 335 336 337 338 339 340 341 342 343 344 345  | Next Page >