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• How to map a 0..1 to 1 relationship in Entity Framework 3

  - by sako73

  I have two tables, Users, and Address. A the user table has a field that maps to the primary key of the address table. This field can be null. In plain english, Address exist independent of other objects. A user may be associated with one address. In the database, I have this set up as a foreign key relationship. I am attempting to map this relationship in the Entity Framework. I am getting errors on the following code: <Association Name="fk_UserAddress"> <End Role="User" Type="GenesisEntityModel.Store.User" Multiplicity="1"/> <End Role="Address" Type="GenesisEntityModel.Store.Address" Multiplicity="0..1" /> <ReferentialConstraint> <Principal Role="Address"> <PropertyRef Name="addressId"/> </Principal> <Dependent Role="User"> <PropertyRef Name="addressId"/> </Dependent> </ReferentialConstraint> </Association> It is giving a "The Lower Bound of the multiplicity must be 0" error. I would appreciate it if anyone could explain the error, and the best way to solve it. Thanks for any help.

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• C#: Non-constructed generics as properties (eg. List<T>)

  - by Dav

  The Problem It's something I came across a while back and was able to work around it somehow. But now it came back, feeding on my curiosity - and I'd love to have a definite answer. Basically, I have a generic dgv BaseGridView<T> : DataGridView where T : class. Constructed types based on the BaseGridView (such as InvoiceGridView : BaseGridView<Invoice>) are later used in the application to display different business objects using the shared functionality provided by BaseGridView (like virtual mode, buttons, etc.). It now became necessary to create a user control that references those constructed types to control some of the shared functionality (eg. filtering) from BaseGridView. I was therefore hoping to create a public property on the user control that would enable me to attach it to any BaseGridView in Designer/code: public BaseGridView<T> MyGridView { get; set; }. The trouble is, it doesn't work :-) When compiled, I get the following message: The type or namespace name 'T' could not be found (are you missing a using directive or an assembly reference?) Solutions? I realise I could extract the shared functionality to an interface, mark BaseGridView as implementing that interface, and then refer to the created interface in my uesr control. But I'm curious if there exists some arcane C# command/syntax that would help me achieve what I want - without polluting my solution with an interface I don't really need :-)

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• position of View on asp.net mvc site master page

  - by ognjenb

  How fix data table to open only in Main Content Frame? Structure of my site.master page is: left content, main content and right content. When open View page in main content she goes to the right content if it is large. Is this CSS problem? My problem is similar to this http://www.inq.me/post/ASPNet-MVC-Extension-method-to-create-a-Security-Aware-HtmlActionLink.aspx This is my CSS(come with template): /*~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~ PRIMARY LAYOUT STYLES ~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~*/ .content-container { position:relative; _height:1px; min-height:1px; width:900px; /* background:url(images/bg-column-left.png) repeat-y;*/ } .content-container-inner { /*background:url(images/bg-column-right.png) repeat-y right;*/ _height:1px; min-height:1px; /*padding:0 200px;*/ position:relative; /*width:900px;*/ } .content-main { padding :15px 0% 0px 2%; /*position:relative;*/ min-height:1px; _height:1px; float:left; position:relative; /*width:96%;*/ /*width:900px;*/ } .content-left { padding:20px 10px; float:left; width:180px; margin-top:-1px; position:relative; margin-left:-100%; right:200px; _left:200px; border-top:1px dotted #797979; } .content-right { padding :15px 10px 10px 10px; float:left; width:160px; position:relative; margin-right:-200px; } .ads { text-align:center; margin:20px 0; } /*~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~

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• NHibernate. Initiate save collection at saving parent

  - by Andrew Kalashnikov

  Hello, colleagues. I've got a problem at saving my entity. MApping: ?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <hibernate-mapping xmlns="urn:nhibernate-mapping-2.2" assembly="Clients.Core" namespace="Clients.Core.Domains"> <class name="Sales, Clients.Core" table='sales'> <id name="Id" unsaved-value="0"> <column name="id" not-null="true"/> <generator class="native"/> </id> <property name="Guid"> <column name="guid"/> </property> <set name="Accounts" table="sales_users" lazy="false"> <key column="sales_id" /> <element column="user_id" type="Int32" /> </set> Domain: public class Sales : BaseDomain { ICollection<int> accounts = new List<int>(); public virtual ICollection<int> Accounts { get { return accounts; } set { accounts = value; } } public Sales() { } } When I save Sales object Account collection don't save at sales_users table. What should I do for saving it? Please don't advice me use classes inside List Thanks a lot.

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• transfering a container of data to different classes

  - by user340699

  I am passing a vector of bids from Trader class to Simulator class.which class then passes it on to the auctioneer class.something seems messed up, can anyone spot it please. Below is part of the code: Error: 199 expected primary-expression before '&' token //Class of Origin of the vector. class Trader { private: int nextBidId; public: Trader(); ~Trader(){}; Bid getNextBid(); Bid getNextBid(int trdId, int qty, int price, char type); void loadRange( vector <Bid> & bids ) {} ; void loadRange(BidList &, int trdId, int qty, int price, char type, int size); }; //To be received by the Simulator class Simulator { vector <Bid> list; Trader trader; Auctioneer auctioneer; public: void run(); }; // Passing the vector into a function in simulator Simulator::accept_bids(bid_vector::const_iterator begin, bid_vector::const_iterator end){ vector<Bid>::iterator itr; } //Its journey should end with the Auctioneer. who displays the data class Auctioneer { public: vector <Bid>v2;// created a new vector to hold the objects void accept_bids(vector<Bid> & bids); void displayBids(){return bids} };

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• Setting up isolated COM for multiple projects.

  - by Praneeth

  My solution consists of multiple projects all of which out type class library except one whose output type is windows application. The application references all the other projects. I also have a COM component which is referenced by some of the projects and the application also. I can setup the regfree COM by changing the Isolated property of the referenced COM component in visual studio to TRUE. The solution builds successfully and I can see the manifest file generated for that particular assembly or application. Now, my question is that do I need to do this for all the projects which reference the COM component? If yes, then I know that i cannot set the Isolated property to TRUE on more than one project(gives a build error) so how do I workaround this? I am relatively new to .net and don't know much regfree COM(i assume what i am doing IS regfree COM?). Any help I can get on this issue is greatly appreciated. Thanks. I am currently using VS 2008.

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• Error while reading custom configuration file(app.config)

  - by Newbie

  I am making a custom configuration in my winform application. (It will represent a country-corrency list) First the CountryList class namespace UtilityMethods { public class CountryList : ConfigurationSection { public CountryList() { // // TODO: Add constructor logic here // } [ConfigurationProperty("CountryCurrency", IsRequired = true)] public Hashtable CountryCurrencies { get { return CountryCurrency.GetCountryCurrency(); } } } } The GetCountryCurrency() method is defined in CountryCurrency class as under namespace UtilityMethods { public static class CountryCurrency { public static Hashtable GetCountryCurrency() { Hashtable ht = new Hashtable(); ht.Add("India", "Rupees"); ht.Add("USA", "Dollar"); return ht; } } } The app.config file looks like <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <configuration> <configSections> <section name ="CountryList1" type ="UtilityMethods.CountryList,CountryList,Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral"/> </configSections> <appSettings /> </configuration> And I am calling this from a button_click's event as try { CountryList cList = ConfigurationManager.GetSection("CountryList") as CountryList; Hashtable ht = cList.CountryCurrencies; } catch (Exception ex) { string h = ex.Message; } Upon running the application and clicking on the button I am getting this error Could not load type 'UtilityMethods.CountryList' from assembly 'System.Configuration, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b03f5f7f11d50a3a' Please help (dotnet framework : 3.5 Language: C#)

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• design pattern for related inputs

  - by curiousMo

  My question is a design question : let's say i have a data entry web page with 4 drop down lists, each depending on the previous one, and a bunch of text boxes. ddlCountry (DropDownList) ddlState (DropDownList) ddlCity (DropDownList) ddlBoro (DropDownList) txtAddress (TxtBox) txtZipcode(TxtBox) and an object that represents a datarow with a value for each: countrySeqid stateSeqid citySeqid boroSeqid address zipCode naturally the country, state, city and boro values will be values of primary keys of some lookup tables. when the user chooses to edits that record, i would load it from database and load it into the page. the issue that I have is how to streamline loading the DropDownLists. i have some code that would grab the object,look thru its values and move them to their corresponding input controls in one shot. but in this case i will have to load the ddlCountry with possible values, then assign values, then do the same thing for the rest of the ddls. I guess i am looking for an elegant solution. i am using asp.net, but i think it is irrelevant to the question. i am looking more into a design pattern.

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• Mysql query in drupal database - groupwise maximum with duplicate data

  - by nselikoff

  I'm working on a mysql query in a Drupal database that pulls together users and two different cck content types. I know people ask for help with groupwise maximum queries all the time... I've done my best but I need help. This is what I have so far: # the artists SELECT users.uid, users.name AS username, n1.title AS artist_name FROM users LEFT JOIN users_roles ur ON users.uid=ur.uid INNER JOIN role r ON ur.rid=r.rid AND r.name='artist' LEFT JOIN node n1 ON n1.uid = users.uid AND n1.type = 'submission' WHERE users.status = 1 ORDER BY users.name; This gives me data that looks like: uid username artist_name 1 foo Joe the Plumber 2 bar Jane Doe 3 baz The Tooth Fairy Also, I've got this query: # artwork SELECT n.nid, n.uid, a.field_order_value FROM node n LEFT JOIN content_type_artwork a ON n.nid = a.nid WHERE n.type = 'artwork' ORDER BY n.uid, a.field_order_value; Which gives me data like this: nid uid field_order_value 1 1 1 2 1 3 3 1 2 4 2 NULL 5 3 1 6 3 1 Additional relevant info: nid is the primary key for an Artwork every Artist has one or more Artworks valid data for field_order_value is NULL, 1, 2, 3, or 4 field_order_value is not necessarily unique per Artist - an Artist could have 4 Artworks all with field_order_value = 1. What I want is the row with the minimum field_order_value from my second query joined with the artist information from the first query. In cases where the field_order_value is not valuable information (either because the Artist has used duplicate values among their Artworks or left that field NULL), I would like the row with the minimum nid from the second query.

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• SQLAlchemy Mapping problem

  - by asdvalkn

  Dear Everyone, I am trying to sqlalchemy to correctly map my data. Note that a unified group is basically a group of groups. (One unifiedGroup maps to many groups but each group can only map to one ug). So basically this is the definition of my unifiedGroups: CREATE TABLE `unifiedGroups` ( `ugID` INT AUTO_INCREMENT, `gID` INT NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY(`ugID`, `gID`), KEY( `gID`) ) ENGINE=MyISAM DEFAULT CHARSET=utf8 ; Note that each row is a ugID, gID tuple. ( I do not know before hand how many gID is per ugID so this is probably the most sensible and simplest method). Definition for my UnifiedGroup class class UnifiedGroup(object): """UnifiedProduct behaves very much like a group """ def __init__(self, ugID): self.ugID=ugID #Added by mapping self.groups=False def __str__(self): return '<%s:%s>' % (self.ugID, ','.join( [g for g in self.groups])) These are my mapping tables: tb_groupsInfo = Table( 'groupsInfo', metadata, Column('gID', Integer, primary_key=True), Column('gName', String(128)), ) tb_unifiedGroups = Table( 'unifiedGroups', metadata, Column('ugID', Integer, primary_key=True), Column('gID', Integer, ForeignKey('groupsInfo.gID')), ) My mapper maps in the following manner: mapper( UnifiedGroup, tb_unifiedGroups, properties={ 'groups': relation( Group, backref='unifiedGroup') }) However, when I tried to do groupInstance.unifiedGroup, I am getting an empty list [], while groupInstance.unifiedGroup.groups returns me an error: AttributeError: 'InstrumentedList' object has no attribute 'groups' Traceback (most recent call last): File "Mapping.py", line 119, in <module> print p.group.unifiedGroup.groups AttributeError: 'InstrumentedList' object has no attribute 'groups' What is wrong?

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• Pass an array from IronRuby to C#

  - by cgyDeveloper

  I'm sure this is an easy fix and I just can't find it, but here goes: I have a C# class (let's call it Test) in an assembly (let's say SOTest.dll). Here is something along the lines of what I'm doing: private List<string> items; public List<string> list_items() { return this.items; } public void set_items(List<string> new_items) { this.items = new_items; } In the IronRuby interpreter I run: >>> require "SOTest.dll" true >>> include TestNamespace Object >>> myClass = Test.new TestNamespace.Test >>> myClass.list_items() ['Apples', 'Oranges', 'Pears'] >>> myClass.set_items ['Peaches', 'Plums'] TypeError: can't convert Array into System::Collections::Generic::List(string) I get a similar error whether I make the argument a 'List< string ', 'List< object ' or 'string[ ]'. What is the proper syntax? I can't find a documented mapping of types anywhere (because it's likely too complicated to define in certain scenarios given what Ruby can do).

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• What single software development tool do you think holds the most value?

  - by Phobis

  Every day I realize how much I love Visual Studio for .NET development.... but, I believe that Resharper, may hold a value that surpasses Visual Studio's (I am using VS 2005 for WPF/WCF development). I decided it would be great to compile a list of the most valuable tools for software development. These can be applications/plug-ins anything that you think holds GREAT value. Also, please explain the benefits of the tool that you are posting. Resharper: Intergrated Unit testing "Camel Hump" code auto completion Find "usings" (inverse of "Go to Deceleration") Code formating and member rearranging Assembly and namespace inclusion (based on your code) Check for common optimizations and possible bugs in code and suggests/rewrites the code for you (things like null checking, redundant delegate creation, inverting if statements, etc...); Tells you when code and be more generic (may suggest things like "use this interface instead" if your code never refers to something specific on an object) Helps you see code that is not being used and will clean any unused members. File structure view helps you jump around the regions of your file (this is really awesome and clean). Class searching (you can use things like camel humps) Asks you which partial file to open once you find a class. It also has it's own plugin support, so you can do things like FxCop, documentation and relfector (all free). This thing has so much I don't think I hit 10% of it yet :) [When I get time, I will try to add more... feel free to help me out]

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• How to unit test generic classes

  - by Rowland Shaw

  I'm trying to set up some unit tests for an existing compact framework class library. However, I've fallen at the first hurdle, where it appears that the test framework is unable to load the types involved (even though they're both in the class library being tested) Test method MyLibrary.Tests.MyGenericClassTest.MyMethodTest threw exception: System.MissingMethodException: Could not load type 'MyLibrary.MyType' from assembly 'MyLibrary, Version=1.0.3778.36113, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null'.. My code is loosely: public class MyGenericClass<T> : List<T> where T : MyType, new() { public bool MyMethod(T foo) { throw new NotImplementedException(); } } With test methods: public void MyMethodTestHelper<T>() where T : MyType, new() { MyGenericClass<T> target = new MyGenericClass<T>(); foo = new T(); expected = true; actual = target.MyMethod(foo); Assert.AreEqual(expected, actual); } [TestMethod()] public void MyMethodTest() { MyMethodTestHelper<MyType>(); } I'm a bit stumped though, as I can't even get it to break in the debugger to get to the inner exception, so what else do I check? EDIT this does seem to be something specific to the Compact Framework - recompiling the class libraries and the unit tests for the full framework, gives the expected output (i.e. the debugger stops when I'm going to throw a NotImplementedException).

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• Conditional references in .NET project, possible to get rid of warning?

  - by Lasse V. Karlsen

  I have two references to a SQLite assembly, one for 32-bit and one for 64-bit, which looks like this (this is a test project to try to get rid of the warning, don't get hung up on the paths): <Reference Condition=" '$(Platform)' == 'x64' " Include="System.Data.SQLite, Version=1.0.61.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=db937bc2d44ff139, processorArchitecture=AMD64"> <SpecificVersion>True</SpecificVersion> <HintPath>..\..\LVK Libraries\SQLite3\version_1.0.65.0\64-bit\System.Data.SQLite.DLL</HintPath> </Reference> <Reference Condition=" '$(Platform)' == 'x86' " Include="System.Data.SQLite, Version=1.0.65.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=db937bc2d44ff139, processorArchitecture=x86"> <SpecificVersion>True</SpecificVersion> <HintPath>..\..\LVK Libraries\SQLite3\version_1.0.65.0\32-bit\System.Data.SQLite.DLL</HintPath> </Reference> This produces the following warning: Warning 1 The referenced component 'System.Data.SQLite' could not be found. Is it possible for me to get rid of this warning? One way I've looked at it to just configure my project to be 32-bit when I develop, and let the build machine fix the reference when building for 64-bit, but this seems a bit awkward and probably prone to errors. Any other options? The reason I want to get rid of it is that the warning is apparently being picked up by TeamCity and periodically flagged as something I need to look into, so I'd like to get completely rid of it.

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• How can get unique values from data table using dql?

  - by piemesons

  I am having a table in which there is a column in which various values are stored.i want to retrieve unique values from that table using dql. Doctrine_Query::create() ->select('rec.school') ->from('Records rec') ->where("rec.city='$city' ") ->execute(); Now i want only unique values. Can anybody tell me how to do that... Edit Table Structure: CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS `records` ( `id` int(11) NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT, `state` varchar(255) COLLATE utf8_unicode_ci DEFAULT NULL, `city` varchar(255) COLLATE utf8_unicode_ci DEFAULT NULL, `school` varchar(255) COLLATE utf8_unicode_ci DEFAULT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`id`) ) ENGINE=InnoDB DEFAULT CHARSET=utf8 COLLATE=utf8_unicode_ci AUTO_INCREMENT=16334 ; This is the Query I am using: Doctrine_Query::create() ->select('DISTINCT rec.city') ->from('Records rec') ->where("rec.state = '$state'") // ->getSql(); ->execute(); Generting Sql for this gives me: SELECT DISTINCT r.id AS r__id, r.city AS r__city FROM records r WHERE r.state = 'AR' Now check the sql generated:::: DISTINCT is on 'id' column where as i want Distinct on city column. Anybody know how to fix this. EDIT2 Id is unique cause its an auto incremental value.Ya i have some real duplicates in city column like: Delhi and Delhi. Right.. Now when i am trying to fetch data from it, I am getting Delhi two times. How can i make query like this: select DISTINCT rec.city where state="xyz"; Cause this will give me the proper output. EDIT3: Anybody who can tell me how to figure out this query..???

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• MySql Check if NOW() falls within a weekday/time range

  - by Niall

  I have a table as follows: CREATE TABLE `zonetimes` ( `id` int(11) unsigned NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT, `zone_id` int(10) unsigned NOT NULL, `active_from_day` tinyint(1) unsigned NOT NULL DEFAULT '2', `active_to_day` tinyint(1) unsigned NOT NULL DEFAULT '2', `active_from` time NOT NULL, `active_to` time NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY (`id`) ) ENGINE=MyISAM ; So, a user could add a time entry starting on a particular day and time and ending on a particular day and time, eg: Between Monday 08:00 and Friday 18:00 or Between Thursday 15:00 and Tuesday 15:00 (Note the crossover at the end of the week). I need to query this data and determine if a zone is currently active (NOW(), DAYOFWEEK() etc)... This is turning out to be quite tricky. If I didn't have overlaps, eg: from 'Wednesday 8pm to Tuesday 4am' or from 'Thursday 4pm to Tuesday 4pm' this would be easy with BETWEEN. Also, need to allow a user to add for the entire week, eg: Monday 8am - Monday 8am (This should be easy enough, eg: where (active_from_day=active_to_day AND active_from=active_to) OR .. Any ideas? Note: I found a similar question here Timespan - Check for weekday and time of day in mysql but it didn't get an answer. One of the suggestions was to store each day as a separate row. I would much rather store one time span for multiple days though.

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• Weird behavior with windows startup C#

  - by FrieK

  Hi, I've created an application with the option to start on Windows startup. First I did this via the Registry, like this: private void RunOnStartup(bool RunOnStartup) { Microsoft.Win32.RegistryKey key = Microsoft.Win32.Registry.CurrentUser.OpenSubKey("SOFTWARE\\Microsoft\\Windows\\CurrentVersion\\Run", true); if (RunOnStartup) { key.SetValue(ProgramTitle, System.Windows.Forms.Application.ExecutablePath.ToString()); } else { key.DeleteValue(ProgramTitle, false); } } And this worked, but not correctly. It started the .exe but with the same behavior as it was a new one with the default 'config.xml' it needs. Which is obviously wrong. I did not manage to find out what was wrong, so I tried it differently: create a shortcut in the Startup folder. Couldn't go wrong I figured, I mean, it's just a shortcut right? I used this code: private void RunOnStartup(bool RunOnStartup) { string startup = Environment.GetFolderPath(Environment.SpecialFolder.Startup) + "\\"+ProgramTitle+".url"; if (RunOnStartup) { using (StreamWriter writer = new StreamWriter(startup)) { string app = System.Reflection.Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly().Location; writer.WriteLine("[InternetShortcut]"); writer.WriteLine("URL=file:///" + app); writer.WriteLine("IconIndex=0"); string icon = app.Replace('\\', '/'); writer.WriteLine("IconFile=" + icon); writer.Flush(); } } else { if (File.Exists(startup)) { File.Delete(startup); } } } And this worked as well, it started, but with the same behavior. So my question is, does anyone have any idea how this happens? Any help is much appreciated! Thanks

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• PHP - uninitialized array offset

  - by kimmothy16

  Hey everyone, I am using PHP to create a form with an array of fields. Basically you can add an unlimited number of 'people' to the form and each person has a first name, last name, and phone number. The form requires that you add a phone number for the first person only. If you leave the phone number field blank on any others, the handler file is supposed to be programmed to use the phone number from the first person. So, my fields are: person[] - a hidden field with a value that is this person's primary key. fname[] - an input field lname[] - an input field phone[] - an input field my form handler looks like this: $people = $_POST['person'] $counter = 0; foreach($people as $person): if(phone[$counter] == '') { // use $phone[0]'s phone number } else { // use $phone[$counter] number } $counter = $counter + 1; endforeach; PHP doesn't like this though, it is throwing me an Notice: Uninitialized string offset error. I debugged it by running the is_array function on people, fname, lname, and phone and it returns true to being an array. I can also manually echo out $phone[2], etc. and get the correct value. I've also ran is_int on the $counter variable and it returned true, so I'm unsure why this isn't working as intended? Any help would be great!

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• Apache mod_rewrite - forward domain root to subdirectory

  - by DuFace

  I have what I originally assumed to be a simple problem. I am using shared hosting for my website (so I don't have access to the Apache configuration) and have only been given a single folder to store all my content in. This is all well and good but it means that all my subdomains must have their virtual document root's inside public_html, meaning they effectively become a folder on my main domain. What I'd like to do is organise my public_html something like this: public_html/ www/ index.php ... sub1/ index.php ... some_library/ ... This way, all my web content is still in public_html but only a small fraction of it will be served to the client. I can easily achieve this for all the subdomains, but it's the primary domain that I'm having issues with. I created a .htaccess file in public_html with the following: Options +SymLinksIfOwnerMatch # I'm not allowed to use FollowSymLinks RewriteEngine on RewriteBase / RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI} !^/www [NC] RewriteRule ^(.*)$ /www/$1 [L] This works fairly well, but for some strange reason www.example.com/stuff is translated into a request for www.example.com/www/stuff and hence a 404 error is given. It was my understanding that unless an 'R' flag was specified, mod_rewrite was purely internal so I can't understand why the request is generated as that implies (to me at least) redirection. I assumed this would be a trivial problem to solve as all I actually want to do is forward all requests for the root of www.example.com to a subdirectory, but I've spent hours searching for answers and none are quite correct. I find it difficult to believe I'm the only person to have this issue. I apologise if this question has been answered on here before, I did search and trawl but couldn't find an appropriate answer. Please could someone shed some light on this?

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• Maven (EJB) project with client and server artifacts

  - by Cornel Masson

  Here's my variation on the "multiple artifacts from Maven build" question: I'm porting from Ant to Maven. My application is an EJB server that is packaged as an EAR, but it also exposes a client JAR for use by other client apps. This jar contains the EJB interfaces, facade class and some helpers. I know that the Maven way is to have one artifact per project (POM); however, both artifacts (server EAR and client JAR) need to be built from the same source tree - server and client share, for example, the EJB and 'home' interfaces. How do I do this in Maven? Do I have one project containing two POMs, say server-pom.xml & client-pom.xml? I was thinking I could also have a parent POM (pom.xml) that can be used to build both client and server with one foul swoop? However, the lifecycles diverge after the 'package' phase, since the server has to go through assembly (tar/gzip), while the client is done after 'package' and can simply be installed into the repository. Any advice/experience on the best way to approach this?

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• When should I implement globalization and localization in C#?

  - by Geo Ego

  I am cleaning up some code in a C# app that I wrote and really trying to focus on best practices and coding style. As such, I am running my assembly through FXCop and trying to research each message it gives me to decide what should and shouldn't be changed. What I am currently focusing on are locale settings. For instance, the two errors that I have currently are that I should be specifying the IFormatProvider parameter for Convert.ToString(int), and setting the Dataset and Datatable locale. This is something that I've never done, and never put much thought into. I've always just left that overload out. The current app that I am working on is an internal app for a small company that will very likely never need to run in another country. As such, it is my opinion that I do not need to set these at all. On the other hand, doing so would not be such a big deal, but it seems like it is unneccessary and could hinder readability to a degree. I understand that Microsoft's contention is to use it if it's there, period. Well, I'm technically supposed to call Dispose() on every object that implements IDisposable, but I don't bother doing that with Datasets and Datatables, so I wonder what the practice is "in the wild."

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• How to duplicate all data in a table except for a single column that should be changed.

  - by twiga

  I have a question regarding a unified insert query against tables with different data structures (Oracle). Let me elaborate with an example: tb_customers ( id NUMBER(3), name VARCHAR2(40), archive_id NUMBER(3) ) tb_suppliers ( id NUMBER(3), name VARCHAR2(40), contact VARCHAR2(40), xxx, xxx, archive_id NUMBER(3) ) The only column that is present in all tables is [archive_id]. The plan is to create a new archive of the dataset by copying (duplicating) all records to a different database partition and incrementing the archive_id for those records accordingly. [archive_id] is always part of the primary key. My problem is with select statements to do the actual duplication of the data. Because the columns are variable, I am struggling to come up with a unified select statement that will copy the data and update the archive_id. One solution (that works), is to iterate over all the tables in a stored procedure and do a: CREATE TABLE temp as (SELECT * from ORIGINAL_TABLE); UPDATE temp SET archive_id=something; INSERT INTO temp (select * from temp); DROP TABLE temp; I do not like this solution very much as the DDL commands muck up all restore points. Does anyone else have any solution?

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• How to deploy to multiple redundant production servers with "cap deploy"?

  - by Chad Johnson

  Capistrano is working great to deploy to a single server. However, I have multiple production API servers for my web application. When I deploy, my code needs to get deployed to every API server at once. Specifying each server manually is NOT the solution I am looking for (e.g. I don't want to do "cap api1 deploy; cap api2 deploy"). Is there a way, using Capistrano, to deploy to all servers at once, with just a simple "cap deploy"? I'm wondering what changes I would need to make to a typical deploy.rb file, whether I'd need to create a separate file for each server, and whether and how the Capfile would need to be changed. Also, I need to be able to specify a different deploy_to path for each server. And ideally, I wouldn't have to repeat things in different config files for different servers (eg. wouldn't have to specify :repository, :application, etc. multiple times). I have spent hours searching Google on this and looking through tutorials, but I have found nothing helpful. Here is a snippet from my current deploy.rb file: set :application, "testapplication" set :repository, "ssh://domain.com//srv/hg/#{application}" set :scm, :mercurial set :deploy_to, "/srv/www/#{application}" role :web, "domain.com" role :app, "domain.com" role :db, "domain.com", :primary => true, :norelease => true Should I just use the multistage extension and do this? task :deploy_everything do system "cap api1 deploy" system "cap api2 deploy" system "cap api2 deploy" end That could work, but I feel like this isn't what this extension is meant for...

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• What is the best / proper idiom in django for modifying a field during a .save() where you need to o

  - by MDBGuy

  Hi, say I've got: class LogModel(models.Model): message = models.CharField(max_length=512) class Assignment(models.Model): someperson = models.ForeignKey(SomeOtherModel) def save(self, *args, **kwargs): super(Assignment, self).save() old_person = #????? LogModel(message="%s is no longer assigned to %s"%(old_person, self).save() LogModel(message="%s is now assigned to %s"%(self.someperson, self).save() My goal is to save to LogModel some messages about who Assignment was assigned to. Notice that I need to know the old, presave value of this field. I have seen code that suggests, before super().save(), retrieve the instance from the database via primary key and grab the old value from there. This could work, but is a bit messy. In addition, I plan to eventually split this code out of the .save() method via signals - namely pre_save() and post_save(). Trying to use the above logic (Retrieve from the db in pre_save, make the log entry in post_save) seemingly fails here, as pre_save and post_save are two seperate methods. Perhaps in pre_save I can retrieve the old value and stick it on the model as an attribute? I was wondering if there was a common idiom for this. Thanks.

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• GUID or int entity key with SQL Compact/EF4?

  - by David Veeneman

  This is a follow-up to an earlier question I posted on EF4 entity keys with SQL Compact. SQL Compact doesn't allow server-generated identity keys, so I am left with creating my own keys as objects are added to the ObjectContext. My first choice would be an integer key, and the previous answer linked to a blog post that shows an extension method that uses the Max operator with a selector expression to find the next available key: public static TResult NextId<TSource, TResult>(this ObjectSet<TSource> table, Expression<Func<TSource, TResult>> selector) where TSource : class { TResult lastId = table.Any() ? table.Max(selector) : default(TResult); if (lastId is int) { lastId = (TResult)(object)(((int)(object)lastId) + 1); } return lastId; } Here's my take on the extension method: It will work fine if the ObjectContext that I am working with has an unfiltered entity set. In that case, the ObjectContext will contain all rows from the data table, and I will get an accurate result. But if the entity set is the result of a query filter, the method will return the last entity key in the filtered entity set, which will not necessarily be the last key in the data table. So I think the extension method won't really work. At this point, the obvious solution seems to be to simply use a GUID as the entity key. That way, I only need to call Guid.NewGuid() method to set the ID property before I add a new entity to my ObjectContext. Here is my question: Is there a simple way of getting the last primary key in the data store from EF4 (without having to create a second ObjectContext for that purpose)? Any other reason not to take the easy way out and simply use a GUID? Thanks for your help.

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