Search Results

Search found 17460 results on 699 pages for 'validate request'.

Page 34/699 | < Previous Page | 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41  | Next Page >

  • Exporting/Importing events to Outlook 2007 calendar - problem

    - by iandisme
    I work on a web app that involves scheduling. A user can view his schedule, and then download a meeting request file for a particular event. In Outlook 2003, simply opening this event would cause a meeting request to pop up and the user could accept, which would either add or update the event in their calendar. However, in Outlook 2007, the meeting request Accept function is disabled, and the reason given is that the user is the organizer and can't accept his own event request. The ICS file clearly shows that this is not the case. Has anyone experienced this same problem? Does anyone know how to work around it? (Using Outlook's import function is scarcely an option because it causes duplicate events to be created; the import function doesn't seem to care that the events have the same UID) Here is the ICS file: BEGIN:VCALENDAR PRODID:#{my app} VERSION:2.0 CALSCALE:GREGORIAN METHOD:REQUEST BEGIN:VEVENT DTSTAMP:20100324T150236Z UID:eeb639a1-f8e5-4eab-ab3c-232ad91364c6 SEQUENCE:2 ORGANIZER:#{myApp}.#{myDomain}.com DESCRIPTION: DTSTART;TZID=Europe/London:20110620T120010 DTEND;TZID=Europe/London:20110620T133010 SUMMARY:BREAK:Breakfast LOCATION:Room 101 END:VEVENT BEGIN:VTIMEZONE //Timezone info edited for brevity END:VTIMEZONE END:VCALENDAR

    Read the article

  • An event for when xVal validation fails?

    - by Dusda
    I have a registration form leveraging xVal to handle all validation on the form. It works really well, with one exception: the user doesn't get feedback because another element on the page (a tip telling the user that their username will be their email address) draws on top of the span element xVal spits out when it notices a problem. If I had a way to detect when xVal has a problem with the email field, I could just toggle the visibility of that tooltip and be on my way, but I'm not sure how to do so. I know that xVal uses jquery.validate.js under the hood; is there an event or something I could tie into to do this?

    Read the article

  • jQuery Highlight Radio Labels Only

    - by Michael
    I'm trying to use jQuery validation to highlight the labels for my radio buttons only, and not the labels for my other inputs. I have a label for my radio button set called 'type'. I can't seem to get it to work! $(document).ready(function(){ $("#healthForm").validate({ highlight: function(element, errorClass) { $(element).addClass(errorClass) $(element.form).find("label[for='type']") .addClass("radioerror"); }, unhighlight: function(element, errorClass) { $(element).removeClass(errorClass) $(element.form).find("label[for='type']") .removeClass("radioerror"); }, errorPlacement: function(error, element) { } }); });

    Read the article

  • Jquery - Match two email address

    - by Caremy
    I'm setting up a registration form and use the jquery validation script. There are two email address input textboxes. Email 1 must match Email 2. How do we validate these two email to ensure the 2nd email match the 1st email? Hope someone could help with the validation script. Here's my textboxes coding. <label class="input required">7. Email Address:</label> <input name="author_email" id="author_email" class="inputclass pageRequired email" maxlength="254" title="Email address required" /> <br /> <label class="input required">8. Confirm Email:</label> <input name="author_confirm_email" id="author_confirm_email" class="inputclass pageRequired email" equalTo:"#author_email" maxlength="254" title="Please confirm your email address" /> <br /> Thank you.

    Read the article

  • jQuery validation plugin doesn't work for me

    - by Idsa
    I have the following code to enable validation work: $(document).ready(function() { $("#eventForm").validate({ rules: { startDate: "required", startTime: "required", endDate: { required: function (element) { var endTimeValue = $('#endTime').val(); return (endTimeValue != null && endTimeValue != ''); } }, endTime: { required: function (element) { var endDateValue = $('#endDate').val(); return (endDateValue != null && endDateValue != ''); } } }, messages: { startDate: "Please enter event local start date", startTime: "Please enter event local start time" }, errorPlacement: function (error, element) { error.appendTo(element.parent().next()); }, submitHandler: function (form) { var options = { dataType: 'json', success: eventCreationSuccess, error: eventCreationError }; alert('submit'); //$(form).ajaxSubmit(options); } }); }); But validation plugin doesn't catch submit - default submit is executed. jQuery and validation plugin scripts are imported.

    Read the article

  • How to display unique success messages on jquery form validation

    - by mastah
    Hi guys, hope you can help me on this one, I'm currently using this: jQuery plugin:validation (Homepage) I've been reading related questions here, but this one is the closest get. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1863448/jquery-validation-on-success from the plugin's documentation http://docs.jquery.com/Plugins/Validation/validate#toption success String, Callback If specified, the error label is displayed to show a valid element. If a String is given, its added as a class to the label. If a Function is given, its called with the label (as a jQuery object) as its only argument. That can be used to add a text like "ok!". Currently I'm only object given to me is the label, and I can only add text to it. Now what I want is to have unique success message. For example: username field will have a success message: 'username okay!' email = 'email seems right' something along those lines, instead of displaying just one generic success message on all the fields. Thanks in advanced :)

    Read the article

  • JQuery validation - how to set the title attribute to the error message

    - by JK
    In JQuery validation the default behavior on an error is to create a label like so: <label for="FirstName" generated="true" class="error">This field is required.</label> Is it possible to change it so that it will output this instead (with a title attribute set to the error message)? <label for="FirstName" generated="true" class="error" title="This field is required.">This field is required.</label> I've tried the highlight method, but the label has not been created yet: $("#form").validate({ highlight: function (element, errorClass) { var label = $("label[for=" + element.id + "]"); // but label doesn't exist yet so this doesnt work if (label && label.length > 0) { // label.length is always 0 label.attr('title', label.text()); } } });

    Read the article

  • jquery validation problems

    - by CoffeeCode
    to custom validate an input i wrote a script: function cardNumberCheck(value, element) { var res = false; $.get("/CaseHistories/ValidateCardNumber", { caseHistoryId: $('#CaseHistory_Id').val(), cardNumber: $('#CaseHistory_CardNumber').val() }, function(data) { res = data }); //alert(res) => works fine return true/false return res; } $.validator.addMethod("cardValidate", cardNumberCheck, "invalid"); if ($('#CaseHistory_CardNumber').is("form *")) { //<= check if elem is in a form $('#CaseHistory_CardNumber').rules("add", { required: true, cardValidate: true, messages: { required: "*", cardValidate: "invalid" } }); } EDIT: the required rule works fine, but my validation method doesn't dispalt the message. and the submit works even if the elements data havent passed the cardNumberCheck validation whats not right here?

    Read the article

  • jQuery validation plugin doens't work for me

    - by Idsa
    I have the following code to enable validation work: $(document).ready(function() { $("#eventForm").validate({ rules: { startDate: "required", startTime: "required", endDate: { required: function (element) { var endTimeValue = $('#endTime').val(); return (endTimeValue != null && endTimeValue != ''); } }, endTime: { required: function (element) { var endDateValue = $('#endDate').val(); return (endDateValue != null && endDateValue != ''); } } }, messages: { startDate: "Please enter event local start date", startTime: "Please enter event local start time" }, errorPlacement: function (error, element) { error.appendTo(element.parent().next()); }, submitHandler: function (form) { var options = { dataType: 'json', success: eventCreationSuccess, error: eventCreationError }; alert('submit'); //$(form).ajaxSubmit(options); } }); }); But validation plugin doesn't catch submit - default submit is executed. jQuery and validation plugin scripts are imported.

    Read the article

  • jquery validation

    - by Chandrasekhar
    I am adding the dynamic text boxes when click the add link. I want to do the remote validation for dynamic text boxes. Please see the code below: <input type="text" name="test" id="test1" /> click on add button var sc ="<td><input type = 'text' name ='test' id ='test"+(textid+1)+"'/></td> document.getElementById("row1-"+textid).innerHTML=sc; Creating the 4 text fields in same way. I am validating this text fields using jQuery like $("#testSearchForm").validate({ rules: { "test": { required:true, remote: "chkvalue.action" } Required validation is working fine but remote method validation is not working. Can anyone make a suggestion?

    Read the article

  • jQuery Validation - Highlighting Radio Labels

    - by Michael
    I'm trying to use jQuery validation to highlight the labels for my radio buttons only, and not the labels for my other inputs. I have a label for my radio button set called 'type'. I can't seem to get it to work! $(document).ready(function(){ $("#healthForm").validate({ highlight: function(element, errorClass) { $(element).addClass(errorClass) $(element.form).find("label[for='type']") .addClass("radioerror"); }, unhighlight: function(element, errorClass) { $(element).removeClass(errorClass) $(element.form).find("label[for='type']") .removeClass("radioerror"); }, errorPlacement: function(error, element) { } }); });

    Read the article

  • submitHandler is an invalid label

    - by Steven
    Below is the code, I get an error which says that submitHandler is an invalid label $(document).ready(function() { $("#withdraw").validate({ rules: { amount: { required: true, number:true, min:0, max:<?php echo $balance; ?> } , bank:{ required:true, }, cardnumber1: { required: true, minlength:8 }, cardnumber2:{ required:true, equalTo: "#cardnumber1" }, holder:{ required:true, } } }), submitHandler: function(form){ var answer = confirm("Do you really want to withdraw this amount of money from your account?") if (answer){ form.submit(); } else{ return false; } } }); How to solve this problem?

    Read the article

  • jquery.validation - how to ignore default values when validating mandatory fields

    - by jack
    I am using jquery validation plugin to validate a registration form. Each text input field has instructions pre-filled as values in the input box ex: for a text-input box id='Name', the default value will be set to 'Enter Your Name'. I have pasted below sample code: <input type="text" id="Name" value="Enter Your Name" onfocus="if(this.value == 'Your Name'){this.value = '';}" type="text" class="required" onblur="if(this.value == ''){this.value='Your Name';}" size="25" /> What I need to know is how to specify in the validation rule such that the plugin throws a required field error if the input box contains either the default message or empty values. Help much appreciated.

    Read the article

  • jquery disable rule validation on a single field

    - by shake
    I am using mvc to create forms that are generated at runtime. For validation, I am trying my hand at the jquery validation library which is very convenient to use. I have the validation expression of each field in the cdata attribute of the tag <input type="text" name="xyz" id="xyz" class="defaultTextBox" cdata="{validate:{required:true, decimal:true, messages: {required:'Please enter an decimal value', decimal:'Please enter a valid decimal'}}}"> This works beautifully. Now one more requirement I have is that some fields are being shown and hidden according to the logic on the page and I need to disable the validation on the hidden fields such that they do not interfere with the form submission. Just toggling the required:true to false and back to true should be enough. Only i do not know how. Anyone has any experience with that?

    Read the article

  • jQuery textbox required validation based on another text box having text

    - by doug
    Pretty basic question, however, I am very new to jQuery and javascript in general. I have a jQuery validation that is requiring a text box to have text in it, if a checkbox is checked. <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function () { $("form").validate( { rules: { Comments: { required: "#IsAbnormal:checked" } }, messages: { Comments: { required: "Comments are required" } }, onkeyup: false, wrapper: "", errorLabelContainer: "#ErrorMessageBox" }); }); Pretty straight forward, if you check the IsAbnormal checkbox, it will throw a validation if there are no comments. What I am trying to do is require a textbox based on if another text box has any text in it, for instance require the old password if a user enters a new password into a textbox. Is there an easy way to get the required: "#NewPassword:NotBlank" to work?

    Read the article

  • Why doesn't jquery validation plugin's remote attribute work for me?

    - by Pandiya Chendur
    I use jquery validation plugin and the remote attribute works with emailId but not with mobileNo? var validator = $("#addform").validate({ rules: { Name: "required", MobileNo: { required: true, minlength: 10, remote: '<%=Url.Action("getClientMobNo", "Clients") %>' }, Address: "required" }, messages: { Name: "please provide a client name", MobileNo: { required: "Please provide a mobile phone no", rangelength: jQuery.format("Enter at least {0} characters"), remote: jQuery.format("This MobileNo is already in use") }, Address: "please provide client address" }, A null value is passed to my controller action.. Any suggestion... public JsonResult getClientMobNo(string mobno) { JsonResult result = new JsonResult(); string status = clirep.getClientMobNo(Convert.ToInt64(mobno)); if (status == "Mobile No already exists") { result.Data = false; } else { result.Data = true; } return result; }

    Read the article

  • Windows Azure Worldwide availability

    - by Insomniac
    Hi, I've been reviewing Windows Azure platform for some time, and can't find answer to one very important question. If I deploy my application within a cloud, how it will be reached from different places worldwide? For example if I have a web application with a database and want it to be accessible to users in UK, US, China and etc. Can I be sure that any user in the world will get almost the same request processing time? I think of it this way. 1. User sends request (navigates in browser to my web site) 2. This request gets in a cloud in a nearest location (closest to user MS Data Center?) 3. It is processed by an instance of my web application (in nearest location, with request to my centralized DB which can be far away but SQL request goes via MS internal network, which I believe should be very fast). 4. Response sent to user. Please let me know if I'm wrong. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • RequestValidation Changes in ASP.NET 4.0

    - by Rick Strahl
    There’s been a change in the way the ValidateRequest attribute on WebForms works in ASP.NET 4.0. I noticed this today while updating a post on my WebLog all of which contain raw HTML and so all pretty much trigger request validation. I recently upgraded this app from ASP.NET 2.0 to 4.0 and it’s now failing to update posts. At first this was difficult to track down because of custom error handling in my app – the custom error handler traps the exception and logs it with only basic error information so the full detail of the error was initially hidden. After some more experimentation in development mode the error that occurs is the typical ASP.NET validate request error (‘A potentially dangerous Request.Form value was detetected…’) which looks like this in ASP.NET 4.0: At first when I got this I was real perplexed as I didn’t read the entire error message and because my page does have: <%@ Page Language="C#" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeBehind="NewEntry.aspx.cs" Inherits="Westwind.WebLog.NewEntry" MasterPageFile="~/App_Templates/Standard/AdminMaster.master" ValidateRequest="false" EnableEventValidation="false" EnableViewState="false" %> WTF? ValidateRequest would seem like it should be enough, but alas in ASP.NET 4.0 apparently that setting alone is no longer enough. Reading the fine print in the error explains that you need to explicitly set the requestValidationMode for the application back to V2.0 in web.config: <httpRuntime executionTimeout="300" requestValidationMode="2.0" /> Kudos for the ASP.NET team for putting up a nice error message that tells me how to fix this problem, but excuse me why the heck would you change this behavior to require an explicit override to an optional and by default disabled page level switch? You’ve just made a relatively simple fix to a solution a nasty morass of hard to discover configuration settings??? The original way this worked was perfectly discoverable via attributes in the page. Now you can set this setting in the page and get completely unexpected behavior and you are required to set what effectively amounts to a backwards compatibility flag in the configuration file. It turns out the real reason for the .config flag is that the request validation behavior has moved from WebForms pipeline down into the entire ASP.NET/IIS request pipeline and is now applied against all requests. Here’s what the breaking changes page from Microsoft says about it: The request validation feature in ASP.NET provides a certain level of default protection against cross-site scripting (XSS) attacks. In previous versions of ASP.NET, request validation was enabled by default. However, it applied only to ASP.NET pages (.aspx files and their class files) and only when those pages were executing. In ASP.NET 4, by default, request validation is enabled for all requests, because it is enabled before the BeginRequest phase of an HTTP request. As a result, request validation applies to requests for all ASP.NET resources, not just .aspx page requests. This includes requests such as Web service calls and custom HTTP handlers. Request validation is also active when custom HTTP modules are reading the contents of an HTTP request. As a result, request validation errors might now occur for requests that previously did not trigger errors. To revert to the behavior of the ASP.NET 2.0 request validation feature, add the following setting in the Web.config file: <httpRuntime requestValidationMode="2.0" /> However, we recommend that you analyze any request validation errors to determine whether existing handlers, modules, or other custom code accesses potentially unsafe HTTP inputs that could be XSS attack vectors. Ok, so ValidateRequest of the form still works as it always has but it’s actually the ASP.NET Event Pipeline, not WebForms that’s throwing the above exception as request validation is applied to every request that hits the pipeline. Creating the runtime override removes the HttpRuntime checking and restores the WebForms only behavior. That fixes my immediate problem but still leaves me wondering especially given the vague wording of the above explanation. One thing that’s missing in the description is above is one important detail: The request validation is applied only to application/x-www-form-urlencoded POST content not to all inbound POST data. When I first read this this freaked me out because it sounds like literally ANY request hitting the pipeline is affected. To make sure this is not really so I created a quick handler: public class Handler1 : IHttpHandler { public void ProcessRequest(HttpContext context) { context.Response.ContentType = "text/plain"; context.Response.Write("Hello World <hr>" + context.Request.Form.ToString()); } public bool IsReusable { get { return false; } } } and called it with Fiddler by posting some XML to the handler using a default form-urlencoded POST content type: and sure enough – hitting the handler also causes the request validation error and 500 server response. Changing the content type to text/xml effectively fixes the problem however, bypassing the request validation filter so Web Services/AJAX handlers and custom modules/handlers that implement custom protocols aren’t affected as long as they work with special input content types. It also looks that multipart encoding does not trigger event validation of the runtime either so this request also works fine: POST http://rasnote/weblog/handler1.ashx HTTP/1.1 Content-Type: multipart/form-data; boundary=------7cf2a327f01ae User-Agent: West Wind Internet Protocols 5.53 Host: rasnote Content-Length: 40 Pragma: no-cache <xml>asdasd</xml>--------7cf2a327f01ae *That* probably should trigger event validation – since it is a potential HTML form submission, but it doesn’t. New Runtime Feature, Global Scope Only? Ok, so request validation is now a runtime feature but sadly it’s a feature that’s scoped to the ASP.NET Runtime – effective scope to the entire running application/app domain. You can still manually force validation using Request.ValidateInput() which gives you the option to do this in code, but that realistically will only work with the requestValidationMode set to V2.0 as well since the 4.0 mode auto-fires before code ever gets a chance to intercept the call. Given all that, the new setting in ASP.NET 4.0 seems to limit options and makes things more difficult and less flexible. Of course Microsoft gets to say ASP.NET is more secure by default because of it but what good is that if you have to turn off this flag the very first time you need to allow one single request that bypasses request validation??? This is really shortsighted design… <sigh>© Rick Strahl, West Wind Technologies, 2005-2010Posted in ASP.NET  

    Read the article

  • Following the Thread in OSB

    - by Antony Reynolds
    Threading in OSB The Scenario I recently led an OSB POC where we needed to get high throughput from an OSB pipeline that had the following logic: 1. Receive Request 2. Send Request to External System 3. If Response has a particular value   3.1 Modify Request   3.2 Resend Request to External System 4. Send Response back to Requestor All looks very straightforward and no nasty wrinkles along the way.  The flow was implemented in OSB as follows (see diagram for more details): Proxy Service to Receive Request and Send Response Request Pipeline   Copies Original Request for use in step 3 Route Node   Sends Request to External System exposed as a Business Service Response Pipeline   Checks Response to Check If Request Needs to Be Resubmitted Modify Request Callout to External System (same Business Service as Route Node) The Proxy and the Business Service were each assigned their own Work Manager, effectively giving each of them their own thread pool. The Surprise Imagine our surprise when, on stressing the system we saw it lock up, with large numbers of blocked threads.  The reason for the lock up is due to some subtleties in the OSB thread model which is the topic of this post.   Basic Thread Model OSB goes to great lengths to avoid holding on to threads.  Lets start by looking at how how OSB deals with a simple request/response routing to a business service in a route node. Most Business Services are implemented by OSB in two parts.  The first part uses the request thread to send the request to the target.  In the diagram this is represented by the thread T1.  After sending the request to the target (the Business Service in our diagram) the request thread is released back to whatever pool it came from.  A multiplexor (muxer) is used to wait for the response.  When the response is received the muxer hands off the response to a new thread that is used to execute the response pipeline, this is represented in the diagram by T2. OSB allows you to assign different Work Managers and hence different thread pools to each Proxy Service and Business Service.  In out example we have the “Proxy Service Work Manager” assigned to the Proxy Service and the “Business Service Work Manager” assigned to the Business Service.  Note that the Business Service Work Manager is only used to assign the thread to process the response, it is never used to process the request. This architecture means that while waiting for a response from a business service there are no threads in use, which makes for better scalability in terms of thread usage. First Wrinkle Note that if the Proxy and the Business Service both use the same Work Manager then there is potential for starvation.  For example: Request Pipeline makes a blocking callout, say to perform a database read. Business Service response tries to allocate a thread from thread pool but all threads are blocked in the database read. New requests arrive and contend with responses arriving for the available threads. Similar problems can occur if the response pipeline blocks for some reason, maybe a database update for example. Solution The solution to this is to make sure that the Proxy and Business Service use different Work Managers so that they do not contend with each other for threads. Do Nothing Route Thread Model So what happens if there is no route node?  In this case OSB just echoes the Request message as a Response message, but what happens to the threads?  OSB still uses a separate thread for the response, but in this case the Work Manager used is the Default Work Manager. So this is really a special case of the Basic Thread Model discussed above, except that the response pipeline will always execute on the Default Work Manager.   Proxy Chaining Thread Model So what happens when the route node is actually calling a Proxy Service rather than a Business Service, does the second Proxy Service use its own Thread or does it re-use the thread of the original Request Pipeline? Well as you can see from the diagram when a route node calls another proxy service then the original Work Manager is used for both request pipelines.  Similarly the response pipeline uses the Work Manager associated with the ultimate Business Service invoked via a Route Node.  This actually fits in with the earlier description I gave about Business Services and by extension Route Nodes they “… uses the request thread to send the request to the target”. Call Out Threading Model So what happens when you make a Service Callout to a Business Service from within a pipeline.  The documentation says that “The pipeline processor will block the thread until the response arrives asynchronously” when using a Service Callout.  What this means is that the target Business Service is called using the pipeline thread but the response is also handled by the pipeline thread.  This implies that the pipeline thread blocks waiting for a response.  It is the handling of this response that behaves in an unexpected way. When a Business Service is called via a Service Callout, the calling thread is suspended after sending the request, but unlike the Route Node case the thread is not released, it waits for the response.  The muxer uses the Business Service Work Manager to allocate a thread to process the response, but in this case processing the response means getting the response and notifying the blocked pipeline thread that the response is available.  The original pipeline thread can then continue to process the response. Second Wrinkle This leads to an unfortunate wrinkle.  If the Business Service is using the same Work Manager as the Pipeline then it is possible for starvation or a deadlock to occur.  The scenario is as follows: Pipeline makes a Callout and the thread is suspended but still allocated Multiple Pipeline instances using the same Work Manager are in this state (common for a system under load) Response comes back but all Work Manager threads are allocated to blocked pipelines. Response cannot be processed and so pipeline threads never unblock – deadlock! Solution The solution to this is to make sure that any Business Services used by a Callout in a pipeline use a different Work Manager to the pipeline itself. The Solution to My Problem Looking back at my original workflow we see that the same Business Service is called twice, once in a Routing Node and once in a Response Pipeline Callout.  This was what was causing my problem because the response pipeline was using the Business Service Work Manager, but the Service Callout wanted to use the same Work Manager to handle the responses and so eventually my Response Pipeline hogged all the available threads so no responses could be processed. The solution was to create a second Business Service pointing to the same location as the original Business Service, the only difference was to assign a different Work Manager to this Business Service.  This ensured that when the Service Callout completed there were always threads available to process the response because the response processing from the Service Callout had its own dedicated Work Manager. Summary Request Pipeline Executes on Proxy Work Manager (WM) Thread so limited by setting of that WM.  If no WM specified then uses WLS default WM. Route Node Request sent using Proxy WM Thread Proxy WM Thread is released before getting response Muxer is used to handle response Muxer hands off response to Business Service (BS) WM Response Pipeline Executes on Routed Business Service WM Thread so limited by setting of that WM.  If no WM specified then uses WLS default WM. No Route Node (Echo functionality) Proxy WM thread released New thread from the default WM used for response pipeline Service Callout Request sent using proxy pipeline thread Proxy thread is suspended (not released) until the response comes back Notification of response handled by BS WM thread so limited by setting of that WM.  If no WM specified then uses WLS default WM. Note this is a very short lived use of the thread After notification by callout BS WM thread that thread is released and execution continues on the original pipeline thread. Route/Callout to Proxy Service Request Pipeline of callee executes on requestor thread Response Pipeline of caller executes on response thread of requested proxy Throttling Request message may be queued if limit reached. Requesting thread is released (route node) or suspended (callout) So what this means is that you may get deadlocks caused by thread starvation if you use the same thread pool for the business service in a route node and the business service in a callout from the response pipeline because the callout will need a notification thread from the same thread pool as the response pipeline.  This was the problem we were having. You get a similar problem if you use the same work manager for the proxy request pipeline and a business service callout from that request pipeline. It also means you may want to have different work managers for the proxy and business service in the route node. Basically you need to think carefully about how threading impacts your proxy services. References Thanks to Jay Kasi, Gerald Nunn and Deb Ayers for helping to explain this to me.  Any errors are my own and not theirs.  Also thanks to my colleagues Milind Pandit and Prasad Bopardikar who travelled this road with me. OSB Thread Model Great Blog Post on Thread Usage in OSB

    Read the article

  • Unauthorized response from Server with API upload

    - by Ethan Shafer
    I'm writing a library in C# to help me develop a Windows application. The library uses the Ubuntu One API. I am able to authenticate and can even make requests to get the Quota (access to Account Admin API) and Volumes (so I know I have access to the Files API at least) Here's what I have as my Upload code: public static void UploadFile(string filename, string filepath) { FileStream file = File.OpenRead(filepath); byte[] bytes = new byte[file.Length]; file.Read(bytes, 0, (int)file.Length); RestClient client = UbuntuOneClients.FilesClient(); RestRequest request = UbuntuOneRequests.BaseRequest(Method.PUT); request.Resource = "/content/~/Ubuntu One/" + filename; request.AddHeader("Content-Length", bytes.Length.ToString()); request.AddParameter("body", bytes, ParameterType.RequestBody); client.ExecuteAsync(request, webResponse => UploadComplete(webResponse)); } Every time I send the request I get an "Unauthorized" response from the server. For now the "/content/~/Ubuntu One/" is hardcoded, but I checked and it is the location of my root volume. Is there anything that I'm missing? UbuntuOneClients.FilesClient() starts the url with "https://files.one.ubuntu.com" UbuntuOneRequests.BaseRequest(Method.{}) is the same requests that I use to send my Quota and Volumes requests, basically just provides all of the parameters needed to authenticate. EDIT:: Here's the BaseRequest() method: public static RestRequest BaseRequest(Method method) { RestRequest request = new RestRequest(method); request.OnBeforeDeserialization = resp => { resp.ContentType = "application/json"; }; request.AddParameter("realm", ""); request.AddParameter("oauth_version", "1.0"); request.AddParameter("oauth_nonce", Guid.NewGuid().ToString()); request.AddParameter("oauth_timestamp", DateTime.Now.ToString()); request.AddParameter("oauth_consumer_key", UbuntuOneRefreshInfo.UbuntuOneInfo.ConsumerKey); request.AddParameter("oauth_token", UbuntuOneRefreshInfo.UbuntuOneInfo.Token); request.AddParameter("oauth_signature_method", "PLAINTEXT"); request.AddParameter("oauth_signature", UbuntuOneRefreshInfo.UbuntuOneInfo.Signature); //request.AddParameter("method", method.ToString()); return request; } and the FilesClient() method: public static RestClient FilesClient() { return (new RestClient("https://files.one.ubuntu.com")); }

    Read the article

  • DNS request timed out. timeout was 2 seconds

    - by sahil007
    i had setup bind dns server on centos. from local lan it will work fine but from remote when i tried to nslookup ..it will give reply like "DNS request timed out...timeout was 2 seconds." what is the problem? this is my bind config---- // Red Hat BIND Configuration Tool options { directory "/var/named"; dump-file "/var/named/data/cache_dump.db"; statistics-file "/var/named/data/named_stats.txt"; query-source address * port 53; }; controls { inet 127.0.0.1 allow {localhost; } keys {rndckey; }; }; acl internals { 127.0.0.0/8; 192.168.0.0/24; 10.0.0.0/8; }; view "internal" { match-clients { internals; }; recursion yes; zone "mydomain.com" { type master; file "mydomain.com.zone"; }; zone "0.168.192.in-addr.arpa" { type master; file "0.168.192.in-addr.arpa.zone"; }; zone "." IN { type hint; file "named.root"; }; zone "localdomain." IN { type master; file "localdomain.zone"; allow-update { none; }; }; zone "localhost." IN { type master; file "localhost.zone"; allow-update { none; }; }; zone "0.0.127.in-addr.arpa." IN { type master; file "named.local"; allow-update { none; }; }; zone "0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0.ip6.arpa." I N { type master; file "named.ip6.local"; allow-update { none; }; }; zone "255.in-addr.arpa." IN { type master; file "named.broadcast"; allow-update { none; }; }; zone "0.in-addr.arpa." IN { type master; file "named.zero"; allow-update { none; }; }; }; view "external" { match-clients { any; }; recursion no; zone "mydomain.com" { type master; file "mydomain.com.zone"; // file "/var/named/chroot/var/named/mydomain.com.zone"; }; zone "0.168.192.in-addr.arpa" { type master; file "0.168.192.in-addr.arpa.zone"; }; }; include "/etc/rndc.key";

    Read the article

  • Only IE Browser gives org.springframework.web.multipart.MultipartException: The current request is not a multipart request

    - by Vicky
    I am trying to upload a file using jquery fileupload.js, spring. Code to upload files works fine for Mozilla and chrome browser. But getting following error *only for IE browser* org.springframework.web.multipart.MultipartException: The current request is not a multipart request. at org.springframework.web.method.annotation.RequestParamMethodArgumentResolver.assertIsMultipartRequest(RequestParamMethodArgumentResolver.java:183) at org.springframework.web.method.annotation.RequestParamMethodArgumentResolver.resolveName(RequestParamMethodArgumentResolver.java:149) at org.springframework.web.method.annotation.AbstractNamedValueMethodArgumentResolver.resolveArgument(AbstractNamedValueMethodArgumentResolver.java:82) at org.springframework.web.method.support.HandlerMethodArgumentResolverComposite.resolveArgument(HandlerMethodArgumentResolverComposite.java:74)

    Read the article

  • Error: 175002 (RA layer request failed)

    - by BlindingDawn
    I get the following error when connecting XCode to a repository on GoogleCode.com Error: 175002 (RA layer request failed) Description: Server sent unexpected return value (405 Method Not Allowed) in response to OPTIONS request for 'http://touchcode.googlecode.com/hg' Has anyone see this before and how do I resolve it?

    Read the article

  • Request time out error

    - by Neo
    Hi Today i came across strange problem whenever i try to pinging to my server works properly but whenever i send http request from browser the request time out happens. can anybody help me to resolve this issue.

    Read the article

  • Validate a string in a table in SQL Server - CLR function or T-SQL

    - by Ashish Gupta
    I need to check If a column value (string) in SQL server table starts with a small letter and can only contain '_', '-', numbers and alphabets. I know I can use a SQL server CLR function for that. However, I am trying to implement that validation using a scalar UDF and could make very little here...I can use 'NOT LIKE', but I am not sure how to make sure I validate the string irrespective of the order of characters or in other words write a pattern in SQL for this. Am I better off using a SQL CLR function? Any help will be appreciated.. Thanks in advance Thank you everyone for their comments. This morning, I chose to go CLR function way. For the purpose of what I was trying to achieve, I created one CLR function which does the validation of an input string and have that called from a SQL UDF and It works well. Just to measure the performance of t-SQL UDF using SQL CLR function vs t- SQL UDF, I created a SQL CLR function which will just check if the input string contains only small letters, it should return true else false and have that called from a UDF (IsLowerCaseCLR). After that I also created a regular t-SQL UDF(IsLowerCaseTSQL) which does the same thing using the 'NOT LIKE'. Then I created a table (Person) with columns Name(varchar) and IsValid(bit) columns and populate that with names to test. Data :- 1000 records with 'Ashish' as value for Name column 1000 records with 'ashish' as value for Name column then I ran the following :- UPDATE Person Set IsValid=1 WHERE dbo.IsLowerCaseTSQL (Name) Above updated 1000 records (with Isvalid=1) and took less than a second. I deleted all the data in the table and repopulated the same with same data. Then updated the same table using Sql CLR UDF (with Isvalid=1) and this took 3 seconds! If update happens for 5000 records, regular UDF takes 0 seconds compared to CLR UDF which takes 16 seconds! I am very less knowledgeable on t-SQL regular expression or I could have tested my actual more complex validation criteria. But I just wanted to know, even I could have written that, would that have been faster than the SQL CLR function considering the example above. Are we using SQL CLR because we can implement we can implement lot richer logic which would have been difficult otherwise If we write in regular SQL. Sorry for this long post. I just want to know from the experts. Please feel free to ask if you could not understand anything here. Thank you again for your time.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41  | Next Page >