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• Setting Nullable Integer to String Containing Nothing yields 0

  - by Brian MacKay

  I've been pulling my hair out over some unexpected behavior from nullable integers. If I set an Integer to Nothing, it becomes Nothing as expected. If I set an Integer? to a String that is Nothing, it becomes 0! Of course I get this whether I explicitly cast the String to Integer? or not. I realize I could work around this pretty easily but I want to know what I'm missing. Dim NullString As String = Nothing Dim NullableInt As Integer? = CType(NullString, Integer?) 'Expected NullableInt to be Nothing, but it's 0! NullableInt = Nothing 'This works -- NullableInt now contains Nothing. How is this EDIT: Previously I had my code up here so without the explicit conversion to 'Integer?' and everyone seemed to be fixated on that. I want to be clear that this is not an issue that would have been caught by Option Strict On -- check out the accepted answer. This is a quirk of the string-to-integer conversion rules which predate nullable types, but still impact them.

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• in Rails, with check_box_tag, how do I keep the checkboxes checked after submitting query?

  - by Sebastien Paquet

  Ok, I know this is for the Saas course and people have been asking questions related to that as well but i've spent a lot of time trying and reading and I'm stuck. First of all, When you have a model called Movie, is it better to use Ratings as a model and associate them or just keep Ratings in an array floating in space(!). Second, here's what I have now in my controller: def index @movies = Movie.where(params[:ratings].present? ? {:rating => (params[:ratings].keys)} : {}).order(params[:sort]) @sort = params[:sort] @ratings = Ratings.all end Now, I decided to create a Ratings model since I thought It would be better. Here's my view: = form_tag movies_path, :method => :get do Include: - @ratings.each do |rating| = rating.rating = check_box_tag "ratings[#{rating.rating}]" = submit_tag "Refresh" I tried everything that is related to using a conditional ternary inside the checkbox tag ending with " .include?(rating) ? true : "" I tried everything that's supposed to work but it doesn't. I don't want the exact answer, I just need guidance.Thanks in advance!

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• SQL: How to Return One DB Row from Two That Have The Same Values In Opposite Columns Using the MAX F

  - by OneSource

  Hi, This is what I'm trying to do. I have three columns in a table - ID, Column1, Column2 - with this example data: ID Column1 Column2 1     1            2 2     2            1 3     4            3 4     3            4 Since, in the first two rows, Column1 and Column2 have the same values (but in different columns), I want my MAX query to return an ID of 2. Same thing with rows 3 and 4 .... since Columns 1 and 2 have the same values (but in different columns), I want MAX(ID) to return 4. Of course, with MAX, you use Group By, but that will not work in my case. In effect, I need a Group By to work across two columns. Is this possible? If not, what's the best way to accomplish getting the IDs of 2 and 4 given the matching values that are in different columns? Thanks!

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• ASP.NET server data persistence

  - by Wayne Werner

  Hi, I'm not really sure exactly how the question should be phrased, so please be patient if I ask the wrong thing. I'm writing an ASP.NET application using VB as the code behind language. I have a data access class that connects to the DB to run the query (parameterized, of course), and another class to perform the validation tasks - I access this class from my aspx page. What I would like is to be able to store the data server side and wait for the user to choose from a few options based on the validity of the data. But unless my understanding is completely off, having persistent data objects on the server will give problems when multiple users connect? My ultimate goal is that once the data has been validated the end user can't modify it. Currently I'm validating the data, but I still have to retrieve it from the web form AFTER the user says OK, which obviously leaves open the possibility of injecting bad data either accidentally (unlikely) or on purpose (also unlikely for the use, but I'd prefer not to take the chance). So am I completely off in my understanding? If so, can someone point me to a resource that provides some instructions on keeping persistent data on the server, or provide instruction? Thanks!

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• Is there a term for this concept, and does it exist in a static-typed language?

  - by Strilanc

  Recently I started noticing a repetition in some of my code. Of course, once you notice a repetition, it becomes grating. Which is why I'm asking this question. The idea is this: sometimes you write different versions of the same class: a raw version, a locked version, a read-only facade version, etc. These are common things to do to a class, but the translations are highly mechanical. Surround all the methods with lock acquires/releases, etc. In a dynamic language, you could write a function which did this to an instance of a class (eg. iterate over all the functions, replacing them with a version which acquires/releases a lock.). I think a good term for what I mean is 'reflected class'. You create a transformation which takes a class, and returns a modified-in-a-desired-way class. Synchronization is the easiest case, but there are others: make a class immutable [wrap methods so they clone, mutate the clone, and include it in the result], make a class readonly [assuming you can identify mutating methods], make a class appear to work with type A instead of type B, etc. The important part is that, in theory, these transformations make sense at compile-time. Even though an ActorModel<T> has methods which change depending on T, they depend on T in a specific way knowable at compile-time (ActorModel<T> methods would return a future of the original result type). I'm just wondering if this has been implemented in a language, and what it's called.

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• Best practices for encrypting continuous/small UDP data

  - by temp

  Hello everyone, I am having an application where I have to send several small data per second through the network using UDP. The application need to send the data in real-time (no waiting). I want to encrypt these data and insure that what I am doing is as secure as possible. Since I am using UDP, there is no way to use SSL/TLS, so I have to encrypt each packet alone since the protocol is connectionless/unreliable/unregulated. Right now, I am using a 128-bit key derived from a passphrase from the user, and AES in CBC mode (PBE using AES-CBC). I decided to use a random salt with the passphrase to derive the 128-bit key (prevent dictionary attack on the passphrase), and of course use IVs (to prevent statistical analysis for packets). However I am concerned about few things: Each packet contains small amount of data (like a couple of integer values per packet) which will make the encrypted packets vulnerable to known-plaintext attacks (which will result in making it easier to crack the key). Also, since the encryption key is derived from a passphrase, this will make the key space way less (I know the salt will help, but I have to send the salt through the network once and anyone can get it). Given these two things, anyone can sniff and store the sent data, and try to crack the key. Although this process might take some time, once the key is cracked all the stored data will be decrypted, which will be a real problem for my application. So my question is, what is the best practices for sending/encrypting continuous small data using a connectionless protocol (UDP)? Is my way the best way to do it? ...flowed? ...Overkill? ... Please note that I am not asking for a 100% secure solution, as there is no such thing. Cheers

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• Why doesn't the Java Collections API include a Graph implementation?

  - by dvanaria

  I’m currently learning the Java Collections API and feel I have a good understanding of the basics, but I’ve never understood why this standard API doesn’t include a Graph implementation. The three base classes are easily understandable (List, Set, and Map) and all their implementations in the API are mostly straightforward and consistent. Considering how often graphs come up as a potential way to model a given problem, this just doesn’t make sense to me (it’s possible it does exist in the API and I’m not looking in the right place of course). Steve Yegge suggests in one of his blog posts that a programmer should consider graphs first when attacking a problem, and if the problem domain doesn’t fit naturally into this data structure, only then consider the alternative structures. My first guess is that there is no universal way to represent graphs, or that their interfaces may not be generic enough for an API implementation to be useful? But if you strip down a graph to its basic components (vertices and a set of edges that connect some or all of the vertices) and consider the ways that graphs are commonly constructed (methods like addVertex(v) and insertEdge(v1, v2)) it seems that a generic Graph implementation would be possible and useful. Thanks for helping me understand this better.

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• What is the correct stage to use for Google Guice in production in an application server?

  - by Yishai

  It seems like a strange question (the obvious answer would Production, duh), but if you read the java docs: /** * We want fast startup times at the expense of runtime performance and some up front error * checking. */ DEVELOPMENT, /** * We want to catch errors as early as possible and take performance hits up front. */ PRODUCTION Assuming a scenario where you have a stateless call to an application server, the initial receiving method (or there abouts) creates the injector new every call. If there all of the module bindings are not needed in a given call, then it would seem to have been better to use the Development stage (which is the default) and not take the performance hit upfront, because you may never take it at all, and here the distinction between "upfront" and "runtime performance" is kind of moot, as it is one call. Of course the downside of this would appear to be that you would lose the error checking, causing potential code paths to cause a problem by surprise. So the question boils down to are the assumptions in the above correct? Will you save performance on a large set of modules when the given lifetime of an injector is one call?

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• ZeroMQ REQ/REP on ipc:// and concurrency

  - by Metiu

  I implemented a JSON-RPC server using a REQ/REP 0MQ ipc:// socket and I'm experiencing strange behavior which I suspect is due to the fact that the ipc:// underlying unix socket is not a real socket, but rather a single pipe. From the documentation, one has to enforce strict zmq_send()/zmq_recv() alternation, otherwise the out-of-order zmq_send() will return an error. However, I expected the enforcement to be per-client, not per-socket. Of course with a Unix socket there is just one pipeline from multiple clients to the server, so the server won't know who it is talking with. Two clients could zmq_send() simultaneously and the server would see this as an alternation violation. The sequence could be: ClientA: zmq_send() ClientB: zmq_send() : will it block until the other send/receive completes? will it return -1? (I suspect it will with ipc:// due to inherent low-level problems, but with TCP it could distinguish the two clients) ClientA: zmq_recv() ClientB: zmq_recv() so what about tcp:// sockets? Will it work concurrently? Should I use some other locking mechanism to work around this?

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• Populating a Datagrid with variable number of columns and rows in Flex

  - by Rie Mino

  I am trying to figure out how to manage a Datagrid based on an XML object like this: <matrix rows="5" columns="5"> <column> <row>0.5</row> <row>0.21</row> </column> <column> <row>0.6</row> <row>0.9</row> </column> <column> <row>0.5</row> <row>0.5</row> </column> <column> <row>0.8</row> <row>0.4</row> </column> </matrix> I will need to populate the Datagrid column names based on a different XML object and use the above XML to populate each of the column's rows. I currently am able to create the Datagrid and populate its column headers but I am unsure as to how to how to add the rows for each column. The above XML will be update with new row and column elements added and deleted. This, of course, will be bound to the Datagrid to show updates. Thanks in advanced for your help.

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• Php - divide time period into equal intervals

  - by experc

  Hi! I am working on my php course project and for the past few days I have stucked at the point where I have to create php function which gets 5 parameters which represents information about the working time of some department - when the work starts/ends, when the lunchtime (or any other break) starts/ends and integer representing minutes into how small piecies we should divide time period. Besides - it's possible that there are not any breaks in the working time. The function should return all intervals from working time. function split_time_into_intervals($work_starts,$work_ends,$break_starts=null; $break_ends=null,$minutes_per_interval=60){ $intervals=array(); //all of the function code return $intervals; } So if I have the following parameters for the function function split_time_into_intervals("8:30","14:50","11:45"; "12:25"){ .. } I would like to retrieve the following array: $intervals[0]['starts']="8:30"; $intervals[0]['ends']="9:30"; $intervals[1]['starts']="9:30"; $intervals[1]['ends']="10:30"; $intervals[2]['starts']="10:30"; $intervals[2]['ends']="11:30"; $intervals[3]['starts']="11:30"; $intervals[3]['ends']="11:45"; //this interval was smaller than 60 minutes - because of the break (which starts at 11:45) $intervals[4]['starts']="12:25";//starts when the break ends $intervals[4]['ends']="13:25"; // interval is again 60 minutes $intervals[5]['starts']="13:25"; $intervals[5]['ends']="14:25"; $intervals[6]['starts']="14:25"; $intervals[6]['ends']="14:50"; //this period is shorter than 60 minutes - because work ends Any advises? I would apriciate any php (or C#) code regarding to this problem!

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• JQuery: how to store records id for data from ajax query in dynamicly created html elements

  - by grapkulec

  Probably question title is rather cryptic but I will try to explain myself here so please bare with me :) Let's assume this configuration: server-side is PHP application responding for requests with data (list of items, single item details, etc.) in json format client-side is JQuery application sending ajax request to that PHP app and creating html content corresponding with received data So, for example: client requests "list of all animals with names staring with 'A'", gets the json response from server, and for every "animal" creates some html gizmo like div with animal description or something like that. It doesn't really matter what html element it will be but it has to point exactly to specific record by "containing" id of that record. And here is my dilemma: is it good solution to use "id" property for that? So it would be like: <div id="10" class="animal"> <p> This is animal of very mysterious kind... </p> </div> <div id="11" class="animal"> <p> And this one is very common to our country... </p> </div> where id="10" is of course indication that this is representation of record with id = 10. Or maybe I should store this record id in some custom made tag like <record_id>10</record_id> and leave an "id" strictly for what it was meant to be (css selector)? I need that record id for further stuff like updating database with some user input or deleting some of "animals" or creating new ones or anything that will be needed. All manipulations will be done with JQuery and ajax requests and responses will be visualized also with dynamic creation of html interface. I'm sure that somebody had to deal with that kind of stuff before so I would be grateful for some tips on that topic.

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• Are there any downsides in using C++ for network daemons?

  - by badcat

  Hey guys! I've been writing a number of network daemons in different languages over the past years, and now I'm about to start a new project which requires a new custom implementation of a properitary network protocol. The said protocol is pretty simple - some basic JSON formatted messages which are transmitted in some basic frame wrapping to have clients know that a message arrived completely and is ready to be parsed. The daemon will need to handle a number of connections (about 200 at the same time) and do some management of them and pass messages along, like in a chat room. In the past I've been using mostly C++ to write my daemons. Often with the Qt4 framework (the network parts, not the GUI parts!), because that's what I also used for the rest of the projects and it was simple to do and very portable. This usually worked just fine, and I didn't have much trouble. Being a Linux administrator for a good while now, I noticed that most of the network daemons in the wild are written in plain C (of course some are written in other languages, too, but I get the feeling that 80% of the daemons are written in plain C). Now I wonder why that is. Is this due to a pure historic UNIX background (like KISS) or for plain portability or reduction of bloat? What are the reasons to not use C++ or any "higher level" languages for things like daemons? Thanks in advance! Update 1: For me using C++ usually is more convenient because of the fact that I have objects which have getter and setter methods and such. Plain C's "context" objects can be a real pain at some point - especially when you are used to object oriented programming. Yes, I'm aware that C++ is a superset of C, and that C code is basically C++. But that's not the point. ;)

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• Are there good reasons not to use an ORM?

  - by hangy

  During my apprenticeship, I have used NHibernate for some smaller projects which I mostly coded and designed on my own. Now, before starting some bigger project, the discussion arose how to design data access and whether or not to use an ORM layer. As I am still in my apprenticeship and still consider myself a beginner in enterprise programming, I did not really try to push in my opinion, which is that using an object relational mapper to the database can ease development quite a lot. The other coders in the development team are much more experienced than me, so I think I will just do what they say. :-) However, I do not completely understand two of the main reasons for not using NHibernate or a similar project: One can just build one’s own data access objects with SQL queries and copy those queries out of Microsoft SQL Server Management Studio. Debugging an ORM can be hard. So, of course I could just build my data access layer with a lot of SELECTs etc, but here I miss the advantage of automatic joins, lazy-loading proxy classes and a lower maintenance effort if a table gets a new column or a column gets renamed. (Updating numerous SELECT, INSERT and UPDATE queries vs. updating the mapping config and possibly refactoring the business classes and DTOs.) Also, using NHibernate you can run into unforeseen problems if you do not know the framework very well. That could be, for example, trusting the Table.hbm.xml where you set a string’s length to be automatically validated. However, I can also imagine similar bugs in a “simple” SqlConnection query based data access layer. Finally, are those arguments mentioned above really a good reason not to utilise an ORM for a non-trivial database based enterprise application? Are there probably other arguments they/I might have missed? (I should probably add that I think this is like the first “big” .NET/C# based application which will require teamwork. Good practices, which are seen as pretty normal on Stack Overflow, such as unit testing or continuous integration, are non-existing here up to now.)

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• Can i change the view without changing the controller?

  - by Ian Boyd

  Pretend1 there is a place to type in a name:     Name: __________________ When the text box changes, the value is absorbed into the controller, who stores it in data model. Business rules require that a name be entered: if there is no text entered the TextBox should be colored something in the view to indicate baddness; otherwise it can be whatever color the view likes. The TextBox contains a String, the controller handles a String, and the model stores a String. Now lets say i want to improve the view. There is a new kind of text box2 that can be fed not only string-based keyboard input, but also an image. The view (currently) knows how to determine if the image is in the proper format to perform the processing required to extract text out of it. If there is text, then that text can be fed to the controller, who feeds it to the data model. But if the image is invalid, e.g.3 wrong file format invalid dimensions invalid bit depth unhandled or unknown encoding format missing or incorrectly located registration marks contents not recognizable the view can show something to the user that the image is bad. But the telling the user that something is bad is supposed to be the job of the controller. i'm, of course, not going to re-write the controller to handle Image based text-input (e.g. image based names). a. the code is binary locked inside a GUI widget4 b. there other views besides this one, i'm not going to impose a particular view onto the controller c. i just don't wanna. If i have to change things outside of this UI improvement, then i'll just leave the UI unimproved5 So what's the thinking on having different views for the same Model and Controller? Nitpicker's Corner 1 contrived hypothetical example 2 e.g. bar code, g-mask, ocr 3 contrived hypothetical reasons 4 or hardware of a USB bar-code scanner 5 forcing the user to continue to use a DateTimePicker rather than a TextBox

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• Deploying a Rails app on an Ubuntu server using Git

  - by NudeCanalTroll

  I'm completely new to Linux, but today I find myself setting up a server (Ubuntu 10.04 LTS lucid) from scratch to host a Rails application. Anyway, I managed to get a Rails app up and running on the server itself, but I had to scrap that because I want to use Git. So I setup a git repository on the server, then pushed all the code from my local machine to the repository. Buuuut, of course Git doesn't actually store the files themselves in the repository -- all the code for my Rails app is now only on my local machine. How am I supposed to tell the server to host that? Right now my solution is to have the server use git to pull the code from its own repository. That's the code I'll host for all the world to see. In order to update the code, I guess I'll have to do something like this: Update the code on my local machine. Do some git adds, git commits, and a git push. On the server, do a git pull to update the code. So my question is, am I doing this the right way? enter code here

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• Clear tableView cell cache (or remove an entry)

  - by ManniAT

  Hi, I have the same question problem as described here http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2286669/iphone-how-to-purge-a-cached-uitableviewcell But my problem can't be solved with "resetting content". To be precise - I use a custom cell (own class). While running the application it is possible that I have to use a different "cell type". It's the same class - but it has (a lot of) differnt attributes. Of course I could always reset all the things at "PrepareForReuse" but that's not a good idea I guess (there are a lot things to reset). My idea - I do all these things in the constructor of the cell. And all the rows will use this "type of cell" later. When the (seldom) situation comes that I have to change the look of all rows I create a new instance of this kind of cell with different settings. And now I want to replace the queued cell with this new one. I tried it with simply calling the constructor with the same cellidentifier (in the hope it will replace the existing one) but that doesn't work. I also didn't find a "ClearReusableCells" or something like this. Is there a way to clear the cache - or to remove / replace a specific item? Manfred

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• Terminal-based snake game: input thread manipulates output

  - by enlightened

  I'm writing a snake game for the terminal, i.e. output via print. The following works just fine: while status[snake_monad] do print to_string draw canvas, compose_all([ frame, specs, snake_to_hash(snake[snake_monad]) ]) turn! snake_monad, get_dir move! snake_monad, specs sleep 0.25 end But I don't want the turn!ing to block, of course. So I put it into a new Thread and let it loop: Thread.new do loop do turn! snake_monad, get_dir end end while status[snake_monad] do ... # no turn! here ... end Which also works logically (the snake is turning), but the output is somehow interspersed with newlines. As soon as I kill the input thread (^C) it looks normal again. So why and how does the thread have any effect on my output? And how do I work around this issue? (I don't know much about threads, even less about them in ruby. Input and output concurrently on the same terminal make the matter worse, I guess...) Also (not really important): Wanting my program as pure as possible, would it be somewhat easily possible to get the input non-blockingly while passing everything around? Thank you!

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• Concept: Is mongo right for applying schemas?

  - by Jan

  I am currently in charge of checking wether it is valuable for one of our upcoming products to be developed on mongo. Without going too much into detail, I'll try to explain, what the app does. The app simply has "entities". These entities are technical stuff, like cell phones, TVs, Laptops, tablet pcs, and so forth. Of course, a cell phone has other attributes than a Tablet PCs and a Laptop has even other attributes, like RAM, CPU, display size and so on. Now I want to have something that we wanna call a scheme: We define that we need to have saved the display size, amount of ram size of flash devices, processor type, processor speed and so on for tablet pcs. For cell phone we might save display size, GSM, Edge, 3g, 4g, processor, ram, touch screen technology, bla bla bla. I think you got it :) What I want to realize is, that each "category" has a schema and when one of the system's users enters a new product (let's say the new iphone 4), the app constructs the form to be filled out with the appropriate attributes. So far it sounds nice and should not be a problem with mongo. But now the tough for which I could not find a clean solution.... An attribute modeled in mongo looks like: { _id: 1234456, name: "Attribute name", type: 0, "description" } But what to do, if i need this attribute in several languages, like: { en: {name: "Attribute name", type: 0, "description"}, de: {name: "Name des Attributs, type: 0, "Beschreibung"} } I also need to ensure that the german attribute gets updated as soon as the english gets updated, for instance when type changes from 0 to 1. Any ideas on that?

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• Load PHP function with jQuery Ajax

  - by brandon14_99

  I have a file which is loaded at the top of my document, which is called Videos.php. Inside that file are several functions, such as getYoutubeVideos. On some pages, I need to call upon that function several times (up to 50), and it of course creates major lag on load times. So I have been trying to figure out how to call that function in, only when it is need (when someone clicks the show videos button). I have very little experience with jQuery's ajax abilities. I would like the ajax call to be made inside of something like this: jQuery('a[rel=VideoPreview1).click(function(){ jQuery ("a[rel=VideoPreview1]").hide(); jQuery ("a[rel=HideVideoPreview1]").show(); jQuery ("#VideoPreview1").show(); //AJAX STUFF HERE preventDefault(); }); Ok I have created this based on the responses, but it is still not working: jQuery Code: jQuery(document).ready(function(){ jQuery("a[rel=VideoPreview5]").click(function(){ jQuery("a[rel=VideoPreview5]").hide(); jQuery("a[rel=HideVideoPreview5]").show(); jQuery.post("/Classes/Video.php", {action: "getYoutubeVideos", artist: "Train", track: "Hey, Soul Sister"}, function(data){ jQuery("#VideoPreview5").html(data); }, 'json'); jQuery("#VideoPreview5").show(); preventDefault(); }); jQuery("a[rel=HideVideoPreview5]").click(function(){ jQuery("a[rel=VideoPreview5]").show(); jQuery("a[rel=HideVideoPreview5]").hide(); jQuery("#VideoPreview5").hide(); preventDefault(); }); }); And the PHP code: $Action = isset($_POST['action']); $Artist = isset($_POST['artist']); $Track = isset($_POST['track']); if($Action == 'getYoutubeVideos') { echo 'where are the videos'; echo json_encode(getYoutubeVideos($Artist.' '.$Track, 1, 5, 'relevance')); }

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• C# "Rename" Property in Derived Class

  - by Eric

  When you read this you'll be awfully tempted to give advice like "this is a bad idea for the following reason..." Bear with me. I know there are other ways to approach this. This question should be considered trivia. Lets say you have a class "Transaction" that has properties common to all transactions such as Invoice, Purchase Order, and Sales Receipt. Let's take the simple example of Transaction "Amount", which is the most important monetary amount for a given transaction. public class Transaction { public double Amount { get; set; } public TxnTypeEnum TransactionType { get; set; } } This Amount may have a more specific name in a derived type... at least in the real world. For example, the following values are all actually the same thing: Transaction - Amount Invoice - Subtotal PurchaseOrder - Total Sales Receipt - Amount So now I want a derived class "Invoice" that has a Subtotal rather than the generically-named Amount. Ideally both of the following would be true: In an instance of Transaction, the Amount property would be visible. In an instance of Invoice, the Amount property would be hidden, but the Subtotal property would refer to it internally. Invoice looks like this: public class Invoice : Transaction { new private double? Amount { get { return base.Amount; } set { base.Amount = value; } } // This property should hide the generic property "Amount" on Transaction public double? SubTotal { get { return Amount; } set { Amount = value; } } public double RemainingBalance { get; set; } } But of course Transaction.Amount is still visible on any instance of Invoice. Thanks for taking a look!

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• Problem logging in and changing permissions in Facebook

  - by kujawk

  Hi everybody, I've got a piece of code that logs into Facebook, gets a session, sets status_update and offline_access permission if they are not set, and gets a new session with the newly set permissions. This code used to work fine but now I'm getting error 100 "One of the parameters specified was missing or invalid" as a response to the second call to get session and I can't figure out why. Here's the sequence in detail: CREATE TOKEN restserver.php?method=auth.createToken&api_key=[our key]&v=1.0&format=JSON&sig=[sig created with our secret] response: new token LOGIN m.facebook.com/login.php?api_key=[our key]&v=1.0&auth_token=[token created above] login screen loads and user successfully logs in with their username/password. GET SESSION restserver.php?method=auth.getSession&api_key=[our key]&v=1.0&format=JSON&auth_token=token created above&sig=[sig created with our secret] response: session key with expiration date and a secret CHECK/AUTHORIZE PERMISSIONS restserver.php?method=users.hasAppPermission&api_key=[our key]&v=1.0&format=JSON&ext_perm=status_update&call_id=[proper id]&session_key=[key returned above]&sig=[sig created with secret returned for get session] response: 0 m.facebook.com/authorize.php?api_key=[our key]&v=1.0&ext_perm=status_update authorization screen loads and user authorizes Same steps for status_update CREATE NEW TOKEN Same steps as done to create the first token LOGIN m.facebook.com/login.php?api_key=[our key]&v=1.0&auth_token=[new token] user is already logged in, redirected to their homepage GET NEW SESSION restserver.php?method=auth.getSession&api_key=[our key]&format=JSON&auth_token=[new token]&sig=[sig created with our secret] response: error 100 - missing or invalid parameter. Of course it doesn't tell me which one. Anybody have any ideas what I'm doing wrong here? I tried skipping the second login and going right to creating the new session and that didn't work. The only thing that seems to work is logging out the user after they've authorized the permissions and having them log back in again. I'd like to avoid this if possible. Can you have two outstanding sessions at one time? This code used to work but I'm thinking maybe something changed on Facebook's end that I'm not aware of. Thanks, kris

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• How to use a rewrite rule to force calls for "domain.tld/subdir/file.html" to show as "subdir.domain.tld/file.html"?

  - by Wion

  Hi! First time poster. Very new to mod_rewrite. I'm on a shared server and the context of this problem is with a virtual directory under my root account. The domain (domain.tld) will have subdirectories representing annual mini-sites of static .html files. Subdirectory names (yyyy) will be the 4-digit year (e.g., "2010"). I want any call to domain.tld/yyyy/file.html to appear as yyyy.domain.tld/file.html in the browser address bar, and (of course) for the page to load properly. I already force dropping “www” by using… RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^www\.domain\.tld [NC] RewriteRule (.*) http://domain.tld/$1 [R=301,L] So far so good. But no matter what I try after that, I can’t get the subdomain to force to the front of the domain. Here’s one of the more complicated examples I’ve tried (no doubt wrong)… RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^domain\.tld/([0-9]+)/([a-z-]+)\.html [NC] RewriteRule (.*) %1.domain.tld/%2.html [NC] This doesn’t break anything (that I can tell), but it doesn’t do what I want either. I.e., if I type yyyy.domain.tld, I’ll see yyyy.domain.tld in the address bar, and navigating around will give me yyyy.domain.tld/file.html, etc. Fine. But if also type domain.tld/yyyy I’ll see domain.tld/yyyy, etc, which is not how I want people to see it. It doesn’t redirect or mask or alias or whatever you call it. Is it even possible to force one look over the other like that? Should I be handling this with DNS instead? Thanks in advance!

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• Passing Extras and screen rotation

  - by Luis A. Florit

  This kind of questions appear periodically. Sorry if this has been covered before, but I'm a newbie and couldn't find the appropriate answer. It deals with the correct implementation of communication between classes and activities. I made a gallery app. It has 3 main activities: the Main one, to search for filenames using a pattern; a Thumb one, that shows all the images that matched the pattern as thumbnails in a gridview, and a Photo activity, that opens a full sized image when you click a thumb in Thumbs. I pass to the Photo activity via an Intent the filenames (an array), and the position (an int) of the clicked thumb in the gridview. This third Photo activity has only one view on it: a TouchImageView, that I adapted for previous/next switching and zooming according to where you shortclick on the image (left, right or middle). Moreover, I added a longclick listener to Photo to show EXIF info. The thing is working, but I am not happy with the implementation... Some things are not right. One of the problems I am experiencing is that, if I click on the right of the image to see the next in the Photo activity, it switches fine (position++), but when rotating the device the original one at position appears. What is happening is that Photo is destroyed when rotating the image, and for some reason it restarts again, without obeying super.onCreate(savedInstanceState), loading again the Extras (the position only changed in Photo, not on the parent activities). I tried with startActivityForResult instead of startActivity, but failed... Of course I can do something contrived to save the position data, but there should be something "conceptual" that I am not understanding about how activities work, and I want to do this right. Can someone please explain me what I am doing wrong, which is the best method to implement what I want, and why? Thanks a lot!!!

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• What is the most common way to use a middleware in node with express and connect

  - by Bernhard

  Thinking about the correct way, how to make use of middlewares in a node.js web project using express and connect which is growing up at the moment. Of course there are middlewares right now wich has to pass or extend requests globally but in a lot of cases there are special jobs like prepare incoming data and in this case the middleware would only work for a set of http-methods and routes. I've a component based architecture and each component brings it's own middleware layer which can implement those for requests this component can handle. On app startup any required component is loaded and prepared. Is it a good idea to bind the middleware code execution to URLs to keep cpu load lower or is it better to use middlewares only for global purposes? Here's some dummy how an url related middleware look like. app.use(function(req, res, next) { // Check if requested route is a part of the current component // or if the middleware should be passed on any request if (APP.controller.groups.Component.isExpectedRoute(req) || APP.controller.groups.Component.getConfig().MIDDLEWARE_PASS_ALL === true) { // Execute the midleware code here console.log('This is a route which should be afected by middleware'); ... next(); }else{ next(); } });

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