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  • Searching with a UISearchbar is slow and blocking the main thread.

    - by Robert
    I have a Table with over 3000 entries and searching is very slow. At the moment I am doing just like in the 'TableSearch' example code (but without scopes) - (BOOL)searchDisplayController:(UISearchDisplayController *)controller shouldReloadTableForSearchString:(NSString *)searchString { [self filterContentForSearchText: searchString]; // Return YES to cause the search result table view to be reloaded. return YES; } And the filterContentForSearchText method is as follows: - (void) filterContentForSearchText:(NSString*)searchText { // Update the filtered array based on the search text // First clear the filtered array. [filteredListContent removeAllObjects]; // Search the main list whose name matches searchText // add items that match to the filtered array. if (fetchedResultsController.fetchedObjects) { for (id object in fetchedResultsController.fetchedObjects) { NSString* searchTarget = [tableTypeDelegate getStringForSearchFilteringFromObject:object]; if ([searchTarget rangeOfString:searchText options:(NSCaseInsensitiveSearch|NSDiacriticInsensitiveSearch)].location != NSNotFound) { [filteredListContent addObject:object]; } } } } My question is twofold: How do can I make the searching process faster? How can I stop the search from blocking the main thread? i.e. stop it preventing the user from typing more characters. For the second part, I tried "performSelector:withObject:afterDelay:" and "cancelPreviousPerformRequests..." without much success. I suspect that I will need to use threading instead, but I do not have much experience with it.

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  • getting attribute as column headers

    - by edwards
    I have the following XML: <DEVICEMESSAGES> <VERSION xml="1" checksum="" revision="0" envision="33050000" device="" /> <HEADER id1="0001" id2="0001" content="Nasher[&lt;messageid&gt;]: &lt;!payload&gt;" /> <MESSAGE level="7" parse="1" parsedefvalue="1" tableid="15" id1="24682" id2="24682" eventcategory="1003010000" content="Access to &lt;webpage&gt; was blocked due to its category (&lt;info&gt; by &lt;hostname&gt;)" /> </DEVICEMESSAGES> I am using the following XSLT: <xsl:stylesheet version="2.0" xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform"> <xsl:output method="text"/> <xsl:strip-space elements="*"/> <xsl:template match="DEVICEMESSAGES/HEADERS"> <xsl:value-of select="@id2"/>,<xsl:text/> <xsl:value-of select="@content"/>,<xsl:text/> <xsl:text>&#xa;</xsl:text> </xsl:template> </xsl:stylesheet> I get the following output: 0001 , Nasher[<messageid>]: <!payload> whereas I need the column headings, too: id2, content 0001 , Nasher[<messageid>]: <!payload>

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  • JoinColumn name not used in sql

    - by Vladimir
    Hi! I have a problem with mapping many-to-one relationship without exact foreign key constraint set in database. I use OpenJPA implementation with MySql database, but the problem is with generated sql scripts for insert and select statements. I have LegalEntity table which contains RootId column (among others). I also have Address table which has LegalEntityId column which is not nullable, and which should contain values referencing LegalEntity's "RootId" column, but without any database constraint (foreign key) set. Address entity is mapped: @Entity @Table(name="address") public class Address implements Serializable { ... @ManyToOne(fetch=FetchType.LAZY, optional=false) @JoinColumn(referencedColumnName="RootId", name="LegalEntityId", nullable=false, insertable=true, updatable=true, table="LegalEntity") public LegalEntity getLegalEntity() { return this.legalEntity; } } SELECT statement (when fetching LegalEntity's addresses) and INSERT statment are generated: SELECT t0.Id, .., t0.LEGALENTITY_ID FROM address t0 WHERE t0.LEGALENTITY_ID = ? ORDER BY t0.Id DESC [params=(int) 2] INSERT INTO address (..., LEGALENTITY_ID) VALUES (..., ?) [params=..., (int) 2] If I omit table attribute from mentioned statements are generated: SELECT t0.Id, ... FROM address t0 INNER JOIN legalentity t1 ON t0.LegalEntityId = t1.RootId WHERE t1.Id = ? ORDER BY t0.Id DESC [params=(int) 2] INSERT INTO address (...) VALUES (...) [params=...] So, LegalEntityId is not included in any of the statements. Is it possible to have relationship based on such referencing (to column other than primary key, without foreign key in database)? Is there something else missing? Thanks in advance.

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  • When and why can sprintf fail?

    - by Srekel
    I'm using swprintf to build a string into a buffer (using a loop among other things). const int MaxStringLengthPerCharacter = 10 + 1; wchar_t* pTmp = pBuffer; for ( size_t i = 0; i < nNumPlayers ; ++i) { const int nPlayerId = GetPlayer(i); const int nWritten = swprintf(pTmp, MaxStringLengthPerCharacter, TEXT("%d,"), nPlayerId); assert(nWritten >= 0 ); pTmp += nWritten; } *pTaskPlayers = '\0'; If during testing the assert never hits, can I be sure that it will never hit in live code? That is, do I need to check if nWritten < 0 and handle that, or can I safely assume that there won't be a problem? Under which circumstances can it return -1? The documentation more or less just states "If the function fails". In one place I've read that it will fail if it can't match the arguments (i.e. the formatting string to the varargs) but that doesn't worry me. I'm also not worried about buffer overrun in this case - I know the buffer is big enough.

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  • XSLT: Add namespace to root element

    - by Ingrid
    I need to change namespaces in the root element as follows: input document: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8" standalone="yes"?> <foo xsi:schemaLocation="urn:isbn:1-931666-22-9 http://www.loc.gov/ead/ead.xsd" xmlns:ns2="http://www.w3.org/1999/xlink" xmlns="urn:isbn:1-931666-22-9" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance"> desired output: <foo audience="external" xsi:schemaLocation="urn:isbn:1-931666-22-9 http://www.loc.gov/ead/ead.xsd" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:xlink="http://www.w3.org/1999/xlink" xmlns="urn:isbn:1-931666-22-9"> I was trying to do it as I copy over the whole document and before I give any other transformation instructions, but the following doesn't work: <xsl:template match="* | processing-instruction() | comment()"> <xsl:copy copy-namespaces="no"> <xsl:for-each select="."> <xsl:attribute name="audience" select="'external'"/> <xsl:namespace name="xlink" select="'http://www.w3.org/1999/xlink'"/> </xsl:for-each> <xsl:apply-templates/> <xsl:copy-of select="@*"/> <xsl:apply-templates/> </xsl:copy> </xsl:template> Thanks for any advice!

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  • How do I create Variables in XSLT that are not document fragments?

    - by chiborg
    Consider the following XSLT template <xsl:template match="/"> <xsl:variable name="var1"> <elem>1</elem> <elem>2</elem> <elem>3</elem> </xsl:variable> <xsl:text>var1 has </xsl:text> <xsl:value-of select="count($var1)"/> <xsl:text>elements. </xsl:text> <xsl:variable name="var2" select="$var1/elem[. != '2']"/> <xsl:text>var2 has </xsl:text> <xsl:value-of select="count($var2)"/> <xsl:text>elements. </xsl:text> </xsl:template> The output of this template is var1 has 1 elements var2 has 2 elements The first line outputs 1 (and not, as I first expected 3) because var1 is a document fragment that contains the <elem> elements as childen. Now for my questions: How can I create a variable that does not contain a document fragment? I could do it like I did with var2, only leaving out the predicate. But maybe there is a way without using a second variable. Or, as an alternative: How can I preserve the document fragment in a variable while filtering out some elements?

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  • How can I access a parent DOM from an iframe on a different domain?

    - by Dexter
    I have a website and my domain is registered through Network Solutions. I'm using their Web Forwarding feature which allows me to "mask" my domain so that when a user visits http://lucasmccoy.com they are actually seeing http://lucasmccoy.comlu.com/ through an HTML frame. The advantages of this are that the address bar still shows http://lucasmccoy.com/. The disadvantages are that I cannot directly edit the HTML page in which the frame is owned. For example, I cannot change the page title or favicon. I have tried doing it like so: $(function() { parent.document.title = 'Lucas McCoy'; }); But of course this gives me a JavaScript error: Unsafe JavaScript attempt to access frame with URL http://lucasmccoy.com/ from frame with URL http://lucasmccoy.comlu.com/. Domains, protocols and ports must match. I looked at this question attempting to do the same thing except the OP has access to the other pages HTML whereas I do not. Is there anyway in JavaScript/jQuery to make a cross-domain request to the DOM when you don't have access to that domain? Or is this something browsers just will not let happen for security reasons.

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  • SQL Duplicates Issue SQL SERVER 2000

    - by jeff
    I have two tables : Product and ProductRateDetail. The parent table is Product. I have duplicate records in the product table which need to be unique. There are entries in the ProductRateDetail table which correspond to duplicate records in the product table. Somehow I need to update the ProductRateDetail table to match the original (older) ID from the Product table and then remove the duplicates from the product table. I would do this manually but there are 100's of records. i.e. something like UPDATE tbl_productRateDetail SET productID = (originalID from tbl_product) then something like DELETE from tbl_product WHERE duplicate ID and only delete the recently added ID data example: (sorry can't work out this formatting thing) tbl_Product select * from dbo.Product where ProductCode = '10003' ProductID ProductTypeID ProductDescription ProductCode ProductSize 365 1 BEND DOUBLE FLANGED 10003 80mmX90deg 1354 1 BEND DOUBLE FLANGED 10003 80mmX90deg tbl_ProductRateDetail SELECT * FROM [MSTS2].[dbo].[ProductRateDetail] WHERE ProductID in (365,1354) ProductRateDetailID ProductRateID ProductID UnitRate 365 1 365 16.87 1032 5 365 16.87 2187 10 365 16.87 2689 11 365 16.87 3191 12 365 16.87 7354 21 1354 21.30 7917 22 1354 21.30 8480 23 1354 21.30 9328 25 1354 21.30 9890 26 1354 21.30 10452 27 1354 21.30 Please help!

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  • PHP URL parameters append return special character

    - by Alexandre Lavoie
    I'm programming a function to build an URL, here it is : public static function requestContent($p_lParameters) { $sParameters = "?key=TEST&format=json&jsoncallback=none"; foreach($p_lParameters as $sParameterName => $sParameterValue) { $sParameters .= "&$sParameterName=$sParameterValue"; } echo "<span style='font-size: 16px;'>URL : http://api.oodle.com/api/v2/listings" . $sParameters . "</span><br />"; $aXMLData = file_get_contents("http://api.oodle.com/api/v2/listings" . $sParameters); return json_decode($aXMLData,true); } And I am calling this function with this array list : print_r() result : Array ( [region] => canada [category] => housing/sale/home ) But this is very strange I get an unexpected character (note the special character none*®*ion) : http://api.oodle.com/api/v2/listings?key=TEST&format=json&jsoncallback=none®ion=canada&category=housing/sale/home For information I use this header : <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html;charset=UTF-8" /> <?php header('Content-Type: text/html;charset=UTF-8'); ?> EDIT : $sRequest = "http://api.oodle.com/api/v2/listings?key=TEST&format=json&jsoncallback=none&region=canada&category=housing/sale/home"; echo "<span style='font-size: 16px;'>URL : " . $sRequest . "</span><br />"; return the exact URL with problem : http://api.oodle.com/api/v2/listings?key=TEST&format=json&jsoncallback=none®ion=canada&category=housing/sale/home Thank you for your help!

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  • Some languages don't work when using Word 2007 Spellcheck from Interop

    - by Tridus
    I'm using the Word 2007 spellchecker via Interop in a VB.net desktop app. When using the default language (English), it works fine. If I set the language to French via LanguageId, it also works. But if I set it to French (Canadian) (Word.WdLanguageID.wdFrenchCanadian), it doesn't work. There's no error message, it simply runs and says the document contains no errors. I know it does, if I paste the exact same text into Word itself and run it with the French (Canadian) dictionary, it finds errors. Just why that dictionary doesn't work is kind of a mystery to me. Full code below: Public Shared Function SpellCheck(ByVal text As String, ByVal checkGrammar As Boolean) As String ' If there is no data to spell check, then exit sub here. If text.Length = 0 Then Return text End If Dim objWord As Word.Application Dim objTempDoc As Word.Document ' Declare an IDataObject to hold the data returned from the ' clipboard. Dim iData As IDataObject objWord = New Word.Application() objTempDoc = objWord.Documents.Add objWord.Visible = False ' Position Word off the screen...this keeps Word invisible ' throughout. objWord.WindowState = 0 objWord.Top = -3000 ' Copy the contents of the textbox to the clipboard Clipboard.SetDataObject(text) ' With the temporary document, perform either a spell check or a ' complete ' grammar check, based on user selection. With objTempDoc .Content.Paste() .Activate() .Content.LanguageID = Word.WdLanguageID.wdFrenchCanadian If checkGrammar Then .CheckGrammar() Else .CheckSpelling() End If ' After user has made changes, use the clipboard to ' transfer the contents back to the text box .Content.Copy() iData = Clipboard.GetDataObject If iData.GetDataPresent(DataFormats.Text) Then text = CType(iData.GetData(DataFormats.Text), _ String) End If .Saved = True .Close() End With objWord.Quit() Return text End Function

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  • Getting random record from database with group by

    - by Saif Bechan
    Hello i have a question on picking random entries from a database. I have 4 tables, products, bids and autobids, and users. Products ------- id 20,21,22,23,24(prime_key) price........... etc........... users ------- id(prim_key) name user1,user2,user3 etc bids ------- product_id user_id created autobids -------- user_id product_id Now a multiple users can have an autobid on an product. So for the next bidder I want to select a random user from the autobid table example of the query in language: for each product in the autobid table I want a random user, which is not the last bidder. On product 20 has user1,user2,user3 an autobidding. On product 21 has user1,user2,user3 an autobidding Then I want a resultset that looks for example like this 20 – user2 21 – user3 Just a random user. I tried miximg the GOUP BY (product_id) and making it RAND(), but I just can't get the right values from it. Now I am getting a random user, but all the values that go with it don't match. Can someone please help me construct this query, I am using php and mysql

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  • Apache ReWriteEngine throwing 500 Internal Server Error for too many internal redirects... why?!?!?!

    - by Stephen G
    I'm trying to implement a new ReWrite rule on my local dev machine. I have 13 rules set up already, and all work fine (even as of this writing). However, for some reason the newest one is throwing me 500 Internal Server Errors. The ReWrite rule is: RewriteRule stuff/public_html/vault/mystuff/view/(.*) /stuff/public_html/vault/mystuff/view/index.php?stuff=$1 RewriteRule stuff/public_html/vault/mystuff/view/(.*)/ /stuff/public_html/vault/mystuff/view/index.php?stuff=$1 Checked my apache logs and got this: [Thu Jan 13 22:07:43 2011] [error] [client ::1] mod_rewrite: maximum number of internal redirects reached. Assuming configuration error. Use 'RewriteOptions MaxRedirects' to increase the limit if neccessary., referer: http://localhost:8888/stuff/public_html/vault/mystuff/all/index.php?curr=7 On the script I am trying to redirect to view/index.php?stuff=$1, there is nothing that even remotely resembles a redirect of any kind. I do have a very, very basic session verifier being called at the top of the landing script, which is as follows: //Start session session_start(); //Check whether the session variable SESS_MEMBER_ID is present or not if(!isset($_SESSION['SESS_MEMBER_ID']) || (trim($_SESSION['SESS_MEMBER_ID']) == '')) { header("location: ".$root_http.""); exit(); } However, when I access the page directly, it acts as it should, and there is no redirect. All of my other ReWrite rules and their corresponding landing pages are set up the exact same way. This is blowing my mind. Any help, PLEASE!?

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  • Concatenate 2 text elements on a line with full-width border using CSS only

    - by Michael Horne
    Okay, I'm a newbie to CSS3, so please be gentle. ;-) I'm working with some Wordpress code (Woocommerce plugin, to be exact), and I'm trying to format a line of code in a sidebar so that 2 separate text items (one in an <a, the other in a <span are all on the same line, the full width of the column, and with a bottom border. It looks something like this (except the bottom border on each text do not go all the way across the enclosing sidebar box): http://www.dalluva.com/temp/browse-catalog.JPG (sorry, I'm new and can't post inline images yet) Here's the code fragment I'm trying to live with (i.e. I don't want to change it): <div class="widget"> ... <ul class="product-categories"> <li class="cat-item"> <a href="http://localhost/dalluva/shop/product-category/books/">Books</a> <span class="count">(5)</span> </li> ... And here's the CSS I have now: .widget ul li a { border-bottom: 1px solid #e9e9e9; line-height:1.0; padding: 5px 0 5px 22px; display: inline-block; } .widget ul li span { border-bottom: 1px solid #e9e9e9; line-height: 1.0; padding: 5px 0 5px 0; display: inline-block; } The output in the image above looks right for this CSS code, but when I change the 'span' CSS to include a width:100%, it causes the span element to wrap to the next line, looking like this: http://www.dalluva.com/temp/browse-catalog-2.JPG I've played with white-space:nowrap, overflow:hidden, etc, but I can't seem to find a way to have both the <a and the <span text on the same line with the border extending the full width of the column. Any suggestions on getting the desired effect through CSS only? Thanks. Michael

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  • Adding an unknown number of JComponents to a JPanel

    - by Matthew
    Good day, I am building an Applet (JApplet to be exact) and I sub divided that into two panels. The top panel is called DisplayPanel which is a custom class that extends JPanel. The bottom panel is called InputPanel which also extends JPanel. As mentioned above, I can add those two Panel's to the applet and they display fine. The next thing that I would like to do is have the InputPanel be able to hold a random number of JComponent Objects all listed veritcally. This means that the InputPanel should be able to have JButtons, JLabels, JTextFields etc thrown at it. I then want the InputPanel to display some sort of scrolling capability. The catch is that since these two panels are already inside my applet, I need the InputPanel to stay the same size as it was given when added to the Applet. So for example, if my applet (from the web-browser html code) was given the size 700,700, and then the DisplayPanel was 700 by 350, and the InputPanel was below it with the same dimensions, I want to then be able to add lots of JComponents like buttons, to the InputPanel and the panel would stay 700 x 350 in the same position that it is at, only the panel would have scroll bars if needed. I've played with many different combinations of JScrollPane, but just cannot get it. Thank you.

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  • prolog - infinite rule

    - by Tom
    I have the next rules % Signature: natural_number(N)/1 % Purpose: N is a natural number. natural_number(0). natural_number(s(X)) :- natural_number(X) ackermann(0, N, s(N)). //rule 1 ackermann(s(M),0,Result):- ackermann(M,s(0),Result). //rule 2 ackermann(s(M),s(N),Result):-ackermann(M,Result1,Result),ackermann(s(M),N,Result1). //rule 3 The query is: ackermann (M,N,s(s(0))). Now, as I understood, In the third calculation, we got an infinite search (failture branch). I check it, and I got a finite search (failture branch). I'll explain: In the first, we got a substitue of M=0, N=s(0) (rule 1 - succsess!). In the second, we got a substitue of M=s(0),N=0 (rule 2 - sucsses!). But what now? I try to match M=s(s(0)) N=0, But it got a finite search - failture branch. Why the comipler doesn't write me "fail". Thank you.

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  • Why would certain browsers request all pages on my ASP.Net Web site twice?

    - by Deane
    Firefox is issuing duplicate requests to my ASP.Net web site. It will request a page, get the response, then immediately issue the same request again (well, almost the same -- see below). This happens on every page of this particular Web site (but not any others). IE does not do this, but Chrome also does this. I have confirmed that there is no Location header in the response, and no Javascript or meta tag in the page which would cause the page to be re-requested (if any of these were true, IE would be re-requesting pages as well). I have confirmed this behavior on multiple Firefox installs on multiple machines. Versions vary, but all are 3.x. The only difference between the two requests is the Accepts header. For the first request, it looks like this: Accept: text/html,application/xhtml+xml,application/xml;q=0.9,*/*;q=0.8 For the second request, it looks like this: Accept: */* The Content-Type response header in all cases is: Content-Type: text/html; charset=utf-8 Something else odd -- even though Firefox requests the page twice, it uses the first response and discards the second. I put a counter on a page that increments with every request. I can watch the responses come back (via the Charles proxy). Firefox will get a "1" the first time, and a "2" the second time. Yet it will display the "1," for some reason. Chrome exhibits this exact same behavior. I suspect it's a protocol-level issue, given the difference in Accepts header, but I've never seen this before.

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  • Find all ways to insert zeroes into a bit pattern

    - by James
    I've been struggling to wrap my head around this for some reason. I have 15 bits that represent a number. The bits must match a pattern. The pattern is defined in the way the bits start out: they are in the most flush-right representation of that pattern. So say the pattern is 1 4 1. The bits will be: 000000010111101 So the general rule is, take each number in the pattern, create that many bits (1, 4 or 1 in this case) and then have at least one space separating them. So if it's 1 2 6 1 (it will be random): 001011011111101 Starting with the flush-right version, I want to generate every single possible number that meets that pattern. The # of bits will be stored in a variable. So for a simple case, assume it's 5 bits and the initial bit pattern is: 00101. I want to generate: 00101 01001 01010 10001 10010 10100 I'm trying to do this in Objective-C, but anything resembling C would be fine. I just can't seem to come up with a good recursive algorithm for this. It makes sense in the above example, but when I start getting into 12431 and having to keep track of everything it breaks down.

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  • Generic ASP.NET MVC Route Conflict

    - by Donn Felker
    I'm working on a Legacy ASP.NET system. I say legacy because there are NO tests around 90% of the system. I'm trying to fix the routes in this project and I'm running into a issue I wish to solve with generic routes. I have the following routes: routes.MapRoute( "DefaultWithPdn", "{controller}/{action}/{pdn}", new { controller = "", action = "Index", pdn = "" }, null ); routes.MapRoute( "DefaultWithClientId", "{controller}/{action}/{clientId}", new { controller = "", action = "index", clientid = "" }, null ); The problem is that the first route is catching all of the traffic for what I need to be routed to the second route. The route is generic (no controller is defined in the constraint in either route definition) because multiple controllers throughout the entire app share this same premise (sometimes we need a "pdn" sometimes we need a "clientId"). How can I map these generic routes so that they go to the proper controller and action, yet not have one be too greedy? Or can I at all? Are these routes too generic (which is what I'm starting to believe is the case). My only option at this point (AFAIK) is one of the following: In the contraints, apply a regex to match the action values like: (foo|bar|biz|bang) and the same for the controller: (home|customer|products) for each controller. However, this has a problem in the fact that I may need to do this: ~/Foo/Home/123 // Should map to "DefaultwithPdn" ~/Foo/Home/abc // Should map to "DefaultWithClientId" Which means that if the Foo Controller has an action that takes a pdn and another action that takes a clientId (which happens all the time in this app), the wrong route is chosen. To hardcode these contstraints into each possible controller/action combo seems like a lot of duplication to me and I have the feeling I've been looking at the problem for too long so I need another pair of eyes to help out. Can I have generic routes to handle this scenario? Or do I need to have custom routes for each controller with constraints applied to the actions on those routes? Thanks

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  • Xcode "Build and Archive" from command line

    - by Dan Fabulich
    Xcode 3.2 provides an awesome new feature under the Build menu, "Build and Archive" which generates an .ipa file suitable for Ad Hoc distribution. You can also open the Organizer, go to "Archived Applications," and "Submit Application to iTunesConnect." Is there a way to use "Build and Archive" from the command line (as part of a build script)? I'd assume that xcodebuild would be involved somehow, but the man page doesn't seem to say anything about this. UPDATE Michael Grinich requested clarification; here's what exactly you can't do with command-line builds, features you can ONLY do with Xcode's Organizer after you "Build and Archive." You can click "Share Application..." to share your IPA with beta testers. As Guillaume points out below, due to some Xcode magic, this IPA file does not require a separately distributed .mobileprovision file that beta testers need to install; that's magical. No command-line script can do it. For example, Arrix's script (submitted May 1) does not meet that requirement. More importantly, after you've beta tested a build, you can click "Submit Application to iTunes Connect" to submit that EXACT same build to Apple, the very binary you tested, without rebuilding it. That's impossible from the command line, because signing the app is part of the build process; you can sign bits for Ad Hoc beta testing OR you can sign them for submission to the App Store, but not both. No IPA built on the command-line can be beta tested on phones and then submitted directly to Apple. I'd love for someone to come along and prove me wrong: both of these features work great in the Xcode GUI and cannot be replicated from the command line.

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  • Best way to determine variable type and treat each one differently in F#

    - by James Black
    I have a function that will create a select where clause, but right now everything has to be a string. I would like to look at the variable passed in and determine what type it is and then treat it properly. For example, numeric values don't have single quotes around them, option type will either be null or have some value and boolean will actually be zero or one. member self.BuildSelectWhereQuery (oldUser:'a) = let properties = List.zip oldUser.ToSqlValuesList sqlColumnList let init = false, new StringBuilder() let anyChange, (formatted:StringBuilder) = properties |> Seq.fold (fun (anyChange, sb) (oldVal, name) -> match(anyChange) with | true -> true, sb.AppendFormat(" AND {0} = '{1}'", name, oldVal) | _ -> true, sb.AppendFormat("{0} = '{1}'", name, oldVal) ) init formatted.ToString() Here is one entity: type CityType() = inherit BaseType() let mutable name = "" let mutable stateId = 0 member this.Name with get() = name and set restnameval=name <- restnameval member this.StateId with get() = stateId and set stateidval=stateId <- stateidval override this.ToSqlValuesList = [this.Name; this.StateId.ToString()] So, if name was some other value besides a string, or stateId can be optional, then I have two changes to make: How do I modify ToSqlValuesList to have the variable so I can tell the variable type? How do I change my select function to handle this? I am thinking that I need a new function does the processing, but what is the best FP way to do this, rather than using something like typeof?

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  • Why is a Silverlight application created from an exported template show a blank screen in the browse

    - by Edward Tanguay
    I created a silverlight app (without website) named TestApp, with one TextBox: <UserControl x:Class="TestApp.MainPage" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xmlns:d="http://schemas.microsoft.com/expression/blend/2008" xmlns:mc="http://schemas.openxmlformats.org/markup-compatibility/2006" mc:Ignorable="d" d:DesignWidth="640" d:DesignHeight="480"> <Grid x:Name="LayoutRoot"> <TextBlock Text="this is a test"/> </Grid> </UserControl> I press F5 and see "this is a test" in my browser (firefox). I select File | Export Template | name it TestAppTemplate and save it. I create a new silverlight app based on the above template. The MainPage.xaml has the exact same XAML as above. I press F5 and see a blank screen in my browser. I look at the HTML source of both of these and they are identical. Everything I have compared in both projects is identical. What do I have to do so that a Silverlight application which is created from my exported template does not show a blank screen?

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  • How to implement a Client-side Ajax Login on Asp.Net MVC (A link to the solution for Asp.Net Webform

    - by Matt
    Hi, I'm trying to implement a client-side ajax login on Asp.Net MVC. I used to have this set up just fine on WebForms, but now that I've moved to MVC it's giving me some troubles. If you'd like a tutorial on Client-side Ajax Login for Asp.Net Webforms, it can be found here -- Easy, A++ Now... for some reason it's not working for Asp.Net MVC. I used the exact same tutorial as for the Webforms, except when it executes the ssa.login() (equivalently: Sys.Services.AuthenticationService.login()) it's not doing anything. I have alerts in both the onLoginComplete() function and the onError() function. As well I have an alert before the ssa.login gets called and right after... function loginHandler() { var username = $("#login_UserName").val(); var password = $("#login_Password").val(); var isPersistent = $("#login_RememberMe").attr("checked"); var customInfo = null; var redirectUrl = null; // Log them in. alert("try login"); ssa.login(username, password, isPersistent, customInfo, redirectUrl, onLoginComplete, onError); alert("made it here"); } The first alert fires but the second one doesn't which means the function is failing. Here's the function I pulled from Asp.Net Ajax to show you: function(c, b, a, h, f, d, e, g) { this._invoke(this._get_path(), "Login", false, { userName: c, password: b, createPersistentCookie: a }, Function.createDelegate(this, this._onLoginComplete), Function.createDelegate(this, this._onLoginFailed), [c, b, a, h, f, d, e, g]); } Anyone have any idea of why it's failing?

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  • 'LINQ query plan' horribly inefficient but 'Query Analyser query plan' is perfect for same SQL!

    - by Simon_Weaver
    I have a LINQ to SQL query that generates the following SQL : exec sp_executesql N'SELECT COUNT(*) AS [value] FROM [dbo].[SessionVisit] AS [t0] WHERE ([t0].[VisitedStore] = @p0) AND (NOT ([t0].[Bot] = 1)) AND ([t0].[SessionDate] > @p1)',N'@p0 int,@p1 datetime', @p0=1,@p1='2010-02-15 01:24:00' (This is the actual SQL taken from SQL Profiler on SQL Server 2008.) The query plan generated when I run this SQL from within Query Analyser is perfect. It uses an index containing VisitedStore, Bot, SessionDate. The query returns instantly. However when I run this from C# (with LINQ) a different query plan is used that is so inefficient it doesn't even return in 60 seconds. This query plan is trying to do a key lookup on the clustered primary key which contains a couple million rows. It has no chance of returning. What I just can't understand though is that the EXACT same SQL is being run - either from within LINQ or from within Query Analyser yet the query plan is different. I've ran the two queries many many times and they're now running in isolation from any other queries. The date is DateTime.Now.AddDays(-7), but I've even hardcoded that date to eliminate caching problems. Is there anything i can change in LINQ to SQL to affect the query plan or try to debug this further? I'm very very confused!

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  • Read a specific range of lines from a file using c

    - by James Joy
    I have the following content in a file: hhasfghgsafjgfhgfhjf gashghfdgdfhgfhjasgfgfhsgfjdg jfshafghgfgfhfsghfgffsjgfj . . . . . startread hajshjsfhajfhjkashfjf hasjgfhgHGASFHGSHF hsafghfsaghgf . . . . . stopread . . . . . . jsfjhfhjgfsjhfgjhsajhdsa jhasjhsdabjhsagshaasgjasdhjk jkdsdsahghjdashjsfahjfsd I need to read the lines from the next line of startread till the previous line of stopread using a c code and store it to a string variable(of course with a \n for every line breaks). How can i achieve this? I have used fgets(line,sizeof(line),file); but it starts reading from the beginning. I don't have the exact line number to start and stop reading since the file is written by another C code. But there are these identifiers startread and stopread to identify whereto start reading. Operating platform is linux. Thanks in advance.

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  • Mercurial CLI is slow in C#?

    - by pATCheS
    I'm writing a utility in C# that will make managing multiple Mercurial repositories easier for the way my team is using it. However, it seems that there is always about a 300 to 400 millisecond delay before I get anything back from hg.exe. I'm using the code below to run hg.exe and hgtk.exe (TortoiseHg's GUI). The code currently includes a Stopwatch and some variables for timing purposes. The delay is roughly the same on multiple runs within the same session. I have also tried specifying the exact path of hg.exe, and got the same result. static string RunCommand(string executable, string path, string arguments) { var psi = new ProcessStartInfo() { FileName = executable, Arguments = arguments, WorkingDirectory = path, UseShellExecute = false, RedirectStandardError = true, RedirectStandardInput = true, RedirectStandardOutput = true, WindowStyle = ProcessWindowStyle.Maximized, CreateNoWindow = true }; var sbOut = new StringBuilder(); var sbErr = new StringBuilder(); var sw = new Stopwatch(); sw.Start(); var process = Process.Start(psi); TimeSpan firstRead = TimeSpan.Zero; process.OutputDataReceived += (s, e) => { if (firstRead == TimeSpan.Zero) { firstRead = sw.Elapsed; } sbOut.Append(e.Data); }; process.ErrorDataReceived += (s, e) => sbErr.Append(e.Data); process.BeginOutputReadLine(); process.BeginErrorReadLine(); var eventsStarted = sw.Elapsed; process.WaitForExit(); var processExited = sw.Elapsed; sw.Reset(); if (process.ExitCode != 0 || sbErr.Length > 0) { Error.Mercurial(process.ExitCode, sbOut.ToString(), sbErr.ToString()); } return sbOut.ToString(); } Any ideas on how I can speed things up? As it is, I'm going to have to do a lot of caching in addition to threading to keep the UI snappy.

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