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  • SQL Server 2008 Stored Proc suddenly returns -1

    - by aaginor
    I use the following stored procedure from my SQL Server 2008 database to return a value to my C#-Program ALTER PROCEDURE [dbo].[getArticleBelongsToCatsCount] @id int AS BEGIN SET NOCOUNT ON; DECLARE @result int; set @result = (SELECT COUNT(*) FROM art_in_cat WHERE child_id = @id); return @result; END I use a SQLCommand-Object to call this Stored Procedure public int ExecuteNonQuery() { try { return _command.ExecuteNonQuery(); } catch (Exception e) { Logger.instance.ErrorRoutine(e, "Text: " + _command.CommandText); return -1; } } Till recently, everything works fine. All of a sudden, the stored procedure returned -1. At first, I suspected, that the ExecuteNonQuery-Command would have caused and Exception, but when stepping through the function, it shows that no Exception is thrown and the return value comes directly from return _command.ExecuteNonQuery(); I checked following parameters and they were as expected: - Connection object was set to the correct database with correct access values - the parameter for the SP was there and contained the right type, direction and value Then I checked the SP via SQLManager, I used the same value for the parameter like the one for which my C# brings -1 as result (btw. I checked some more parameter values in my C' program and they ALL returned -1) but in the manager, the SP returns the correct value. It looks like the call from my C# prog is somehow bugged, but as I don't get any error (it's just the -1 from the SP), I have no idea, where to look for a solution.

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  • mysql_affected_rows() returns 0 for UPDATE statement even when an update actually happens

    - by Alex Moore
    I am trying to get the number of rows affected in a simple mysql update query. However, when I run this code below, PHP's mysql_affected_rows() always equals 0. No matter if foo=1 already (in which case the function should correctly return 0, since no rows were changed), or if foo currently equals some other integer (in which case the function should return 1). $updateQuery = "UPDATE myTable SET foo=1 WHERE bar=2"; mysql_query($updateQuery); if (mysql_affected_rows() > 0) { echo "affected!"; } else { echo "not affected"; // always prints not affected } The UPDATE statement itself works. The INT gets changed in my database. I have also double-checked that the database connection isn't being closed beforehand or anything funky. Keep in mind, mysql_affected_rows doesn't necessarily require you to pass a connection link identifier, though I've tried that too. Details on the function: mysql_affected_rows Any ideas? SOLUTION The part I didn't mention turned out to be the cause of my woes here. This PHP file was being called ten times consecutively in an AJAX call, though I was only looking at the value returned on the last call, ie. a big fat 0. My apologies!

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  • Microsoft JScript runtime error Object doesn't support this property or method

    - by Darxval
    So i am trying to call this function in my javascript but it gives me the error of "Microsoft JScript runtime error Object doesn't support this property or method" and i cant figure out why. It is occuring when trying to call hmacObj.getHMAC. This is from the jsSHA website: http://jssha.sourceforge.net/ to use the hmac-sha1 algorithm encryption. Thank you! hmacObj = new jsSHA(signature_base_string,"HEX"); signature = hmacObj.getHMAC("hgkghk","HEX","SHA-1","HEX"); Above this i have copied the code from sha.js snippet: function jsSHA(srcString, inputFormat) { /* * Configurable variables. Defaults typically work */ jsSHA.charSize = 8; // Number of Bits Per character (8 for ASCII, 16 for Unicode) jsSHA.b64pad = ""; // base-64 pad character. "=" for strict RFC compliance jsSHA.hexCase = 0; // hex output format. 0 - lowercase; 1 - uppercase var sha1 = null; var sha224 = null; The function it is calling (inside of the jsSHA function) (snippet) this.getHMAC = function (key, inputFormat, variant, outputFormat) { var formatFunc = null; var keyToUse = null; var blockByteSize = null; var blockBitSize = null; var keyWithIPad = []; var keyWithOPad = []; var lastArrayIndex = null; var retVal = null; var keyBinLen = null; var hashBitSize = null; // Validate the output format selection switch (outputFormat) { case "HEX": formatFunc = binb2hex; break; case "B64": formatFunc = binb2b64; break; default: return "FORMAT NOT RECOGNIZED"; }

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  • implement AOP for Controllers in Spring 3

    - by tommy
    How do I implement AOP with an annotated Controller? I've search and found two previous posts regarding the problem, but can't seem to get the solutions to work. posted solution 1 posted solution 2 Here's what I have: Dispatch Servlet: <beans xmlns="http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:p="http://www.springframework.org/schema/p" xmlns:context="http://www.springframework.org/schema/context" xmlns:mvc="http://www.springframework.org/schema/mvc" xmlns:aop="http://www.springframework.org/schema/aop" xsi:schemaLocation=" http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans/spring-beans-3.0.xsd http://www.springframework.org/schema/context http://www.springframework.org/schema/context/spring-context-3.0.xsd http://www.springframework.org/schema/mvc http://www.springframework.org/schema/mvc/spring-mvc-3.0.xsd http://www.springframework.org/schema/aop http://www.springframework.org/schema/aop/spring-aop-3.0.xsd"> <context:annotation-config/> <context:component-scan base-package="com.foo.controller"/> <bean id="fooAspect" class="com.foo.aop.FooAspect" /> <aop:aspectj-autoproxy> <aop:include name="fooAspect" /> </aop:aspectj-autoproxy> </beans> Controller: @Controller public class FooController { @RequestMapping(value="/index.htm", method=RequestMethod.GET) public String showIndex(Model model){ return "index"; } } Aspect: @Aspect public class FooAspect { @Pointcut("@target(org.springframework.stereotype.Controller)") public void controllerPointcutter() {} @Pointcut("execution(* *(..))") public void methodPointcutter() {} @Before("controllerPointcutter()") public void beforeMethodInController(JoinPoint jp){ System.out.println("### before controller call..."); } @AfterReturning("controllerPointcutter() && methodPointcutter() ") public void afterMethodInController(JoinPoin jp) { System.out.println("### after returning..."); } @Before("methodPointcutter()") public void beforeAnyMethod(JoinPoint jp){ System.out.println("### before any call..."); } } The beforeAnyMethod() works for methods NOT in a controller; I cannot get anything to execute on calls to controllers. Am I missing something?

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  • Thread mutex behaviour

    - by Alberteddu
    Hi there, I'm learning C. I'm writing an application with multiple threads; I know that when a variable is shared between two or more threads, it is better to lock/unlock using a mutex to avoid deadlock and inconsistency of variables. This is very clear when I want to change or view one variable. int i = 0; /** Global */ static pthread_mutex_t mutex = PTHREAD_MUTEX_INITIALIZER; /** Thread 1. */ pthread_mutex_lock(&mutex); i++; pthread_mutex_unlock(&mutex); /** Thread 2. */ pthread_mutex_lock(&mutex); i++; pthread_mutex_unlock(&mutex); This is correct, I think. The variable i, at the end of the executions, contains the integer 2. Anyway, there are some situations in which I don't know exactly where to put the two function calls. For example, suppose you have a function obtain(), which returns a global variable. I need to call that function from within the two threads. I have also two other threads that call the function set(), defined with a few arguments; this function will set the same global variable. The two functions are necessary when you need to do something before getting/setting the var. /** (0) */ /** Thread 1, or 2, or 3... */ if(obtain() == something) { if(obtain() == somethingElse) { // Do this, sometimes obtain() and sometimes set(random number) (1) } else { // Do that, just obtain(). (2) } } else { // Do this and do that (3) // If # of thread * 3 > 10, then set(3*10) For example. (4) } /** (5) */ Where I have to lock, and where I have to unlock? The situation can be, I think, even more complex. I will appreciate an exhaustive answer. Thank you in advance. —Alberto

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  • what use does the javascript for each method have (that map can't do)?

    - by JohnMerlino
    Hey all, The only difference I see in map and foreach is that map is returning an array and foreach is not. However, I don't even understand the last line of the foreach method "func.call(scope, this[i], i, this);". For example, isn't "this" and "scope" referring to same object and isn't this[i] and i referring to the current value in the loop? I noticed on another post someone said "Use forEach when you want to do something on the basis of each element of the list. You might be adding things to the page, for example. Essentially, it's great for when you want "side effects". I don't know what is meant by side effects. Array.prototype.map = function(fnc) { var a = new Array(this.length); for (var i = 0; i < this.length; i++) { a[i] = fnc(this[i]); } return a; } Array.prototype.forEach = function(func, scope) { scope = scope || this; for (var i = 0, l = this.length; i < l; i++) func.call(scope, this[i], i, this); } Finally, are there any real uses for these methods in javascript (since we aren't updating a database) other than to manipulate numbers like this: alert([1,2,3,4].map(function(x){ return x + 1})); //this is the only example I ever see of map in javascript. Thanks for any reply.

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  • tk: how to invoke it just to display something, and return to the main program?

    - by max
    Sorry for the noob question but I really don't understand this. I'm using python / tkinter and I want to display something (say, a canvas with a few shapes on it), and keep it displayed until the program quits. I understand that no widgets would be displayed until I call tkinter.tk.mainloop(). However, if I call tkinter.tk.mainloop(), I won't be able to do anything else until the user closes the main window. I don't need to monitor any user input events, just display some stuff. What's a good way to do this without giving up control to mainloop? EDIT: Is this sample code reasonable: class App(tk.Tk): def __init__(self, sim): self.sim = sim # link to the simulation instance self.loop() def loop(): self.redraw() # update all the GUI to reflect new simulation state sim.next_step() # advance simulation another step self.after(0, self.loop) def redraw(): # get whatever we need from self.sim, and put it on the screen EDIT2 (added after_idle): class App(tk.Tk): def __init__(self, sim): self.sim = sim # link to the simulation instance self.after_idle(self.preloop) def preloop(): self.after(0, self.loop) def loop(): self.redraw() # update all the GUI to reflect new simulation state sim.next_step() # advance simulation another step self.after_idle(self.preloop) def redraw(): # get whatever we need from self.sim, and put it on the screen

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  • Why is my JavaScript function "a" not defined?

    - by 4l3x
    When I call my JavaScript function B, the javascript console in firefox said that function A is not defined, but on chrome browser if defined. And when I call function "A" in body segment: <input type="button" onclick="A()" value=" ..A.. "> , firefox said that function B is not defined? :S <html> <head> <script language="javascript" type="text/javascript"> function B(){ alert(" hi B "); document.write('<br><br><input type="button" onClick="A()" value=" ..A..">'); }; function A(){ alert(" hi A"); document.write('<br><br><input type="button" onclick="B()" value=" ..b..">'); if (window.WebCL == undefined) { alert("Unfortunately your system does not support WebCL. "); return false; } } </script> </head> <body> <input type="button" onclick="B()" value=" ..B.. "> </body> </html>

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  • How to get an embedded function to run multiple times

    - by Guy Montag
    The question I have is how to I get multiple instances of a function to run. Here is my function below - A simple fade function. Problem I'm having is that when it is called a second time it abandons the first call. So if a user clicks on a button it will display a message which fades. If the user clicks on another button the previous fading message just stops at the current opacity level. Try it here - www.arcmarks.com ( please do not repost this domain name) click on SignUp and than quickly click on SignIn with out typing anything. You will see the previous message simply halts. ? What is the stopping mechanism? Where did the previous function go? The function function newEffects(element, direction, max_time ) { newEffects.arrayHold = []; newEffects.arrayHold[element.id] = 0; function next() { newEffects.arrayHold[element.id] += 10; if ( direction === 'up' ) { element.style.opacity = newEffects.arrayHold[element.id] / max_time; } else if ( direction === 'down' ) { element.style.opacity = ( max_time - newEffects.arrayHold[element.id] ) / max_time; } if ( newEffects.arrayHold[element.id] <= max_time ) { setTimeout( next, 10 ); } } next(); return true; }; The Call newEffects(this.element, 'down', 4000 );

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  • Turn image in google maps V3?

    - by Ilrodri
    Hi, I need help with JavaScript in google map v3 I have an image and I need to be able to turn it. That works, but the real problem it's that I cant afect an marker cause I don't know how to call it and modify this marker. I show you a part of the code: Marker: sURL = 'http://www.sl2o.com/tc/picture/Fleche.PNG'; iWidth = 97; iHeight = 100; mImage = new google.maps.MarkerImage(sURL, new google.maps.Size(iWidth,iHeight), new google.maps.Point(0,0), new google.maps.Point(Math.round(iWidth/2),Math.round(iHeight/2))); var oMarker = new google.maps.Marker({ 'position': new google.maps.LatLng(iStartLat,iStartLon), 'map': map, 'title': 'mon point', 'icon': mImage }); Then I have this : onload=function(){ rotate.call(document.getElementById('im'),50); } </script> <img id="im" src="http://www.sl2o.com/tc/picture/Fleche.PNG" width="97" height="100" /> So here is it. As you can see, I'm afecting this image and I in fact I need to afect the marker. How can I do it ? Please I need this I'been working in it since hours and hours. Thank you !!

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  • How to catch unintentional function interpositioning?

    - by SiegeX
    Reading through my book Expert C Programming, I came across the chapter on function interpositioning and how it can lead to some serious hard to find bugs if done unintentionally. The example given in the book is the following: my_source.c mktemp() { ... } main() { mktemp(); getwd(); } libc mktemp(){ ... } getwd(){ ...; mktemp(); ... } According to the book, what happens in main() is that mktemp() (a standard C library function) is interposed by the implementation in my_source.c. Although having main() call my implementation of mktemp() is intended behavior, having getwd() (another C library function) also call my implementation of mktemp() is not. Apparently, this example was a real life bug that existed in SunOS 4.0.3's version of lpr. The book goes on to explain the fix was to add the keyword static to the definition of mktemp() in my_source.c; although changing the name altogether should have fixed this problem as well. This chapter leaves me with some unresolved questions that I hope you guys could answer: Does GCC have a way to warn about function interposition? We certainly don't ever intend on this happening and I'd like to know about it if it does. Should our software group adopt the practice of putting the keyword static in front of all functions that we don't want to be exposed? Can interposition happen with functions introduced by static libraries? Thanks for the help. EDIT I should note that my question is not just aimed at interposing over standard C library functions, but also functions contained in other libraries, perhaps 3rd party, perhaps ones created in-house. Essentially, I want to catch any instance of interpositioning regardless of where the interposed function resides.

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  • How to protect and hidden form HTML/PHP with JS callback to AS3

    - by Jk_
    Hi guys, I'm developing a Flash website (as3) where I need to be able to upload directly to YouTube by using the DATA API. However in order to do so, I had to use a proper HTML form on top of my flash object. Why? Because of the Browser Based Upload restictions. I first hide the form using JQuery and with a little CSS the form is display just where I want it. Within flash I use ExternalInterface.call() to show/hide the form when I need it! ExternalInterface.call("YTUploader.showIt"); The upload process is working great my only problem is that the form can be displayed easily... You just need a tool like firebug and you can use the form wherever you want on my flash app. So I was wandering which will be the best way to 'protect' this form or the best way to limit its access. Any advices will be appreciated. Thanks for your time. Jk.

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  • Why does this simple MySQL procedure take way too long to complete?

    - by Howard Guo
    This is a very simple MySQL stored procedure. Cursor "commission" has only 3000 records, but the procedure call takes more than 30 seconds to run. Why is that? DELIMITER // DROP PROCEDURE IF EXISTS apply_credit// CREATE PROCEDURE apply_credit() BEGIN DECLARE done tinyint DEFAULT 0; DECLARE _pk_id INT; DECLARE _eid, _source VARCHAR(255); DECLARE _lh_revenue, _acc_revenue, _project_carrier_expense, _carrier_lh, _carrier_acc, _gross_margin, _fsc_revenue, _revenue, _load_count DECIMAL; DECLARE commission CURSOR FOR SELECT pk_id, eid, source, lh_revenue, acc_revenue, project_carrier_expense, carrier_lh, carrier_acc, gross_margin, fsc_revenue, revenue, load_count FROM ct_sales_commission; DECLARE CONTINUE HANDLER FOR NOT FOUND SET done = 1; DELETE FROM debug; OPEN commission; REPEAT FETCH commission INTO _pk_id, _eid, _source, _lh_revenue, _acc_revenue, _project_carrier_expense, _carrier_lh, _carrier_acc, _gross_margin, _fsc_revenue, _revenue, _load_count; INSERT INTO debug VALUES(concat('row ', _pk_id)); UNTIL done = 1 END REPEAT; CLOSE commission; END// DELIMITER ; CALL apply_credit(); SELECT * FROM debug;

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  • Run Reporting Service in local mode and generate columns automatically?

    - by grady
    Hi, I have a SQL query right now which I want to use with the MS reporting services in my ASP.NET application. So I created a report in local mode (rdlc) and attached this to a report viewer. Since my query uses parameters, I created a stored procedure, which had exactly those parameters. In addition to that I had some textboxes which are used for entering the params for the query and a button to call the stored proc and to fill the datatset which is bound to the report viewer. This works, I press the button and according to what I entred the correct data is shown. Now my question: In the future I plan to have multiple reports (which will be selected in a dropdown) and I wonder if I can somehow just call the correct stored procedure and according to the columns which are *SELECT*ed in the procedure, the columns are shown in the report. Example: I select report1 from the dropdown (procedure for report 1 is called), 5 columns are shown in the reportviewer. I select report2 from dropdown (procedure for report 2 is called), 8 columns are shown. Is that possible somehow? Thanks :-)

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  • Will this cause a problem with different runtimes with DLL?

    - by Milo
    My gui application supports polymorphic timed events so that means that the user calls new, and the gui calls delete. This can create a problem if the runtimes are incompatible. So I was told a proposed solution would be this: class base; class Deallocator { void operator()(base* ptr) { delete ptr; } } class base { public: base(Deallocator dealloc) { m_deleteFunc = dealloc; } ~base() { m_deleteFunc(this); } private: Deallocator m_deleteFunc; } int main { Deallocator deletefunc; base baseObj(deletefunc); } While this is a good solution, it does demand that the user create a Deallocator object which I do not want. I was however wondering if I provided a Deallocator to each derived class: eg class derived : public base { Deallocator dealloc; public: Derived() : base(dealloc); { } }; I think this still does not work though. The constraint is that: The addTimedEvent() function is part of the Widget class which is also in the dll, but it is instanced by the user. The other constraint is that some classes which derive from Widget call this function with their own timed event classes. Given that "he who called new must call delete" what could work given these constraints? Thanks

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  • callback on a variable which is inside a .each() loop

    - by Stoic
    I have this function, which is doing an asynchronous call to FB.api method. Now, i am looping over some data and capturing result of the above method call successfully. However, I am using a .each loop and I really can not figure out how to place my callback in this method, so that the outer method is only executed once. Here are the functions I am using: ask_for_perms($(this).val(),function(result) { $('#some-div').html('<a onclick = "get_perms(result);" >get perms</a>'); }); function ask_for_perms(perms_requested,cb) { var request = []; $.each(perms_requested,function(i,permission) { FB.api({ method: 'users.hasAppPermission', ext_perm: permission }, function(response) { if (response == 0) request.push(permission); request.join(','); cb(request); // cb is called many times here. }); }); } I am trying to return the request string from ask_for_perms function. Can anyone suggest me on where to place a proper callback to ask_for_perms. Right now, however, it works for me, but the callback is being called many times since it is inside a for loop. referencing: returning a variable from the callback of a function

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  • Pass object from JSON into MVC Controller - its always null ?

    - by SteveCl
    Hi I have seen a few questions on here related to the a similar issue, I have read them, followed them, but still i have the same problem. I am basically creating an object in javascript and trying to call a method on the controller that will return a string of html. Not JSON. I've been playing around with dataType and contentType but still no joy. So apologies if the code snippets are a bit messy. Build the object in JS. function GetCardModel() { var card = {}; card.CardTitle = $("#CardTitle").val(); card.TopicTitle = $("#TopicTitle").val(); card.TopicBody = $("#TopicBody").data("tEditor").value(); card.CardClose = $("#CardClose").val(); card.CardFromName = $("#CardFromName").val(); return card; } Take a look at the object - all looks good and as it should in JSON. var model = GetCardModel(); alert(JSON.stringify(GetCardModel())); Make the call... $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "/Postcard/Create/Preview/", dataType: "json", //contentType: "application/json", date: GetCardModel(), processData: true, success: function (data) { alert("im back"); alert(data); }, error: function (xhr, ajaxOptions, error) { alert(xhr.status); alert("Error: " + xhr.responseText); //alert(error); } }); Always when I step into the controller, the object is ALWAYS there, but with null values for all the properties.

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  • Internal Java code best practice for dealing with invalid REST API parameters

    - by user326389
    My colleague wrote the following stackoverflow question: other stack overflow question on this topic The question seems to have been misinterpreted and I want to find out the answer, so I'm starting this new question... hopefully a little more clear. Basically, we have a REST API. Users of our API call our methods with parameters. But sometimes users call them with the wrong parameters!! Maybe a mistake in their code, maybe they're just trying to play with us, maybe they're trying to see how we respond, who knows! We respond with HTTP status error codes and maybe a detailed description of the invalid parameter in the XML response. All is well. But internally we deal with these invalid parameters by throwing exceptions. For example, if someone looks up a Person object by giving us their profile id, but the profile id doesn't exist... we throw a PersonInvalidException when looking them up. Then we catch this exception in our API controller and send back an HTTP 400 status error code. Our question is... is this the best practice, throwing exceptions internally for this kind of user error? These exceptions never get propogated back to the user, this is a REST API. They only make our code cleaner. Otherwise we could have a validation method in each of our API controllers to make sure the parameters all make sense, but that seems inefficient. We have to look up things in our database potentially twice. Or we could return nulls and check for them, but that sucks... What are your thoughts?

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  • Catching the return of main function before it deallocates resources

    - by EpsilonVector
    I'm trying to implement user threads in Linux kernel 2.4, and I ran into something problematic and unexpected. Background: a thread basically executes a single function and dies, except that when I call thread_create for the first time it must turn main() into a thread as well (by default it is not a thread until the first call, which is also when all the related data structures are allocated). Since a thread executes a function and dies, we don't need to "return" anywhere with it, but we do need to save the return value to be reclaimed later with thread_join, so the hack I came up with was: when I allocate the thread stack I place a return address that points to a thread_return_handler function, which deallocates the thread, makes it a zombie, and saves its return value for later. This works for "just run a function and die" threads, but is very problematic with the main thread. Since it actually is the main function, if it returns before the other threads finish the normal return mechanism kicks in, and deallocates all the shared resources, thus screwing up all the running threads. I need to keep it from doing that. Any ideas on how it can be done?

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  • tcp/ip accept not returning, but client does

    - by paquetp
    server: vxworks 6.3 calls the usual socket, bind, listen, then: for (;;) { client = accept(sfd,NULL,NULL); // pass client to worker thread } client: .NET 2.0 TcpClient constructor to connect to server that takes the string hostname and int port, like: TcpClient client = new TcpClient(server_ip, port); This is working fine when the server is compiled and executed in windows (native c++). intermittently, the constructor to TcpClient will return the instance, without throwing any exception, but the accept call in vxWorks does not return with the client fd. tcpstatShow indicates no accept occurred. What could possibly make the TcpClient constructor (which calls 'Connect') return the instance, while the accept call on the server not return? It seems to be related to what the system is doing in the background - it seems more likely to get this symptom to occur when the server is busy persisting data to flash or an NFS share when the client attempts to connect, but can happen when it isn't also. I've tried adjusting priority of the thread running accept I've looked at the size of the queue in 'listen'. There's enough. The total number of file descriptors available should be enough (haven't validated this yet though, first thing in the morning)

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  • wxPython: MainLoop() seems to hang

    - by BandGap
    Hi all, my problem stems from the use of wxApp as far as I can tell. Inside a litte subroutine I call a wx.MessageDialog to ask for a yes or no. I retrieve the answer an process some stuff acordingly. My example code below actually works (though it might be ugly) except that the Dialog box stays open after hitting one of the buttons... import wx from os import path def HasFile(filename): if path.isfile(filename ): app = wx.App() dial = wx.MessageDialog(None, 'Die Datei "'+filename+'" wurde gefunden.\nSoll sie eingelesen werden?', 'Bitte antworten', wx.YES_NO | wx.YES_DEFAULT | wx.ICON_QUESTION) result = dial.ShowModal() dial.EndModal(retCode=0) dial.Destroy() app.MainLoop() return result == wx.ID_YES else: return False So while the rest of the program does whatever is expected, the box just sits there. It also seems like my calls to matplotlib later on are producing errors (a Tkinter error to be precise), maybe because of the wx stuff? Edit: I tried to end the app with a call to app.Destroy(). This doesn't change the fact that the box is still there. When I issue a app.IsActive() afterwards the whole program exits (almost like a sys.exit())! How come? Edit 2: Adding a wxApp like this isn't a good idea since the other scripts get affected as well. Subsequent plotting commands don't get displayed and I don't know how to fix this. Thus I decided to remove the DialogBox alltogether.

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  • Updating table row by given id with jQuery

    - by fabrik
    Hello all! I need to update a specific table row (via tr id="unique_key") after a successful AJAX call. HTML fragment: <a name=\"p{$product_id}\" class=\"tr{$product_id}\"></a> <tr id="p{product_id}" class="item-row"> <td><h3>{product_id}</h3><a rel="facebox" href="ajax_url">{product_name}</a></td> <td>{image_information}</td> <td>{image_sortiment}</td> <td>{product_status}</td> </tr> Javascript: // AJAX Call success: function(msg){ $('#p' + prod_id).remove(); $('.tr' + prod_id).after(msg); $('#p' + prod_id + ' a[rel*=facebox]').facebox(); } ... What happens: The table row removed Anchors grouped into one single row (not before their <tr>'s) so my 'hook' disappears AJAX result inserted over the whole table (after my 'hook' but still a wrong place) What's wrong with my idea? How can i force jQuery to 'overwrite' the required table row?

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  • novice needing help on shuffeling an array

    - by steffen Myklebust
    Please help a TOTAL beginner.! I found this post: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/56648/whats-the-best-way-to-shuffle-an-nsmutablearray And as i try to deploy this in my own code, I cant get it working... :-( Can anyone help me to resolve this code? To me it looks like the shuffle function is not called..? here is my code: // // shuffle2ViewController.h // shuffle2 #import @interface shuffle2ViewController : UIViewController { NSMutableArray *puzzles; int *randomSort; } - (void)shuffle; @end //============================= // shuffle2ViewController.m ´#import "shuffle2ViewController.h" @implementation shuffle2ViewController (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; NSMutableArray *puzzles = [NSMutableArray arrayWithObjects:@"1",@"2",@"3", @"4",@"5",@"6",@"7",@"8",@"9", @"10",@"11",@"12", nil]; // Call the shuffle function [self shuffle]; // print to log int i; NSLog(@"NEW OLD"); NSLog(@"================="); for (i = 0; i < 12; ++i) NSLog(@" %2i %@", i + 1, [puzzles objectAtIndex:i]); } int randomSort(id obj1, id obj2, void *context ) { // returns random number -1 0 1 return (random()%3 - 1); } (void)shuffle { // call custom sort function [puzzles sortUsingFunction:randomSort context:nil]; } Giving this result: NEW OLD ================= 1 1 2 2 3 3 4 4 5 5 6 6 7 7 8 8 9 9 10 10 11 11 12 12

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  • Domain validates but won't save

    - by marko
    I have the following setup. Class, say, Car that has a CarPart (belongsTo=[car:Car]). When I'm creating a Car I also want to create som default CarParts, so I do def car = new Car(bla bla bla) def part = new CarPart(car:car) Now, when I do car.validate() or part.validate() it seems fine. But when I do if(car.save && part.save() I get this exception: 2012-03-24 14:02:21,943 [http-8080-4] ERROR util.JDBCExceptionReporter - Batch entry 0 insert into car_part (version, car_id, id) values ('0', '297', '298') was aborted. Call getNextException to see the cause. 2012-03-24 14:02:21,943 [http-8080-4] ERROR util.JDBCExceptionReporter - ERROR: value too long for type character varying(6) 2012-03-24 14:02:21,943 [http-8080-4] ERROR events.PatchedDefaultFlushEventListener - Could not synchronize database state with session org.hibernate.exception.DataException: Could not execute JDBC batch update Stacktrace follows: java.sql.BatchUpdateException: Batch entry 0 insert into car_part (version, deal_id, id) values ('0', '297', '298') was aborted. Call getNextException to see the cause. at org.postgresql.jdbc2.AbstractJdbc2Statement$BatchResultHandler.handleError(AbstractJdbc2Statement.java:2621) at org.postgresql.core.v3.QueryExecutorImpl.processResults(QueryExecutorImpl.java:1837) at org.postgresql.core.v3.QueryExecutorImpl.execute(QueryExecutorImpl.java:407) at org.postgresql.jdbc2.AbstractJdbc2Statement.executeBatch(AbstractJdbc2Statement.java:2754) at $Proxy20.flush(Unknown Source) at ristretto.DealController$_closure5.doCall(DealController.groovy:109) at ristretto.DealController$_closure5.doCall(DealController.groovy) at java.lang.Thread.run(Thread.java:722) Any ideas?

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  • WCF: get generic type object (e.g. MyObject<T>) from remote machine

    - by Aaron
    I have two applications that are communicating through WCF. On the server the following object exists: public class MyObject<T> { ... public Entry<T> GetValue() } Where Entry<T> is another object with T Data as a public property. T could be any number of types (string, double, etc) On the client I have ClientObject<T> that needs to get the value of Data from the server (same type). Since I'm using WCF, I have to define my ServiceContract as an interface, and I can't have ClientObject<T> call Entry<T> GetMyObjectValue (string Name) which calls GetValue on the correct MyObject<T> because my interface isn't aware of the type information. I've tried implementing separate GetValue functions (GetMyObjectValueDouble, GetMyObjectValueString) in the interface and then have ClientObject determine the correct one to call. However, Entry<T> val = (Entry<T>)GetMyObjectValueDouble(...); doesn't work because it's not sure about the type information. How can I go about getting a generic object over WCF with the correct type information? Let me know if there are other details I can provide. Thanks!

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