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  • If we don't like it for the presentation layer, then why do we tolerate it for the behavior layer?

    - by greim
    Suppose CSS as we know it had never been invented, and the closest we could get was to do this: <script> // this is the page's stylesheet $(document).ready(function(){ $('.error').css({'color':'red'}); $('a[href]').css({'textDecoration':'none'}); ... }); </script> If this was how we were forced to write code, would we put up with it? Or would every developer on Earth scream at browser vendors until they standardized upon CSS, or at least some kind of declarative style language? Maybe CSS isn't perfect, but hopefully it's obvious how it's better than the find things, do stuff method shown above. So my question is this. We've seen and tasted of the glory of declarative binding with CSS, so why, when it comes to the behavioral/interactive layer, does the entire JavaScript community seem complacent about continuing to use the kludgy procedural method described above? Why for example is this considered by many to be the best possible way to do things: <script> $(document).ready(function(){ $('.widget').append("<a class='button' href='#'>...</div>"); $('a[href]').click(function(){...}); ... }); </script> Why isn't there a massive push to get XBL2.0 or .htc files or some kind of declarative behavior syntax implemented in a standard way across browsers? Is this recognized as a need by other web development professionals? Is there anything on the horizon for HTML5? (Caveats, disclaimers, etc: I realize that it's not a perfect world and that we're playing the hand we've been dealt. My point isn't to criticize the current way of doing things so much as to criticize the complacency that exists about the current way of doing things. Secondly, event delegation, especially at the root level, is a step closer to having a declarative behavior layer. It solves a subset of the problem, but it can't create UI elements, so the overall problem remains.)

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  • Cannot Call WordPress Plugin Files Under wp-content

    - by Volomike
    I have a client who has many blog customers. Each of these WordPress blogs calls a plugin that provides a product link. The way that link is composed looks like this: {website}/wp-content/plugins/prodx/product?id=432320 This works fine on all blogs except two. On those two, when you try to call the URL, you get a 404. So, I disabled all plugins except prodx and reverted the theme to default (Kubrick), thinking perhaps a plugin intercept with add_action() API was doing this, such as intercepting URLs and redirecting them. However, this did not help. So, I upgraded the WordPress to the latest version. Again, didn't fix. So, I checked permissions, comparing with a blog that worked just fine. Again, didn't fix. So I replaced the .htaccess, using one from a working blog. Again, didn't fix. So I replaced all the files using some from a working blog that was identical to this one, and then restored the wp-config.php file back so that it talked to the right blog database. Again, didn't fix. Again I checked permissions meticulously, comparing to a perfectly working blog. Again, didn't fix. So, I created a test.php that looks like so: <?php print_r($_GET); echo "hello world"; I then copied it into another plugin folder and used my browser to get to it -- again, 404. So I copied it into the root of wp-content/plugins and tried to call it there -- again, 404. So I copied it into wp-content -- again, 404. Last, I copied it into the root of the WordPress blog website, and this time, it worked! Doesn't make sense. I started to think that perhaps something was going on with /etc/httpd/conf/httpd.conf for this customer, but the only thing I saw different in their for this customer was the IP address was different than the customer's blog that worked. Each customer gets their own IP in this environment my client has built. My client sysop is baffled too. What do you think is going on? Is there something wrong in the WP database for this customer? Is there something wrong in httpd.conf?

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  • Simple calculator app crashes when a third number key is punched.

    - by Justin
    Hi , I am a newbie to the iphone app world. So I thought I try my luck with a calculator app. Unfortunately I am running into an issue where if I press a third key in the calculator the app crashes. Sometimes I get this error EXC_BAD_ACCESS. Here is a code in my CalculatorViewController.m file. #import "CalculatorViewController.h" @implementation CalculatorViewController @synthesize screenText; - (IBAction)buttonPressed:(id)sender { NSString *title = [sender titleForState:UIControlStateNormal]; [self collect:title]; } - (void)collect:(NSString *)digitz { NSString * newText = nil; if ([digitz isEqualToString:@"+"]) { [self add:result]; big_digit = nil; } else if ([digitz isEqualToString:@"+"]) { [self sub:result]; } else if ([digitz isEqualToString:@"x"]) { [self multiply:result]; } else if ([digitz isEqualToString:@"="]) { [self equate:result]; } else { if (big_digit != nil && [big_digit isEqualToString:@"0"] == FALSE) big_digit = [big_digit stringByAppendingFormat:@"%@",digitz]; else big_digit = (NSMutableString *) digitz; result = (int) big_digit; newText = [[NSString alloc] initWithFormat: @"%@",big_digit]; } screenText.text = newText; [newText release]; } - (void)add:(int)res { NSString * newText = nil; ans = ans + res; newText = [[NSString alloc] initWithFormat: @"%@",ans]; screenText.text = newText; [newText release]; } Can anyone spot an obvious issue here. Here is the respective header file too. #import <UIKit/UIKit.h> @interface CalculatorViewController : UIViewController { UILabel *screenText; int number; int result; int ans; //NSString *big_digit; NSMutableString * big_digit ; } @property (nonatomic, retain) IBOutlet UILabel *screenText; - (IBAction)buttonPressed:(id)sender; - (void)collect:(NSString *)digitz; - (void)add:(int)num; - (void)sub:(int)num; - (void)multiply:(int)num; - (void)equate:(int)num; @end

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  • How to set which version of the VC++ runtime Visual Studio 2005 targets

    - by TallGuy
    I have an application that contains a VC++ project (along with C# projects). Previously, (i.e. during the last year or so) when a build has been done, Visual Studio 2005 appears to be targeting the VC++ runtime version 8.0.50727.762. At least, that is what the Assembly.dll.intermediate.manifest file is telling me: <?xml version='1.0' encoding='UTF-8' standalone='yes'?> <assembly xmlns='urn:schemas-microsoft-com:asm.v1' manifestVersion='1.0'> <dependency> <dependentAssembly> <assemblyIdentity type='win32' name='Microsoft.VC80.CRT' version='8.0.50727.762' processorArchitecture='x86' publicKeyToken='1fc8b3b9a1e18e3b' /> </dependentAssembly> </dependency> </assembly> This version number matches the Visual Studio 2005 version number. The application worked fine when deployed to the webserver. The sun was shining, the birds were singing and all was right with the world. Now something has changed. I don't know what - a security patch, an obscure Visual Studio setting or something. Now Visual Studio 2005 seems to be targeting the wrong version of the VC++ runtime: <?xml version='1.0' encoding='UTF-8' standalone='yes'?> <assembly xmlns='urn:schemas-microsoft-com:asm.v1' manifestVersion='1.0'> <dependency> <dependentAssembly> <assemblyIdentity type='win32' name='Microsoft.VC80.CRT' version='8.0.50727.4053' processorArchitecture='x86' publicKeyToken='1fc8b3b9a1e18e3b' /> </dependentAssembly> </dependency> </assembly> When I deploy the application to the webserver, I get the dreaded This application has failed to start because the application configuration is incorrect. Reinstalling the application may fix this problem. (Exception from HRESULT: 0x800736B1) error. This problem occurs even when I recompile previous versions of the application. I can absolutely guarantee that nothing at all has changed in the solution - we zip up the entire contents of the solution as part of the build process and archive it. I have unzipped a number of these to a temp directory, verified that the previous manifest file refers to 8.0.50727.762, recompiled using exactly the same command at the command line and then verified that the new manifest file now refers to 8.0.50727.4053. I am using Microsoft Visual Studio 2005 Version 8.0.50727.762 (SP.050727-7600) and Microsoft Visual C++ 2005 77646-008-0000007-41610. Why would Visual Studio revert to a previous version of the VC++ runtime? How do I specify which version it should use? What is going wrong here?

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  • ASP.NET MVC : Good Replacement for User Control?

    - by David Lively
    I found user controls to be incredibly useful when working with ASP.NET webforms. By encapsulating the code required for displaying a control with the markup, creation of reusable components was very straightforward and very, very useful. While MVC provides convenient separation of concerns, this seems to break encapsulation (ie, you can add a control without adding or using its supporting code, leading to runtime errors). Having to modify a controller every time I add a control to a view seems to me to integrate concerns, not separate them. I'd rather break the purist MVC ideology than give up the benefits of reusable, packaged controls. I need to be able to include components similar to webforms user controls throughout a site, but not for the entire site, and not at a level that belongs in a master page. These components should have their own code not just markup (to interact with the business layer), and it would be great if the page controller didn't need to know about the control. Since MVC user controls don't have codebehind, I can't see a good way to do this. Update FINALLY, a good (and, in retrospect, obvious) way to accomplish this. using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; using System.Web.Mvc; namespace K.ObjectModel.Controls { public class TestControl : ViewUserControl { protected override void Render(System.Web.UI.HtmlTextWriter writer) { writer.Write("Hello World"); base.Render(writer); } } } Create a new class which inherits ViewUserControl Override the .Render() method as shown above. Register the control via its associated ASCX as you would in a webForm: <%@ Register TagName="tn" TagPrefix="k" Src="~/Views/Navigation/LeftBar.ascx"%> Use the corresponding tag in whatever view or master page that you need: <k:tn runat="server"/> Make sure your .ascx inherits your new control: <%@ Control Language="C#" Inherits="K.ObjectModel.Controls.TestControl" %> Voila, you're up and running. This is tested with ASP.NET MVC 2, VS 2010 and .NET 4.0. Your custom tag references the ascx partial view, which inherits from the TestControl class. The control then overrides the Render() method, which is called to render the view, giving you complete control over the process from tag to output. Why does everyone try to make this so much harder than it has to be?

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  • Registry Problem

    - by Dominik
    I made a launcher for my game server. (World of Warcraft) I want to get the installpath of the game, browsed by the user. I'm using this code to browse, and get the installpath, then set some other strings from the installpath string, then just strore in my registry key. using System; using System.Drawing; using System.Reflection; using System.Collections; using System.ComponentModel; using System.Windows.Forms; using System.Data; using Microsoft.Win32; using System.IO; using System.Net.NetworkInformation; using System.Diagnostics; using System.Runtime; using System.Runtime.InteropServices; using System.Security; using System.Security.Cryptography; using System.Text; using System.Net; using System.Linq; using System.Net.Sockets; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Threading; namespace WindowsFormsApplication1 { public partial class Form1 : Form { public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); } string InstallPath, WoWExe, PatchPath; private void Form1_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { RegistryKey LocalMachineKey_Existence; MessageBox.Show("Browse your install location.", "Select Wow.exe"); OpenFileDialog BrowseInstallPath = new OpenFileDialog(); BrowseInstallPath.Filter = "wow.exe|*.exe"; if (BrowseInstallPath.ShowDialog() == DialogResult.OK) { InstallPath = System.IO.Path.GetDirectoryName(BrowseInstallPath.FileName); WoWExe = InstallPath + "\\wow.exe"; PatchPath = InstallPath + "\\Data\\"; LocalMachineKey_Existence = Registry.LocalMachine.CreateSubKey(@"SOFTWARE\ExistenceWoW"); LocalMachineKey_Existence.SetValue("InstallPathLocation", InstallPath); LocalMachineKey_Existence.SetValue("PatchPathLocation", PatchPath); LocalMachineKey_Existence.SetValue("WoWExeLocation", WoWExe); } } } } The problem is: On some computer, it doesnt stores like it should be. For example, your wow.exe is in C:\ASD\wow.exe, your select it with the browse windows, then the program should store it in the Existence registry key as C:\ASD\Data\ but it stores like this: C:\ASDData , so it forgots a backslash :S Look at this picture: http://img21.imageshack.us/img21/2829/regedita.jpg My program works cool on my PC, and on my friends pc, but on some pc this "bug" comes out :S I have windows 7, with .NEt 3.5 Please help me.

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  • How can I implement ASP.NET MVC without using Visual Studio?

    - by Cheeso
    I have seen ASP.NET MVC Without Visual Studio, which asks, Is it possible to produce a website based on ASP.NET MVC, without using Visual Studio? And the accepted answer is, yes. Ok, next question: how? Here's an analogy. If I want to create an ASP.NET Webforms page, I load up my favorite text editor, create a file named Something.aspx. Then I insert into that file, some boilerplate: <%@ Page Language="C#" Debug="true" Trace="false" Src="Sourcefile.cs" Inherits="My.Namespace.ContentsPage" %> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" xml:lang="en" lang="en"> <head> <title>Title goes here </title> <link rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" href="css/style.css"></link> <style type="text/css"> #elementid { font-size: 9pt; color: Navy; ... more css ... } </style> <script type="text/javascript" language='javascript'> // insert javascript here. </script> </head> <body> <asp:Literal Id='Holder' runat='server'/> <br/> <div id='msgs'></div> </body> </html> Then I also create the Sourcefile.cs file: namespace My.Namespace { using System; using System.Web; using System.Xml; // etc... public class ContentsPage : System.Web.UI.Page { protected System.Web.UI.WebControls.Literal Holder; void Page_Load(Object sender, EventArgs e) { // page load logic here } } } And that is a working ASPNET page, created in a text editor. Drop it into an IIS virtual directory, and it's working. What do I have to do, to make a basic, hello, World ASPNET MVC app, in a text editor? (without Visual Studio)

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  • Calculating rotation and translation matrices between two odometry positions for monocular linear triangulation

    - by user1298891
    Recently I've been trying to implement a system to identify and triangulate the 3D position of an object in a robotic system. The general outline of the process goes as follows: Identify the object using SURF matching, from a set of "training" images to the actual live feed from the camera Move/rotate the robot a certain amount Identify the object using SURF again in this new view Now I have: a set of corresponding 2D points (same object from the two different views), two odometry locations (position + orientation), and camera intrinsics (focal length, principal point, etc.) since it's been calibrated beforehand, so I should be able to create the 2 projection matrices and triangulate using a basic linear triangulation method as in Hartley & Zissermann's book Multiple View Geometry, pg. 312. Solve the AX = 0 equation for each of the corresponding 2D points, then take the average In practice, the triangulation only works when there's almost no change in rotation; if the robot even rotates a slight bit while moving (due to e.g. wheel slippage) then the estimate is way off. This also applies for simulation. Since I can only post two hyperlinks, here's a link to a page with images from the simulation (on the map, the red square is simulated robot position and orientation, and the yellow square is estimated position of the object using linear triangulation.) So you can see that the estimate is thrown way off even by a little rotation, as in Position 2 on that page (that was 15 degrees; if I rotate it any more then the estimate is completely off the map), even in a simulated environment where a perfect calibration matrix is known. In a real environment when I actually move around with the robot, it's worse. There aren't any problems with obtaining point correspondences, nor with actually solving the AX = 0 equation once I compute the A matrix, so I figure it probably has to do with how I'm setting up the two camera projection matrices, specifically how I'm calculating the translation and rotation matrices from the position/orientation info I have relative to the world frame. How I'm doing that right now is: Rotation matrix is composed by creating a 1x3 matrix [0, (change in orientation angle), 0] and then converting that to a 3x3 one using OpenCV's Rodrigues function Translation matrix is composed by rotating the two points (start angle) degrees and then subtracting the final position from the initial position, in order to get the robot's straight and lateral movement relative to its starting orientation Which results in the first projection matrix being K [I | 0] and the second being K [R | T], with R and T calculated as described above. Is there anything I'm doing really wrong here? Or could it possibly be some other problem? Any help would be greatly appreciated.

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  • clarification on the concept of "web service"

    - by udit
    Im a little confused on the varying definitions and implementations of web services available as implementations. Need some clarification please. Ones I have used till now: If a vendor gives me a specific format of XML that I can send populated with data to request and I make a simple HTTP POST over the internet passing in the XML String as the payload, is this a web service call ? If so, is there a specific name to it, this kind of web service ? Because obviously, it does not use anything like Axis, WSDL or SOAP to establish this connection. A variant of this is If the vendor gives me an XSD, I use JAXB to make a java class out of it and pass in the serialized version of the object, which eventually works out to be the same as option 1. RESTful web service: Vendor gives me a URL like http://restfulservice/products and I can make HTTP Requests to the URL and depending on what HTTP verb I use, the appropropriate action is called and the response sent over the wire. Ones I have only read about\ have a vague idea about SOAP. How does this work?.. Ive read the W3Schools tutorial and I undertsand that there is a very specific form of XML that is standardized according to W3C standards that we use to pass the same kind of messages as we did in option 1. But how does this work in real life? Vendor sends me what? Do I generate classes? Do I serialize some objects and http post them over to an address? Or do the generated objects themselves have connection methods that will do them for me? What about WSDL? When does a vendor send me WSDL and what do I do with it ? I guess I can generate classes from it. If yes, then what do I do with the generated classes ? When do I need that axis jar to generate classes from something that the vendor sends ? As you can see, I have some clear and other mostly vague ideas about the different kinds of web services available. would help if someone ould clarify and\or point to more real-world resources. I've looked a little bit into Java Web Services on the internet and the numerous four letter acronyms that get thrown at me make me dizzy. Thanks

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  • 404 with spring 3

    - by markjason72
    hi I am going through my first lessons with spring 3.I created a dynamic web app in eclipse with the following structure. spring3mvc \src\my.spring.HelloWorldController.java \WebContent | |-----WEB-INF\jsp\hello.jsp |-----index.jsp |-----web.xml |-----WEB-INF\spring-servlet.xml |-----WEB-INF\lib\...*.jar files I created the spring-servlet.xml as below <context:component-scan base-package="my.spring" /> <bean id="viewResolver" class="org.springframework.web.servlet.view.UrlBasedViewResolver"> <property name="viewClass" value="org.springframework.web.servlet.view.JstlView" /> <property name="prefix" value="/WEB-INF/jsp/" /> <property name="suffix" value=".jsp" /> </bean> and coded the controller package my.spring; import org.springframework.stereotype.Controller; import org.springframework.web.bind.annotation.RequestMapping; import org.springframework.web.servlet.ModelAndView; @Controller public class HelloWorldController { @RequestMapping("/hello") public ModelAndView helloWorld() { String message = "Hello World, Spring 3.0!"; return new ModelAndView("hello", "message", message); } } index.jsp has a link to hello view <html> <body> <a href="hello.html">Say Hello</a> </body> </html> finally in hello.jsp I have put <html> <body> ${message} </body> </html> My web.xml has <display-name>Spring3MVC</display-name> <welcome-file-list> <welcome-file>index.jsp</welcome-file> </welcome-file-list> <servlet> <servlet-name>spring</servlet-name> <servlet-class> org.springframework.web.servlet.DispatcherServlet </servlet-class> <load-on-startup>1</load-on-startup> </servlet> <servlet-mapping> <servlet-name>spring</servlet-name> <url-pattern>*.html</url-pattern> </servlet-mapping> When I run the app on Tomcat6 server( thru eclipse),I can see the index page at http://localhost:8080/Spring3MVC/ .It displays the link to hello page.When I click on it(http://localhost:8080/Spring3MVC/hello.html),I get a 404 error. message /Spring3MVC/hello.html description The requested resource (/Spring3MVC/hello.html) is not available. Any idea how I can solve this? thanks mark.

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  • Is Abstract Factory Pattern implemented correctly for given scenario.... ???

    - by Amit
    First thing... I am novice to pattern world, so correct me if wrong anywhere Scenario: There are multiple companies providing multiple products of diff size so there are 3 entities i.e. Companies, Their Product and size of product I have implement Abstract Pattern on this i.e. so that I will create instance of IProductFactory interface to get desired product... Is below implementation of Abstract Factory Pattern correct ??? If not then please correct the approach + Also tell me if any other pattern can be used for such scenario Thanks in advance... public enum Companies { Samsung = 0, LG = 1, Philips = 2, Sony = 3 } public enum Product { PlasmaTv = 0, DVD = 1 } public enum ProductSize { FortyTwoInch, FiftyFiveInch } interface IProductFactory { IPhilips GetPhilipsProduct(); ISony GetSonyProduct(); } interface ISony { string CreateProducts(Product product, ProductSize size); } interface IPhilips { string CreateProducts(Product product, ProductSize size); } class ProductFactory : IProductFactory { public IPhilips GetPhilipsProduct() { return new Philips(); } public ISony GetSonyProduct() { return new Sony(); } } class Philips : IPhilips { #region IPhilips Members public string CreateProducts(Product product, ProductSize size) {// I have ingnore size for now.... string output = string.Empty; if (product == Product.PlasmaTv) { output = "Plasma TV Created !!!"; } else if (product == Product.DVD) { output = "DVD Created !!!"; } return output; } #endregion } class Sony : ISony {// I have ingnore size for now.... #region ISony Members public string CreateProducts(Product product, ProductSize size) { string output = string.Empty; if (product == Product.PlasmaTv) { output = "Plasma TV Created !!!"; } else if (product == Product.DVD) { output = "DVD Created !!!"; } return output; } #endregion } IProductFactory prodFactory = new ProductFactory(); IPhilips philipsObj = prodFactory.GetPhilipsProduct(); MessageBox.Show(philipsObj.CreateProducts(Product.DVD, ProductSize.FortyTwoInch)); or //ISony sonyObj = prodFactory.GetSonyProduct(); //MessageBox.Show(sonyObj.CreateProducts(Product.DVD, ProductSize.FortyTwoInch));

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  • Getting key/value pairs from plist-style xml using simplexml in php

    - by Anthony
    Here is an example bit from the xml file: <array> <dict> <key>Name</key> <string>Joe Smith</string> <key>Type</key> <string>Profile</string> <key>Role</key> <string>User</string> <key>Some Number</key> <integer>1</integer> <key>Some Boolean</key> <true/> </dict> </array> I have two separate goals. The first is to extract an array from the dictnode that would look like: [Name] => Joe Smith [Type] => Profile [Role] => User [Some Number] => 1 [Some Boolean] => true It's not crucial that the boolean be included, so if that adds too much complexity, I'd rather just know how to deal with the others for now. The second goal is to be able to select the value node (<string>, <integer>,etc) so that I can change the value. I would need to select it based on the text value of the preceding key element. I think the following XPath should work: //key[.=$keyname]/following-sibling[1] But I'm not sure. Basically, this whole system that Apple uses seems logical, but totally contrary to the XML is supposed to work. If I ran the world, the original XML would look more like: <dict type="array"> <value key="Name" type="string">Joe Smith</value> <value key="Type" type="string">Profile</value> <value key="Role type="string">User</value> <value key="Some Number" type="integer">1</value> <value key="Some Boolean" type="boolean">true</value> </dict> But since it is fairly logical, I am wondering if I'm missing some obvious way of handling it.

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  • How to use Facebook graph API to retrieve fan photos uploaded to wall of fan page?

    - by Joe
    I am creating an external photo gallery using PHP and the Facebook graph API. It pulls thumbnails as well as the large image from albums on our Facebook Fan Page. Everything works perfect, except I'm only able to retrieve photos that an ADMIN posts to our page. (graph.facebook.com/myalbumid/photos) Is there a way to use graph api to load publicy uploaded photos from fans? I want to retrieve the pictures from the "Photos from" album, but trying to get the ID for the graph query is not like other albums... it looks like this: http://www.facebook.com/media/set/?set=o.116860675007039 Another note: The only way i've come close to retreiving this data is by using the "feed" option.. ie: graph.facebook.com/pageid/feed EDIT: This is about as far as I could get- it works, but has certain issues stated below. Maybe someone could expand on this, or provide a better solution. (Using FB PHP SDK) <?php require_once ('config.php'); // get all photos for album $photos = $facebook->api("/YourID/tagged"); $maxitem =10; $count = 0; foreach($photos['data'] as $photo) { if ($photo['type'] == "photo"): echo "<img src='{$photo['picture']}' />", "<br />"; endif; $count+= 1; if ($count >= "$maxitem") break; } ?> Issues with this: 1) The fact that I don't know a method for graph querying specific "types" of Tags, I had to run a conditional statement to display photos. 2) You cannot effectively use the "?limit=#" with this, because as I said the "tagged" query contains all types (photo, video, and status). So if you are going for a photo gallery and wish to avoid running an entire query by using ?limit, you will lose images. 3) The only content that shows up in the "tagged" query is from people that are not Admins of the page. This isn't the end of the world, but I don't understand why Facebook wouldn't allow yourself to be shown in this data as long as you posted it "as yourself" and not as the page.

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  • Renaming nodes and values with xslt

    - by T.K.
    Hello world, I'm new to xslt, and have a task that I'm not really sure where to go with. I want to rename nodes, but maintain the format all node declarations. In the actual context I'll be applying this to, I'll be doing a series of renames like this, but for the sake of brevity, the sample I've written up only involves renaming one node. I am using XSL 1.0. Input: <variables> <var> <RENAME> a </RENAME> </var> <var RENAME='b'/> <var> <DO_NOT_TOUCH> c </DO_NOT_TOUCH> </var> <var DO_NOT_TOUCH='d'/> </variables> Desired Output: <variables> <var> <DONE> a </DONE> </var> <var DONE='b'/> <var> <DO_NOT_TOUCH> c </DO_NOT_TOUCH> </var> <var DO_NOT_TOUCH='d'/> </variables> My xslt: <xsl:template match="RENAME"> <RENAMED> <xsl:apply-templates select="@*|node()"/> </RENAMED> </xsl:template> <xsl:template match="@*|node()"> <xsl:copy> <xsl:apply-templates select="@*|node()"/> </xsl:copy> </xsl:template> Current Output <variables> <var> <RENAMED> a </RENAMED> </var> <var RENAME="b"> </var> <var> <DO_NOT_TOUCH> c </DO_NOT_TOUCH> </var> <var DO_NOT_TOUCH="d"> </var> </variables>

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  • Stretch panel with splitter

    - by user1153896
    I want to implement a basic WPF layout with three panels and two splitters (Horizontal and Vertical splitter). Two panels on the left and on the bottom has to be callapsable and one panel has to stretch accordingly. Here is a simple XAML: <Grid> <Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <ColumnDefinition Width="*"/> <ColumnDefinition Width="5"/> <ColumnDefinition Width="*"/> </Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <StackPanel Background="Aqua" Grid.Column="0" Name="leftPanel" > <TextBlock FontSize="35" Foreground="#58290A" TextWrapping="Wrap">Left Hand Side</TextBlock> </StackPanel> <GridSplitter Grid.Column="1" HorizontalAlignment="Stretch"/> <Grid Grid.Column="2" HorizontalAlignment="Stretch" VerticalAlignment="Stretch"> <Grid.RowDefinitions> <RowDefinition Height="*" /> <RowDefinition Height="5" /> <RowDefinition Height="*" /> </Grid.RowDefinitions> <StackPanel HorizontalAlignment="Stretch" VerticalAlignment="Stretch"> <Label Content="... Clien Area .. Has to Stretch vertically and horizontally" Margin="10"></Label> <Button Click="LeftButton_Click" Margin="10">Close Left Panel</Button> <Button Click="BottomButton_Click" Margin="10">Close Bottom Panel</Button> </StackPanel> <GridSplitter Grid.Row="1" Background="Gray" HorizontalAlignment="Stretch"/> <ListBox Grid.Row="2" Background="Violet" Name="bottomPanel"> <ListBoxItem>Hello</ListBoxItem> <ListBoxItem>World</ListBoxItem> </ListBox> </Grid> </Grid> and codebehind: private void LeftButton_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { leftPanel.Visibility = (leftPanel.Visibility == System.Windows.Visibility.Visible)? System.Windows.Visibility.Collapsed : System.Windows.Visibility.Visible; } private void BottomButton_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { bottomPanel.Visibility = (bottomPanel.Visibility == System.Windows.Visibility.Visible) ? System.Windows.Visibility.Collapsed : System.Windows.Visibility.Visible; } This code doesn't work as expected :(. Any WPF experts around? to suggest a solution for having Client Area (stretched) and splitter at the same time? DockPanel will work perfectly, but I need splitter! Thanks.

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  • Delphi Unit local variables - how to make each instance unique?

    - by Justin
    Ok, this, I'm sure is something simple that is easy to do. The problem : I've inherited scary spaghetti code and am slowly trying to better it when new features need adding - generally when a refactor makes adding the new feature neater. I've got a bunch of code I'm packing into a single unit which, in different places in the application, controls the same physical thing in the outside world. The control appears in several places in the application and operates slightly differently in each instance. What I've done is to create a unit with all of the features I need which I can simply drop, as a frame, into each form that requires it. Each form then uses the unit's interface methods to customise the behaviour for each instance. The problem within the problem : In the unit in question (the frame) I have a variable declared in the IMPLEMENTATION section - local to the unit. I also have a procedure, declared in the TYPE section which takes an argument and assigns that argument to the local variable in question - each form passes a unique variable to each instance of the frame/unit. What I want it to do is for each instance of the frame to keep its own version of that variable, different from the others, and use that to define how it operates. What seems to be happening, however, is that all instances are using the same value, even if I explicitly pass each instance a different variable. ie: Unit FlexibleUnit; interface uses //the uses stuff type TFlexibleUnit=class(TFrame) //declarations including procedure makeThisInstanceX(passMeTheVar:integer); private // public // end; implementation uses //the uses var myLocalVar; procedure makeThisInstanceX(passMeTheVar:integer); begin myLocalVar:=passMeTheVar; end; //other procedures using myLocalVar //etc to the end; Now somewhere in another Form I've dropped this Frame onto the Design pane, sometimes two of these frames on one Form, and have it declared in the proper places, etc. Each is unique in that : ThisFlexibleUnit : TFlexibleUnit; ThatFlexibleUnit : TFlexibleUnit; and when I do a: ThisFlexibleUnit.makeThisInstanceX(var1); //want to behave in way "var1" ThatFlexibleUnit.makeThisInstanceX(var2); //want to behave in way "var2" it seems that they both share the same variable "myLocalVar". Am I doing this wrong, in principle? If this is the correct method then it's a matter of debugging what I have (which is too huge to post) but if this is not correct in principle then is there a way to do what I am suggesting? Thanks in advance, Stack Overflow - you guys (and gals!) are legendary.

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  • AJAX XML reply node value iteration

    - by XpiritO
    Hi there, guys. I would really appreciate to get your help on this, as I can't seem to detect and solve the problem I'm having with an AJAX functionality on a site that I'm currently developing. I have a webform that makes an asynchronous call to a handler (.ashx) that delivers a XML response that is later processed by a Javascript client-side function that places it's contents into the user-interface. I'm attaching an example of the response generated by my handler, and what I would like to know is how can I get all the <body> element innerHTML (with the text and child nodes) contents to append it to a <span> element on the user-interface. Can anyone help me out with this? XML Response returned by the handler (checked via Firebug): <message> <content> <messageId>2</messageId> <from>Barack Obama</from> <fromMail>[email protected]</fromMail> <subject>Yes, we can... get World Peace</subject> <body>Hello, dear citizen. I'm sending you this message to invite you to join us! <a href="http://www.whitehouse.gov">Test link</a> Thank you for your time.</body> </content> </message> Client-side Javascript function to affect the user-interface innerHTML property with the data returned via AJAX: function GetMessageContentsCallback(args, resp) { //XML Parser try { //Internet Explorer xmlDoc = new ActiveXObject("Microsoft.XMLDOM"); xmlDoc.async = "false"; xmlDoc.loadXML(resp); } catch (e) { parser = new DOMParser(); xmlDoc = parser.parseFromString(resp, "text/xml"); } var msgReply = xmlDoc.getElementsByTagName('message')[0]; var ajaxRespondeBodyInnerHTML = msgReply.getElementsByTagName(body)[0].firstChild.nodeValue; //this currently only delivers inner text content, without the <a href... bit and subsequent text document.getElementById("bodySpan").innerHTML = ajaxRespondeBodyInnerHTML; }

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  • How to develop a Jquery plugin to find the first child that match with a selector?

    - by Ivan
    I'm trying to make a Jquery plugin (findFirst()) to find the first child with a given characteristics (something in the middle of the find() and children() functions. For instance, given this markup: <div id="start"> <div> <span>Hello world</span> <ul class="valid-result"> ... </ul> <ul class="valid-result"> <li> <ul class="not-a-result"> ... </ul> </li> </ul> <div> <ul class="valid-result"> ... </ul> </div> </div> </div> If you ask for $("#start").findFirst('ul') it should return all ul lists that I have tagged with the valid-result class, but not the ul with class not-a-result. It is, this function has to find the first elements that matches with a given selector, but not the inner elements that match this selector. This is the first time I try to code a Jquery function, and what I've already read doesn't helps me too much with this. The function I have developed is this: jQuery.fn.findFirst = function (sel) { return this.map(function() { return $(this).children().map(function() { if ($(this).is(sel)) { return $(this); } else { return $(this).findFirst(sel); } }); }); } It works in the sense it tries to return the expected result, but the format it returns the result is very rare for me. I suppose the problem is something I don't understand about Jquery. Here you have the JFiddle where I'm testing. EDIT The expected result after $("#start").findFirst('ul') is a set with all UL that have the class 'valid-result' BUT it's not possible to use this class because it doesn't exist in a real case (it's just to try to explain the result). This is not equivalent to first(), because first returns only one element!

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  • Implementing coroutines in Java

    - by JUST MY correct OPINION
    This question is related to my question on existing coroutine implementations in Java. If, as I suspect, it turns out that there is no full implementation of coroutines currently available in Java, what would be required to implement them? As I said in that question, I know about the following: You can implement "coroutines" as threads/thread pools behind the scenes. You can do tricksy things with JVM bytecode behind the scenes to make coroutines possible. The so-called "Da Vinci Machine" JVM implementation has primitives that make coroutines doable without bytecode manipulation. There are various JNI-based approaches to coroutines also possible. I'll address each one's deficiencies in turn. Thread-based coroutines This "solution" is pathological. The whole point of coroutines is to avoid the overhead of threading, locking, kernel scheduling, etc. Coroutines are supposed to be light and fast and to execute only in user space. Implementing them in terms of full-tilt threads with tight restrictions gets rid of all the advantages. JVM bytecode manipulation This solution is more practical, albeit a bit difficult to pull off. This is roughly the same as jumping down into assembly language for coroutine libraries in C (which is how many of them work) with the advantage that you have only one architecture to worry about and get right. It also ties you down to only running your code on fully-compliant JVM stacks (which means, for example, no Android) unless you can find a way to do the same thing on the non-compliant stack. If you do find a way to do this, however, you have now doubled your system complexity and testing needs. The Da Vinci Machine The Da Vinci Machine is cool for experimentation, but since it is not a standard JVM its features aren't going to be available everywhere. Indeed I suspect most production environments would specifically forbid the use of the Da Vinci Machine. Thus I could use this to make cool experiments but not for any code I expect to release to the real world. This also has the added problem similar to the JVM bytecode manipulation solution above: won't work on alternative stacks (like Android's). JNI implementation This solution renders the point of doing this in Java at all moot. Each combination of CPU and operating system requires independent testing and each is a point of potentially frustrating subtle failure. Alternatively, of course, I could tie myself down to one platform entirely but this, too, makes the point of doing things in Java entirely moot. So... Is there any way to implement coroutines in Java without using one of these four techniques? Or will I be forced to use the one of those four that smells the least (JVM manipulation) instead?

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  • Help With LINQ: Mixed Joins and Specifying Default Values

    - by Corey O.
    I am trying to figure out how to do a mixed-join in LINQ with specific access to 2 LINQ objects. Here is an example of how the actual TSQL query might look: SELECT * FROM [User] AS [a] INNER JOIN [GroupUser] AS [b] ON [a].[UserID] = [b].[UserID] INNER JOIN [Group] AS [c] ON [b].[GroupID] = [c].[GroupID] LEFT JOIN [GroupEntries] AS [d] ON [a].[GroupID] = [d].[GroupID] WHERE [a].[UserID] = @UserID At the end, basically what I would like is an enumerable object full of GroupEntry objects. What am interested is the last two tables/objects in this query. I will be displaying Groups as a group header, and all of the Entries underneath their group heading. If there are no entries for a group, I still want to see that group as a header without any entries. Here's what I have so far: So from that I'd like to make a function: public void DisplayEntriesByUser(int user_id) { MyDataContext db = new MyDataContext(); IEnumberable<GroupEntries> entries = ( from user in db.Users where user.UserID == user_id join group_user in db.GroupUsers on user.UserID = group_user.UserID into a from join1 in a join group in db.Groups on join1.GroupID equals group.GroupID into b from join2 in b join entry in db.Entries.DefaultIfEmpty() on join2.GroupID equals entry.GroupID select entry ); Group last_group_id = 0; foreach(GroupEntry entry in entries) { if (last_group_id == 0 || entry.GroupID != last_group_id) { last_group_id = entry.GroupID; System.Console.WriteLine("---{0}---", entry.Group.GroupName.ToString().ToUpper()); } if (entry.EntryID) { System.Console.WriteLine(" {0}: {1}", entry.Title, entry.Text); } } } The example above does not work quite as expected. There are 2 problems that I have not been able to solve: I still seem to be getting an INNER JOIN instead of a LEFT JOIN on the last join. I am not getting any empty results, so groups without entries do not appear. I need to figure out a way so that I can fill in the default values for blank sets of entries. That is, if there is a group without an entry, I would like to have a mostly blank entry returned, except that I'd want the EntryID to be null or 0, the GroupID to be that of of the empty group that it represents, and I'd need a handle on the entry.Group object (i.e. it's parent, empty Group object). Any help on this would be greatly appreciated. Note: Table names and real-world representation were derived purely for this example, but their relations simplify what I'm trying to do.

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  • Making Global Struct in C++ Program

    - by mosg
    Hello world! I am trying to make global structure, which will be seen from any part of the source code. I need it for my big Qt project, where some global variables needed. Here it is: 3 files (global.h, dialog.h & main.cpp). For compilation I use Visual Studio (Visual C++). global.h #ifndef GLOBAL_H_ #define GLOBAL_H_ typedef struct TNumber { int g_nNumber; } TNum; TNum Num; #endif dialog.h #ifndef DIALOG_H_ #define DIALOG_H_ #include <iostream> #include "global.h" using namespace std; class ClassB { public: ClassB() {}; void showNumber() { Num.g_nNumber = 82; cout << "[ClassB][Change Number]: " << Num.g_nNumber << endl; } }; #endif and main.cpp #include <iostream> #include "global.h" #include "dialog.h" using namespace std; class ClassA { public: ClassA() { cout << "Hello from class A!\n"; }; void showNumber() { cout << "[ClassA]: " << Num.g_nNumber << endl; } }; int main(int argc, char **argv) { ClassA ca; ClassB cb; ca.showNumber(); cb.showNumber(); ca.showNumber(); cout << "Exit.\n"; return 0; } When I`m trying to build this little application, compilation works fine, but the linker gives me back an error: 1>dialog.obj : error LNK2005: "struct TNumber Num" (?Num@@3UTNumber@@A) already defined in main.obj Is there exists any solution? Thanks.

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  • Problem separating C++ code in header, inline functions and code.

    - by YuppieNetworking
    Hello all, I have the simplest code that I want to separate in three files: Header file: class and struct declarations. No implementations at all. Inline functions file: implementation of inline methods in header. Code file: normal C++ code for more complicated implementations. When I was about to implement an operator[] method, I couldn't manage to compile it. Here is a minimal example that shows the same problem: Header (myclass.h): #ifndef _MYCLASS_H_ #define _MYCLASS_H_ class MyClass { public: MyClass(const int n); virtual ~MyClass(); double& operator[](const int i); double operator[](const int i) const; void someBigMethod(); private: double* arr; }; #endif /* _MYCLASS_H_ */ Inline functions (myclass-inl.h): #include "myclass.h" inline double& MyClass::operator[](const int i) { return arr[i]; } inline double MyClass::operator[](const int i) const { return arr[i]; } Code (myclass.cpp): #include "myclass.h" #include "myclass-inl.h" #include <iostream> inline MyClass::MyClass(const int n) { arr = new double[n]; } inline MyClass::~MyClass() { delete[] arr; } void MyClass::someBigMethod() { std::cout << "Hello big method that is not inlined" << std::endl; } And finally, a main to test it all: #include "myclass.h" #include <iostream> using namespace std; int main(int argc, char *argv[]) { MyClass m(123); double x = m[1]; m[1] = 1234; cout << "m[1]=" << m[1] << endl; x = x + 1; return 0; } void nothing() { cout << "hello world" << endl; } When I compile it, it says: main.cpp:(.text+0x1b): undefined reference to 'MyClass::MyClass(int)' main.cpp:(.text+0x2f): undefined reference to 'MyClass::operator[](int)' main.cpp:(.text+0x49): undefined reference to 'MyClass::operator[](int)' main.cpp:(.text+0x65): undefined reference to 'MyClass::operator[](int)' However, when I move the main method to the MyClass.cpp file, it works. Could you guys help me spot the problem? Thank you.

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  • [N]Hibernate: view-like fetching properties of associated class

    - by chiccodoro
    (Felt quite helpless in formulating an appropriate title...) In my C# app I display a list of "A" objects, along with some properties of their associated "B" objects and properties of B's associated "C" objects: A.Name B.Name B.SomeValue C.Name Foo Bar 123 HelloWorld Bar Hello 432 World ... To clarify: A has an FK to B, B has an FK to C. (Such as, e.g. BankAccount - Person - Company). I have tried two approaches to load these properties from the database (using NHibernate): A fast approach and a clean approach. My eventual question is how to do a fast & clean approach. Fast approach: Define a view in the database which joins A, B, C and provides all these fields. In the A class, define properties "BName", "BSomeValue", "CName" Define a hibernate mapping between A and the View, whereas the needed B and C properties are mapped with update="false" insert="false" and do actually stem from B and C tables, but Hibernate is not aware of that since it uses the view. This way, the listing only loads one object per "A" record, which is quite fast. If the code tries to access the actual associated property, "A.B", I issue another HQL query to get B, set the property and update the faked BName and BSomeValue properties as well. Clean approach: There is no view. Class A is mapped to table A, B to B, C to C. When loading the list of A, I do a double left-join-fetch to get B and C as well: from A a left join fetch a.B left join fetch a.B.C B.Name, B.SomeValue and C.Name are accessed through the eagerly loaded associations. The disadvantage of this approach is that it gets slower and takes more memory, since it needs to created and map 3 objects per "A" record: An A, B, and C object each. Fast and clean approach: I feel somehow uncomfortable using a database view that hides a join and treat that in NHibernate as if it was a table. So I would like to do something like: Have no views in the database. Declare properties "BName", "BSomeValue", "CName" in class "A". Define the mapping for A such that NHibernate fetches A and these properties together using a join SQL query as a database view would do. The mapping should still allow for defining lazy many-to-one associations for getting A.B.C My questions: Is this possible? Is it [un]artful? Is there a better way?

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  • Any thoughts on how to create a true 'punch-out' area in a Sprite?

    - by rhtx
    I've been working on this for awhile, now. You might also call it a 'reverse mask', or an 'inverse mask'. Basically, I'm creating a view window within a display object. I need to allow objects on the stage that are under the window to be able to interact with the mouse. This is similar to a WPF question: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/740994/use-wpf-object-to-punch-hole-in-another, which has a much shorter write-up. I've got a Class called PunchOutShield, which creates a Sprite that covers the stage (or over some desired area). The Sprite's Graphics object is filled using the color and transparency of Flex's modal screen. The result is a screen that looks like the screen which appears behind a modal PopUp. PunchOutShield has a method called punch, which takes two arguments - the first is a Shape object, which defines the shape of the punch-through area; the second is a Point object, which indicates where to position the punch-through area. It took some experimenting, but I found that I can successfully create a punch-out area (i.e. - the modal screen does not display within the bounds of the given Shape). To do this, I set cacheAsBitmap to true on the Sprite that is used to create the modal screen, and also on the Shape object, which is added to the modal screen Sprite's displayList. If I set the blend mode of the Shape to ERASE, a completely transparent area is created in the modal screen. So far, great. The problem is that Shape does not subclass InteractiveObject, so there is no way to set mouseEnabled = false on it. And so, it prevents interaction between the mouse and any objects that are visible through the punch-out area. On top of that, InteractiveObject isn't available to look at, so I can't see if there is a way to borrow what it's doing to provide the mouseEnabled functionality and apply it to a subclass of Shape. I've tried using another Sprite object, rather than a Shape object, but the blending doesn't work out correctly. I'm not sure why there is a difference, but the Shape object seems to somehow combine with the parenting Sprite, allowing the ERASE blendMode to effect the desired punch-out visual appearance. It wouldn't be the end of the world if I had to draw up the screen with a series of rectangles so that the punch-out area was just simply not drawn, but that approach won't work if the punch-out area is complex. Or round. Any thoughts on this approach, or on an alternative approach?

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  • c++ templates: problem with member specialization

    - by ChAoS
    I am attempting to create a template "AutoClass" that create an arbitrary class with an arbitrary set of members, such as: AutoClass<int,int,double,double> a; a.set(1,1); a.set(0,2); a.set(3,99.7); std::cout << "Hello world! " << a.get(0) << " " << a.get(1) << " " << a.get(3) << std::endl; By now I have an AutoClass with a working "set" member: class nothing {}; template < typename T1 = nothing, typename T2 = nothing, typename T3 = nothing, typename T4 = nothing, typename T5 = nothing, typename T6 = nothing> class AutoClass; template <> class AutoClass<nothing, nothing, nothing, nothing, nothing, nothing> { public: template <typename U> void set(int n,U v){} }; template < typename T1, typename T2, typename T3, typename T4, typename T5, typename T6> class AutoClass: AutoClass<T2,T3,T4,T5,T6> { public: T1 V; template <typename U> void set(int n,U v) { if (n <= 0) V = v; else AutoClass<T2,T3,T4,T5,T6>::set(n-1,v); } }; and I started to have problems implementing the corresponding "get". This approach doesn't compile: template < typename T1, typename T2, typename T3, typename T4, typename T5, typename T6> class AutoClass: AutoClass<T2,T3,T4,T5,T6> { public: T1 V; template <typename U> void set(int n,U v) { if (n <= 0) V = v; else AutoClass<T2,T3,T4,T5,T6>::set(n-1,v); } template <typename W> W get(int n) { if (n <= 0) return V; else return AutoClass<T2,T3,T4,T5,T6>::get(n-1); } template <> T1 get(int n) { if (n <= 0) return V; else return AutoClass<T2,T3,T4,T5,T6>::get(n-1); } }; Besides, it seems I need to implement get for the <nothing, nothing, nothing, nothing, nothing, nothing> specialization. Any Idea on how to solve this?

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