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  • How do I use PackageManager.addPreferredActivity()?

    - by afonseca
    In SDK 1.5 I was using the PackageManager class to set the preferred home screen to be my app using PackageManager.addPackageToPreferred(). In the new SDK (using 2.1) this has been deprecated so I'm trying to use addPreferredActivity() for the same result but it's not working as expected. Some necessary background. I'm writing a lock screen replacement app so I want the home key to launch my app (which will already be running, hence having the effect of disabling the key). When the user "unlocks" the screen I intend to restore the mapping so everything works as normal. In my AndroidManifest.xml I have: <intent-filter> <action android:name="android.intent.action.MAIN" /> <category android:name="android.intent.category.LAUNCHER" /> <category android:name="android.intent.category.HOME"/> <category android:name="android.intent.category.DEFAULT" /> </intent-filter> <uses-permission android:name="android.permission.SET_PREFERRED_APPLICATIONS"> </uses-permission> In my code I have the following snippet: // Set as home activity // This is done so we can appear to disable the Home key. PackageManager pm = getPackageManager(); //pm.addPackageToPreferred(getPackageName()); IntentFilter filter = new IntentFilter("android.intent.action.MAIN"); filter.addCategory("android.intent.category.HOME"); filter.addCategory("android.intent.category.DEFAULT"); ComponentName[] components = new ComponentName[] { new ComponentName("com.android.launcher", ".Launcher") }; Context context = getApplicationContext(); ComponentName component = new ComponentName(context.getPackageName(), MyApp.class.getName()); pm.clearPackagePreferredActivities("com.android.launcher"); pm.addPreferredActivity(filter, IntentFilter.MATCH_CATEGORY_EMPTY, components, component); The resulting behavior is that the app chooser comes up when I press the Home key, which indicates that the clearPackagePreferredActivities() call worked but my app did not get added as the preferred. Also, the first line in the log below says something about "dropping preferred activity for Intent": 04-06 02:34:42.379: INFO/PackageManager(1017): Result set changed, dropping preferred activity for Intent { act=android.intent.action.MAIN cat=[android.intent.category.HOME] flg=0x10200000 } type null 04-06 02:34:42.379: INFO/ActivityManager(1017): Starting activity: Intent { act=android.intent.action.MAIN cat=[android.intent.category.HOME] flg=0x10200000 cmp=android/com.android.internal.app.ResolverActivity } Does anyone know what this first log message means? Maybe I'm not using the API correctly, any ideas? Any help would be greatly appreciated.

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  • Delphi SOAP Envelope and WCF

    - by Chris
    Hi all, I am working on a system that provides a soap interface. One of the systems that are going to use the interface is coded in Delphi 7. The web service is developed with WCF, basic http binding, SOAP 1.1. If I use SOAP UI (JAVA), the service works properly. But Delphi seems to do special things here ;) This is how the message looks like in SOAP UI: <soapenv:Envelope xmlns:soapenv="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/envelope/" xmlns:ser="http://services.xxx.de/xxx"> <soapenv:Header/> <soapenv:Body> <ser:GetCustomer> <!--Optional:--> <ser:GetCustomerRequest> <!-- this is a data contract --> <ser:Id>?</ser:Id> </ser:GetCustomerRequest> </ser:GetCustomer> </soapenv:Body> </soapenv:Envelope> I am not a delphi developer , but I developed a simple test client to see what's going wrong. This what Delphi sends as a SOAP envelope. <SOAP-ENV:Envelope xmlns:SOAP-ENV="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/envelope/" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:SOAP-ENC="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/encoding/"> <SOAP-ENV:Body SOAP-ENV:encodingStyle="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/encoding/" xmlns:NS2="http://services.xxx.de/xxx"> <NS1:GetCustomer xmlns:NS1="http://services.xxx.de/xxx"> <GetCustomerRequest href="#1"/> </NS1:GetCustomer> <NS2:GetCustomerRequest id="1" xsi:type="NS2:GetCustomerRequest"> <Id xsi:type="xsd:int">253</Id> </NS2:GetCustomerRequest> </SOAP-ENV:Body> </SOAP-ENV:Envelope> WCF throws an error that is in German language... ;) Es wurde das Endelement "Body" aus Namespace "http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/envelope/" erwartet. Gefunden wurde "Element "NS2:GetCustomerRequest" aus Namespace "http://services.xxx.de/xxx"". Zeile 1, Position 599. Means something like The Body was expected. But instead the Element "NS2:GetCustomerReques" was found. Now my questions is: Can I somehow change the way Delphi creates the envelope? Or are the ways to make WCF work with such message formats? Any help is greatly appreciated!

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  • Why is drawing to OnPaint graphics faster than image graphics?

    - by Tesserex
    I'm looking for a way to speed up the drawing of my game engine, which is currently the significant bottleneck, and is causing slowdowns. I'm on the verge of converting it over to XNA, but I just noticed something. Say I have a small image that I've loaded. Image img = Image.FromFile("mypict.png"); We have a picturebox on the screen we want to draw on. So we have a handler. pictureBox1.Paint += new PaintEventHandler(pictureBox1_Paint); I want our loaded image to be tiled on the picturebox (this is for a game, after all). Why on earth is this code: void pictureBox1_Paint(object sender, PaintEventArgs e) { for (int y = 0; y < 16; y++) for (int x = 0; x < 16; x++) e.Graphics.DrawImage(image, x * 16, y * 16, 16, 16); } over 25 TIMES FASTER than this code: Image buff = new Bitmap(256, 256, PixelFormat.Format32bppPArgb); // actually a form member void pictureBox1_Paint(object sender, PaintEventArgs e) { using (Graphics g = Graphics.FromImage(buff)) { for (int y = 0; y < 16; y++) for (int x = 0; x < 16; x++) g.DrawImage(image, x * 16, y * 16, 16, 16); } e.Graphics.DrawImage(buff, 0, 0, 256, 256); } To eliminate the obvious, I've tried commenting out the last e.Graphics.DrawImage (which means I don't see anything, but it gets rid a call that isn't in the first example). I've also left in the using block (needlessly) in the first example, but it's still just as blazingly fast. I've set properties of g to match e.Graphics - things like InterpolationMode, CompositingQuality, etc, but nothing I do bridges this incredible gap in performance. I can't find any difference between the two Graphics objects. What gives? My test with a System.Diagnostics.Stopwatch says that the first code snippet runs at about 7100 fps, while the second runs at a measly 280 fps. My reference image is VS2010ImageLibrary\Objects\png_format\WinVista\SecurityLock.png, which is 48x48 px, and which I modified to be 72 dpi instead of 96, but those made no difference either.

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  • How do I use the gravity vector to correctly transform scene for augmented reality?

    - by gpdawson
    I'm trying figure out how to get an OpenGL specified object to be displayed correctly according to the device orientation (ie. according to the gravity vector from the accelerometer, and heading from compass). The GLGravity sample project has an example which is almost like this (despite ignoring heading), but it has some glitches. For example, the teapot jumps 180deg as the device viewing angle crosses the horizon, and it also rotates spuriously if you tilt the device from portrait into landscape. This is fine for the context of this app, as it just shows off an object and it doesn't matter that it does these things. But it means that the code just doesn't work when you attempt to emulate real life viewing of an OpenGL object according to the device's orientation. What happens is that it almost works, but the heading rotation you apply from the compass gets "corrupted" by the spurious additional rotations seen in the GLGravity example project. Can anyone provide sample code that shows how to adjust correctly for the device orientation (ie. gravity vector), or to fix the GLGravity example so that it doesn't include spurious heading changes? //Clear matrix to be used to rotate from the current referential to one based on the gravity vector bzero(matrix, sizeof(matrix)); matrix[3][3] = 1.0; //Setup first matrix column as gravity vector matrix[0][0] = accel[0] / length; matrix[0][1] = accel[1] / length; matrix[0][2] = accel[2] / length; //Setup second matrix column as an arbitrary vector in the plane perpendicular to the gravity vector {Gx, Gy, Gz} defined by by the equation "Gx * x + Gy * y + Gz * z = 0" in which we arbitrarily set x=0 and y=1 matrix[1][0] = 0.0; matrix[1][1] = 1.0; matrix[1][2] = -accel[1] / accel[2]; length = sqrtf(matrix[1][0] * matrix[1][0] + matrix[1][1] * matrix[1][1] + matrix[1][2] * matrix[1][2]); matrix[1][0] /= length; matrix[1][1] /= length; matrix[1][2] /= length; //Setup third matrix column as the cross product of the first two matrix[2][0] = matrix[0][1] * matrix[1][2] - matrix[0][2] * matrix[1][1]; matrix[2][1] = matrix[1][0] * matrix[0][2] - matrix[1][2] * matrix[0][0]; matrix[2][2] = matrix[0][0] * matrix[1][1] - matrix[0][1] * matrix[1][0]; //Finally load matrix glMultMatrixf((GLfloat*)matrix);

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  • Detect user logout / shutdown in Python / GTK under Linux - SIGTERM/HUP not received

    - by Ivo Wetzel
    OK this is presumably a hard one, I've got an pyGTK application that has random crashes due to X Window errors that I can't catch/control. So I created a wrapper that restarts the app as soon as it detects a crash, now comes the problem, when the user logs out or shuts down the system, the app exits with status 1. But on some X errors it does so too. So I tried literally anything to catch the shutdown/logout, with no success, here's what I've tried: import pygtk import gtk import sys class Test(gtk.Window): def delete_event(self, widget, event, data=None): open("delete_event", "wb") def destroy_event(self, widget, data=None): open("destroy_event", "wb") def destroy_event2(self, widget, event, data=None): open("destroy_event2", "wb") def __init__(self): gtk.Window.__init__(self, gtk.WINDOW_TOPLEVEL) self.show() self.connect("delete_event", self.delete_event) self.connect("destroy", self.destroy_event) self.connect("destroy-event", self.destroy_event2) def foo(): open("add_event", "wb") def ex(): open("sys_event", "wb") from signal import * def clean(sig): f = open("sig_event", "wb") f.write(str(sig)) f.close() exit(0) for sig in (SIGABRT, SIGILL, SIGINT, SIGSEGV, SIGTERM): signal(sig, lambda *args: clean(sig)) def at(): open("at_event", "wb") import atexit atexit.register(at) f = Test() sys.exitfunc = ex gtk.quit_add(gtk.main_level(), foo) gtk.main() open("exit_event", "wb") Not one of these succeeds, is there any low level way to detect the system shutdown? Google didn't find anything related to that. I guess there must be a way, am I right? :/ EDIT: OK, more stuff. I've created this shell script: #!/bin/bash trap test_term TERM trap test_hup HUP test_term(){ echo "teeeeeeeeeerm" >~/Desktop/term.info exit 0 } test_hup(){ echo "huuuuuuuuuuup" >~/Desktop/hup.info exit 1 } while [ true ] do echo "idle..." sleep 2 done And also created a .desktop file to run it: [Desktop Entry] Name=Kittens GenericName=Kittens Comment=Kitten Script Exec=kittens StartupNotify=true Terminal=false Encoding=UTF-8 Type=Application Categories=Network;GTK; Name[de_DE]=Kittens Normally this should create the term file on logout and the hup file when it has been started with &. But not on my System. GDM doesn't care about the script at all, when I relog, it's still running. I've also tried using shopt -s huponexit, with no success. EDIT2: Also here's some more information aboute the real code, the whole thing looks like this: Wrapper Script, that catches errors and restarts the programm -> Main Programm with GTK Mainloop -> Background Updater Thread The flow is like this: Start Wrapper -> enter restart loop while restarts < max: -> start program -> check return code -> write error to file or exit the wrapper on 0 Now on shutdown, start program return 1. That means either it did hanup or the parent process terminated, the main problem is to figure out which of these two did just happen. X Errors result in a 1 too. Trapping in the shellscript doesn't work. If you want to take a look at the actual code check it out over at GitHub: http://github.com/BonsaiDen/Atarashii

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  • PostgreSQL to Data-Warehouse: Best approach for near-real-time ETL / extraction of data

    - by belvoir
    Background: I have a PostgreSQL (v8.3) database that is heavily optimized for OLTP. I need to extract data from it on a semi real-time basis (some-one is bound to ask what semi real-time means and the answer is as frequently as I reasonably can but I will be pragmatic, as a benchmark lets say we are hoping for every 15min) and feed it into a data-warehouse. How much data? At peak times we are talking approx 80-100k rows per min hitting the OLTP side, off-peak this will drop significantly to 15-20k. The most frequently updated rows are ~64 bytes each but there are various tables etc so the data is quite diverse and can range up to 4000 bytes per row. The OLTP is active 24x5.5. Best Solution? From what I can piece together the most practical solution is as follows: Create a TRIGGER to write all DML activity to a rotating CSV log file Perform whatever transformations are required Use the native DW data pump tool to efficiently pump the transformed CSV into the DW Why this approach? TRIGGERS allow selective tables to be targeted rather than being system wide + output is configurable (i.e. into a CSV) and are relatively easy to write and deploy. SLONY uses similar approach and overhead is acceptable CSV easy and fast to transform Easy to pump CSV into the DW Alternatives considered .... Using native logging (http://www.postgresql.org/docs/8.3/static/runtime-config-logging.html). Problem with this is it looked very verbose relative to what I needed and was a little trickier to parse and transform. However it could be faster as I presume there is less overhead compared to a TRIGGER. Certainly it would make the admin easier as it is system wide but again, I don't need some of the tables (some are used for persistent storage of JMS messages which I do not want to log) Querying the data directly via an ETL tool such as Talend and pumping it into the DW ... problem is the OLTP schema would need tweaked to support this and that has many negative side-effects Using a tweaked/hacked SLONY - SLONY does a good job of logging and migrating changes to a slave so the conceptual framework is there but the proposed solution just seems easier and cleaner Using the WAL Has anyone done this before? Want to share your thoughts?

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  • Jquery hiding all descendents of a ul tag...showing child elements as tree menu...

    - by Ronedog
    I want to hide all the descendents of the "ul" for my tree menu when the page loads up, then as each "main" "li" link is clicked display the direct child, and if the direct child has children (grandchild), when the the "Child" is clicked I want it to show the "grandchild" elements. should be simple, but some how I screwed things up and when i click on the main "li" (Heading 1) it displays all of the descendents (Including the "Sub page A - 1"), instead of just the direct children ("Sub Page A"). Which I think means the children, grandchildren, etc. were never hidden to begin with with the .hide(). What I really want to happen is to hide all the descendents (except the main top-level headings) and as I walk down the tree display the children as needed. Any tips on how to make this work? Here's the HTML: <ul id="nav"> <li>Heading 1 <ul> <li>Sub page A <ul> <li>Sub page A - 1</li> <li>Sub page A - 3</li> <li>Sub page A - 2</li> </ul> </li> <li>Sub page B</li> <li>Sub page C</li> </ul> </li> <li>Heading 2 <ul> <li>Sub page D</li> <li>Sub page E</li> <li>Sub page F</li> </ul> </li> <li>Heading 3 <ul> <li>Sub page G</li> <li>Sub page H</li> <li>Sub page I</li> </ul> </li> Here's my Jquery: $(function(){ $('#nav ul').hide(); //Supposed to Hide all <ul> tags for all descendents, but doesn't work $('#nav>li').mouseover(function(){ $(this).addClass("a_hand") }); //Add the class that displays the hand $('#nav>li').toggle(function() { $(this).find('ul').slideDown(200); }, function() { $(this).find('ul').slideUp(200); });//END TOGGLE });//END MAIN FUNCTION thanks.

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  • Issues with MIPS interrupt for tv remote simulator

    - by pred2040
    Hello I am writing a program for class to simulate a tv remote in a MIPS/SPIM enviroment. The functions of the program itself are unimportant as they worked fine before the interrupt so I left them all out. The gaol is basically to get a input from the keyboard by means of interupt, store it in $s7 and process it. The interrupt is causing my program to repeatedly spam the errors: Exception occurred at PC=0x00400068 Bad address in data/stack read: 0x00000004 Exception occurred at PC=0x00400358 Bad address in data/stack read: 0x00000000 program starts here .data msg_tvworking: .asciiz "tv is working\n" msg_sec: .asciiz "sec -- " msg_on: .asciiz "Power On" msg_off: .asciiz "Power Off" msg_channel: .asciiz " Channel " msg_volume: .asciiz " Volume " msg_sleep: .asciiz " Sleep Timer: " msg_dash: .asciiz "-\n" msg_newline: .asciiz "\n" msg_comma: .asciiz ", " array1: .space 400 # 400 bytes of storage for 100 channels array2: .space 400 # copy of above for sorting var1: .word 0 # 1 if 0-9 is pressed, 0 if not var2: .word 0 # stores number of channel (ex. 2-) var3: .word 0 # channel timer var4: .word 0 # 1 if s pressed once, 2 if twice, 0 if not var5: .word 0 # sleep wait timer var6: .word 0 # program timer var9: .float 0.01 # for channel timings .kdata var7: .word 10 var8: .word 11 .text .globl main main: li $s0, 300 li $s1, 0 # channel li $s2, 50 # volume li $s3, 1 # power - 1:on 0:off li $s4, 0 # sleep timer - 0:off li $s5, 0 # temporary li $s6, 0 # length of sleep period li $s7, 10000 # current key press li $t2, 0 # temp value not needed across calls li $t4, 0 interrupt data here mfc0 $a0, $12 ori $a0, 0xff11 mtc0 $a0, $12 lui $t0, 0xFFFF ori $a0, $0, 2 sw $a0, 0($t0) mainloop: # 1. get external input, and process it # input from interupt is taken from $a2 and placed in $s7 #for processing beq $a2, $0, next lw $s7, 4($a2) li $a2, 0 # call the process_input function here # jal process_input next: # 2. check sleep timer mainloopnext1: # 3. delay for 10ms jal delay_10ms jal check_timers jal channel_time # 4. print status lw $s5, var6 addi $s5, $s5, 1 sw $s5, var6 addi $s0, $s0, -1 bne $s0, $0, mainloopnext4 li $s0, 300 jal status_print mainloopnext4: j mainloop li $v0,10 # exit syscall -------------------------------------------------- status_print: seconds_stat: power_stat: on_stat: off_stat: channel_stat: volume_stat: sleep_stat: j $ra -------------------------------------------------- delay_10ms: li $t0, 6000 delay_10ms_loop: addi $t0, $t0, -1 bne $t0, $0, delay_10ms_loop jr $ra -------------------------------------------------- check_timers: channel_press: sleep_press: go_back_press: channel_check: channel_ignore: sleep_check: sleep_ignore: j $ra ------------------------------------------------ process_input: beq $s7, 112, power beq $s7, 117, channel_up beq $s7, 100, channel_down beq $s7, 108, volume_up beq $s7, 107, volume_down beq $s7, 115, sleep_init beq $s7, 118, history bgt $s7, 47, end_range jr $ra end_range: power: on: off: channel_up: over: channel_down: under: channel_message: channel_time: volume_up: volume_down: volume_message: sleep_init: sleep_incr: sleep: sleep_reset: history: digit_pad_init: digit_pad: jr $ra -------------------------------------------- interupt data here, followed closely from class .ktext 0x80000180 .set noat move $k1, $at .set at sw $v0, var7 sw $a0, var8 mfc0 $k0, $13 srl $a0, $k0, 2 andi $a0, $a0, 0x1f bne $a0, $zero, no_io lui $v0, 0xFFFF lw $a2, 4($v0) # keyboard data placed in $a2 no_io: mtc0 $0, $13 mfc0 $k0, $12 andi $k0, 0xfffd ori $k0, 0x11 mtc0 $k0, $12 lw $v0, var7 lw $a0, var8 .set noat move $at, $k1 .set at eret Thanks in advance.

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  • Java ReentrantReadWriteLocks - how to safely acquire write lock?

    - by Andrzej Doyle
    I am using in my code at the moment a ReentrantReadWriteLock to synchronize access over a tree-like structure. This structure is large, and read by many threads at once with occasional modifications to small parts of it - so it seems to fit the read-write idiom well. I understand that with this particular class, one cannot elevate a read lock to a write lock, so as per the Javadocs one must release the read lock before obtaining the write lock. I've used this pattern successfully in non-reentrant contexts before. What I'm finding however is that I cannot reliably acquire the write lock without blocking forever. Since the read lock is reentrant and I am actually using it as such, the simple code lock.getReadLock().unlock(); lock.getWriteLock().lock() can block if I have acquired the readlock reentrantly. Each call to unlock just reduces the hold count, and the lock is only actually released when the hold count hits zero. EDIT to clarify this, as I don't think I explained it too well initially - I am aware that there is no built-in lock escalation in this class, and that I have to simply release the read lock and obtain the write lock. My problem is/was that regardless of what other threads are doing, calling getReadLock().unlock() may not actually release this thread's hold on the lock if it acquired it reentrantly, in which case the call to getWriteLock().lock() will block forever as this thread still has a hold on the read lock and thus blocks itself. For example, this code snippet will never reach the println statement, even when run singlethreaded with no other threads accessing the lock: final ReadWriteLock lock = new ReentrantReadWriteLock(); lock.getReadLock().lock(); // In real code we would go call other methods that end up calling back and // thus locking again lock.getReadLock().lock(); // Now we do some stuff and realise we need to write so try to escalate the // lock as per the Javadocs and the above description lock.getReadLock().unlock(); // Does not actually release the lock lock.getWriteLock().lock(); // Blocks as some thread (this one!) holds read lock System.out.println("Will never get here"); So I ask, is there a nice idiom to handle this situation? Specifically, when a thread that holds a read lock (possibly reentrantly) discovers that it needs to do some writing, and thus wants to "suspend" its own read lock in order to pick up the write lock (blocking as required on other threads to release their holds on the read lock), and then "pick up" its hold on the read lock in the same state afterwards? Since this ReadWriteLock implementation was specifically designed to be reentrant, surely there is some sensible way to elevate a read lock to a write lock when the locks may be acquired reentrantly? This is the critical part that means the naive approach does not work.

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  • Application Architecture using WCF and System.AddIn

    - by Silverhalide
    A little background -- we're designing an application that uses a client/server architecture consisting of: A server which loads server-side modules, potentially developed by other teams. A client which loads corresponding client-side modules (also potentially developed by those other teams; each client module corresponds with a server module). The client side communicates with the server side for general coordination, and as well as module specific tasks. (At this point, I think that means client talks to server, client modules talk to server modules.) Environment is .NET 3.5, and client side is WPF. The deployment scenario introduces the potential to upgrade the server, any server-side module, the client, and any client-side module independently. However, being able to "work" using mismatched versions is required. I'm therefore concerned about versioning issues. My thinking so far: A Windows Service for the server. Using System.AddIn for the server to load and communicate with the server modules will give us the greatest flexibility in terms of version compatability between server and server modules. The server and each server module vend WCF services for communication to the client side; communication between the server and a server module, or between two server modules use the AddIn contracts. (One advantage of this is that a module can expose a different interface within the server and outside it.) Similarly, the client uses System.AddIn to find, load, and communicate with the client modules. Client communications with client modules is via the AddIn interface; communications from the client and from client modules to the server side are via WCF. For maximum resilience, each module will run in a separate app-domain. In general, the system has modest performance requirements, so marshalling and crossing process boundaries is not expected to be a performance concern. (Performance requirement is basically summed up by: don't get in the way of the other parts of the system not described here.) My questions are around the idea of having two different communication and versioning models to work with which will be an added burden on our developers. System.AddIn seems quite powerful, but also a little unwieldly. (I'm also unsure of Microsoft's commitment to it in the future.) On the other hand, I'm not thrilled with WCF's versioning capabilities. I have a feeling that it would be possible to implement the System.AddIn view/adapter/contract system within WCF, but being fairly new to both technologies, I would have no idea of where to start. So... Am I on the right track here? Am I doing this the hard way? Are there gotchas I need to be aware of on this road? Thanks.

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  • Can Spring.Net function as PostSharp?

    - by Alex K
    A few months back I've discovered PostSharp, and for a time, it was good. But then legal came back with an answer saying that they don't like the licence of the old versions. Then the department told me that 2.0's price was unacceptably high (for the number of seats we need)... I was extremely disapponted, but not disheartened. Can't be the only such framework, I thought. I kept looking for a replacement, but most of it was either dead, ill maintained (especially in documentation department), for academic use, or all of the above (I'm looking at you Aspect.Net) Then I've discovered Spring.Net, and for a time, it was good. I've been reading the documentation and it went on to paint what seemed to be a supperior picture of an AOP nirvana. No longer was I locked to attributes to mark where I wanted code interception to take place, but it could be configured in XML and changes to it didn't require re-compile. Great. Then I looked at the samples and saw the following, in every single usage scenario: // Create AOP proxy using Spring.NET IoC container. IApplicationContext ctx = ContextRegistry.GetContext(); ICommand command = (ICommand)ctx["myServiceCommand"]; command.Execute(); if (command.IsUndoCapable) { command.UnExecute(); } Why must the first two lines of code exist? It ruins everything. This means I cannot simply provide a user with a set of aspects and attributes or XML configs that they can use by sticking appropriate attributes on the appropriate methods/classes/etc or editing the match pattern in XML. They have to modify their program logic to make this work! Is there a way to make Spring.Net behave as PostSharp in this case? (i.e. user only needs to add attributes/XML config, not edit content of any methods. Alternatively, is there a worthy and functioning alternative to PostSharp? I've seen a few question titled like this on SO, but none of them were actually looking to replace PostSharp, they only wanted to supplement its functionality. I need full replacement.

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  • C++ vs Matlab vs Python as a main language for Computer Vision Postgraduate

    - by Hough
    Hi all, Firstly, sorry for a somewhat long question but I think that many people are in the same situation as me and hopefully they can also gain some benefit from this. I'll be starting my PhD very soon which involve the fields of computer vision, pattern recognition and machine learning. Currently, I'm using opencv (2.1) C++ interface and I especially like its powerful Mat class and the overloaded operations available for matrix and image seamless operations and transformations. I've also tried (and implemented many small vision projects) using opencv python interface (new bindings; opencv 2.1) and I really enjoy python's ability to integrate opencv, numpy, scipy and matplotlib. But recently, I went back to opencv C++ interface because I felt that the official python new bindings were not stable enough and no overloaded operations are available for matrices and images, not to mention the lack of machine learning modules and slow speeds in certain operations. I've also used Matlab extensively in the past and although I've used mex files and other means to speed up the program, I just felt that Matlab's performance was inadequate for real-time vision tasks, be it for fast prototyping or not. When the project becomes larger and larger, many tasks have to be re-written in C and compiled into Mex files increasingly and Matlab becomes nothing more than a glue language. Here comes the sub-questions: For postgrad studies in these fields (machine learning, vision, pattern recognition), what is your main or ideal programming language for rapid prototyping of ideas and testing algorithms contained in papers? For postgrad studies, can you list down the pros and cons of using the following languages? C++ (with opencv + gsl + svmlib + other libraries) vs Matlab (with all its toolboxes) vs python (with the imcomplete opencv bindings + numpy + scipy + matplotlib). Are there computer vision PhD/postgrad students here who are using only C++ (with all its availabe libraries including opencv) without even needing to resort to Matlab or python? In other words, given the current existing computer vision or machine learning libraries, is C++ alone sufficient for fast prototyping of ideas? If you're currently using Java or C# for your postgrad work, can you list down the reasons why they should be used and how they compare to other languages in terms of available libraries? What is the de facto vision/machine learning programming language and its associated libraries used in your university research group? Thanks in advance.

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  • ANTLR: using stringTemplate

    - by Kevin Won
    (I'm a Noob with Antlr)... I'm having difficulties getting my grammar with StringTemplates. Basically I'm trying to write a little DSL. I can get my grammar the way I want (it parses correctly), but I can't get the generation of the target code to work with templates. So here's a snippet of my grammar: grammar Pfig; options { output=template; language=CSharp2; } conf : globalName ; globalName : 'GlobalName:' ID -> localConf(name ={$ID.text}) ; I simplified it quite a bit just to get the essence across. Basically, when the lex/parse comes across `GlobalName: Foo' I want it to spit out text based on the StringTemplate called 'localConf'. Super straightforward. So now, let's fire up the parser in a test app and have it process an input file. // C# processing a file with the lex/parser. // the 'app.pfig' file just has one line that reads 'GlobalName: Bla' using (FileStream fs = File.OpenRead("c:\\app.pfig")) { PfigParser parser = new PfigParser(new CommonTokenStream( new PfigLexer(new ANTLRInputStream(fs)))); using (TextReader tr = File.OpenText("./Pfig.stg")) { parser.TemplateLib = new StringTemplateGroup(tr); } var parseResult = parser.conf(); string code = parseResult.Template.ToString(); // Fail: template is null } I can step through the parser code and see that it correctly identifies my text and applies the stringTemplate correctly. The problem is that since this 'globalName' rule is a subrule of 'conf' it doesn't get executed directly--the method just finds it and returns. But the calling 'Conf' method does not keep the return value from the subrule--it goes to thin air. This means that my resultant template on the last line is null. If I get rid of the 'conf' rule in my grammar and call 'globalName' directly, it will work (since it's the only rule on the stack). But I obviously want more than one rule. I've generated the parser in Java and it does the same thing: // antlr generated parser code public PfigParser.conf_return conf() // throws RecognitionException [1] { PfigParser.conf_return retval = new PfigParser.conf_return(); try { { PushFollow(FOLLOW_globalName_in_conf30); globalName(); // <- it calls globalName() but doesn't keep the return. state.followingStackPointer--; } retval.Stop = input.LT(-1); } // snip It's simple to see I don't get some basic concept with how the Template approach is supposed to work with Antlr. I'm quite sure this is my problem but I'm a loggerheads to know what I'm doing wrong... the examples I've seen don't really show real-world template emission of code.

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  • Best Practice for Images with Codeigniter : Generating Thumbs or Resizing on the Fly

    - by Steve K
    Hi all, I know there’s been a good deal written on thumbnail generation and the like with CI, but I wanted to explain what I’ve made and see what kind of best-practice advice I could find. Here’s my story… Currently, I have a site which allows users to upload collections of photos to projects they’ve created after first creating an account. Upon account creation, the site generates folders for the users in the following fashion for each of five pre-defined projects: /students/username/project_num/images/thumbs/ (This is to say that within a pre-created students folder, the username, project_num, images and thumbs folders are created recursively five times.) When a user uploads images to a project, I have a gallery controller which uploads the full images into the images folder for the project_num, and then creates a smaller thumbnail which maintains its ratio. So far so good. On the index page of the site, where these thumbnails and full images are displayed, I had a bit of a brain lapse, thinking I could simply output the full image while resizing it via css for a ‘medium-size’ image which would lead to the full-size image when clicked. (To be clear, the path is: Click on thumbnail— Load scaled full-size (medium-size) image via ajax into a display area above thumbs— Click on medium-sized image— Load full size image via lightbox, or something of that nature.) I have everything working to this point, except, as one might imagine, resizing the full-sized images with css doesn’t maintain aspect ratio for the thumbs, which means I need to find the best way to resize these. In thinking about it, I figured I had two options: I could resize the image on the fly when the user clicks a thumbnail to load the medium-sized image via ajax. (I have a method ‘get_image($url)’ in my gallery controller which simply loads a view with an image tag and the image source passed to it, etc.) I thought perhaps I could send it first to my gallery model, resize it there on the fly, and send it on to the view. The problem I’m having is that resizing it on the fly and echoing it out gives me the raw image data (I apologize, I don’t know that’s the right term). I’ve tried using data_uris to format the raw data into something echoable, but with no success. Is this method possible? The second option I considered was to generate a second medium-sized thumbnail when the user uploads the image with maintain_ratio set to true. This method is slightly less ideal, given that when providing a way for the user to delete their projects, I’ll need to scan for an additional set of images to delete. Not a huge deal, definitely, but something I figured could be avoided by generating the medium-sized image on the fly. I hope I’ve been clear in my explanations, if long-winded! I’m very curious to see what suggestions folks have about the best way to handle this. Much thanks for reading, and any suggestions are much-appreciated! Steve K.

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  • Multi-step Workflows: make Workflow A depend on results of Workflow B and/or Workflow C

    - by Joey
    I have been tasked with creating a Software Installation Approval section for our Intranet. When a person requests that a particular piece of software be installed on their workstation, we need to get IT approval and then business approval. Once those are obtained, it is to be installed. I am using Sharepoint Designer to do this. I have List A, where the user enters the information on the requested software. Workflow A then creates a Task in List B, which is then assigned to the IT approver. Workflow B works on List B on item creation, setting the due dates, titles, and other fields, and then pauses until the due date. The IT approver works with the business side and completes the task. Once List B task is complete, the item in List A should be marked as complete -- I have everything up to this point working fine. I want to make this more robust in 2 ways. As the only real option is to mark List B task as "completed", which essentially means "Approved", we have no way of really denying a request. What I want to add is the option to approve or deny a request through the task on List B -- if it is approved, I want the item in List A to continue to show "In Progress" with a custom status of "Approved", and I want to create a new task for software installation; once the installation task is marked as completed, then I want List A to show "Completed" with a status of "Installed". If it is denied, I want the item in List A to show as "Completed", with a status of "Denied". The problem is, I'm not even sure where to start making these modifications. Creating and modifying the custom status fields isn't that big of an issue -- I have messed around with this and I'm fairly confident I can do this easily. My main concern is that I know I will need a Workflow C, but I don't know where or how to trigger this to get the results I need. I've managed to get Workflows A and B working fine, but anything beyond this is really pushing the limit of my knowledge. It's probably obvious that I am rather new to Sharepoint workflows. I was very much thrust into this position and I am still feeling my way around. Thanks in advance for any help!

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  • Core Data NSPredicate for relationships.

    - by Mugunth Kumar
    My object graph is simple. I've a feedentry object that stores info about RSS feeds and a relationship called Tag that links to "TagValues" object. Both the relation (to and inverse) are to-many. i.e, a feed can have multiple tags and a tag can be associated to multiple feeds. I referred to http://stackoverflow.com/questions/844162/how-to-do-core-data-queries-through-a-relationship and created a NSFetchRequest. But when fetch data, I get an exception stating, NSInvalidArgumentException unimplemented SQL generation for predicate What should I do? I'm a newbie to core data :( I know I've done something terribly wrong... Please help... Thanks -- NSFetchRequest *fetchRequest = [[NSFetchRequest alloc] init]; // Edit the entity name as appropriate. NSEntityDescription *entity = [NSEntityDescription entityForName:@"FeedEntry" inManagedObjectContext:managedObjectContext]; [fetchRequest setEntity:entity]; // Edit the sort key as appropriate. NSSortDescriptor *sortDescriptor = [[NSSortDescriptor alloc] initWithKey:@"authorname" ascending:NO]; NSArray *sortDescriptors = [[NSArray alloc] initWithObjects:sortDescriptor, nil]; [fetchRequest setSortDescriptors:sortDescriptors]; NSEntityDescription *tagEntity = [NSEntityDescription entityForName:@"TagValues" inManagedObjectContext:self.managedObjectContext]; NSPredicate *tagPredicate = [NSPredicate predicateWithFormat:@"tagName LIKE[c] 'nyt'"]; NSFetchRequest *tagRequest = [[NSFetchRequest alloc] init]; [tagRequest setEntity:tagEntity]; [tagRequest setPredicate:tagPredicate]; NSError *error = nil; NSArray* predicates = [self.managedObjectContext executeFetchRequest:tagRequest error:&error]; TagValues *tv = (TagValues*) [predicates objectAtIndex:0]; NSLog(tv.tagName); // it is nyt here... NSPredicate *predicate = [NSPredicate predicateWithFormat:@"tag IN %@", predicates]; [fetchRequest setPredicate:predicate]; // Edit the section name key path and cache name if appropriate. // nil for section name key path means "no sections". NSFetchedResultsController *aFetchedResultsController = [[NSFetchedResultsController alloc] initWithFetchRequest:fetchRequest managedObjectContext:managedObjectContext sectionNameKeyPath:nil cacheName:@"Root"]; aFetchedResultsController.delegate = self; self.fetchedResultsController = aFetchedResultsController; --

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  • IE7 relative/absolute positioning bug with dynamically modified page content

    - by Matthias Hryniszak
    Hi, I was wondering if there's anyone having an idea how to tackle with the following problem in IE7: <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head> <title>IE7 absolute positioning bug</title> <style type="text/css"> #panel { position: relative; border: solid 1px black; } #spacer { height: 100px; } #footer { position: absolute; bottom: 0px; } </style> <script type="text/javascript"> function toggle() { var spacer = document.getElementById("spacer"); var style = "block"; if (spacer.style.display == "block" || spacer.style.display == "") { style = "none"; } spacer.style.display = style; } </script> </head> <body> <div id="panel"> <button onclick="toggle();">Click me</button> <br /><br /><br /> <div id="spacer"></div> <div id="footer">This is some footer</div> </div> </body> </html> When you run this in IE7 you'll see that the "footer" element stays after modifying the CSS for "panel". The same example tested in IE8, FF and Chrome behaves exactly as expected. I've already tried updating the element's class but this does not work if the browser's window has been opened maximized and no further size changes were made to the window (which is about 90% of the use cases we have for our product.... :( ) I'm stuck with a CSS-based solution however I think that I can make an exception in this case if it can easily be made IE7-specific (which means that other browsers will behave in a standard way with this). Please help!

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  • Cascading dropdownlist jQuery does not retain value on post back.

    - by John Smith
    I have two html select server control on an add data form page. the user selects a value in the first html select server control and then values are populated into the second html select server control with jquery. The problem is when a a user clicks the save button and the page posts back, the values are no longer in the drop down list populated by jQuery. The drop downlist is a html server control, shouldn't it retain the values on post-back? How can I retain the values and save the selected value to the database? $(document).ready(function() { $("#<%=ddlCourseWare.ClientID %>").change(function() { var courseWareId = this.value; try { $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "Left_SubCategory.aspx/GetTabData", data: "{courseWareId:" + courseWareId + "}", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", success: function(data) { var result = json_parse(data.d); $("#<%=ddlTabType.ClientID %>")[0].innerHTML = ''; if (result.length > 0) { $.each(result, function(key, item) { $("#<%=ddlTabType.ClientID %>").append($("<option></option>").val(item.id).html(item.TabName)); }); } else { $("#<%=ddlTabType.ClientID %>").append($("<option></option>").val('0').html('--Select--')); } }, error: function(request, status, error) { alert(request.responseText); } }); } catch (ex) { alert(ex); } }); }); HTML <select id="ddlCourseWare" name="ddlCourseWare" runat="server" Width="230px" class="TextBox" Height="18px" > <select id="ddlTabType" name="ddlTabType" runat="server" Width="230px" class="TextBox" Height="18px" onchange="BindMainCat();"> <option>--Select--</option> </select> C# private void BindCourseWare() { ddlCourseWare.DataSource = courseWare.GetCourseWare(); ddlCourseWare.DataTextField = "CourseWareType"; ddlCourseWare.DataValueField = "id"; ddlCourseWare.DataBind(); ddlCourseWare.Items.Insert(0, "----Select Course Ware----"); } [WebMethod] public static string GetTabData(int courseWareId) { var result = new CourseWare().GetCourseTabByCoursewareId(courseWareId); JavaScriptSerializer json_tabs = new JavaScriptSerializer(); string jsonArray_tabs = json_tabs.Serialize(result); return jsonArray_tabs; } protected void btnSave_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { int mainCategoryID1 = int.Parse(ddlTabType.Value); // not working int mainCategoryID2 = int.Parse(Request["ctl00$ContentPlaceHolder1$ddlTabType"]); // working but always return same value means the upper value (selected index 1) }

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  • Javascript Noob: How to emulate slideshow on front page by automatically cycling through existing ho

    - by Zildjoms
    hey everyone. hope you could help me out am working on this website and i've finished all the hover effects i like - they're exactly how i want them to be: http://s5ent.brinkster.net/beta3.asp - try hovering over the four links and you'll see a very simple fade effect at work, which degrades into a regular css hover without javascript. what i plan to do is to make the page look like it had a fancy slideshow going on upon loading and while idle, and i wanted to achieve that by capitalizing on the existing hover styling/behavior of the main page links instead of using another script to create the effect from scratch. to do this i imagined i'll need a script that emulates a hover action on each link at regular time intervals once the page has loaded, starting from left to right (footcare, lawn & equipment, about us, contact us), looping through all 4 links indefinitely (footcare, lawn & equipment, about us, contact us, footcare, lawn& equipment, etc.) but pauses when any of them have been actually hovered over by a viewer and resumes from wherever the user left off upon mouseout. hope you get my drift... i also want to achieve this without unnecessarily disrupting the current html. so i guess everything will have to be done by scripting as much as possible.. i'm very new to javascript and jquery. as you can see at s5ent.brinkster.net/beta3.1-autohover.asp, the following script i made works wrong: it hovers-on all of them at the same time and doesn't hover-out anymore. when you try to actually hover into and out of each link the link just comes back on: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function () { var speed = 5000; var run = setInterval('rotate()', speed); }); function rotate() { $('.lilevel1 a').each(function(i) { $(this).mouseover(); }); } </script> it's just gross. aside from the fact that this last bit of script isn't even working in ie. could you please help me make this thing happen? that'd be really sweet, guys. i know there are tonsa geniuses out there who could whip this up in no time. or if you have a better way to go about it by all means kindly lemme know. thanks guys, hope you're all havin a blast.

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  • Json Jackson deserialization without inner classes

    - by Eto Demerzel
    Hi everyone, I have a question concerning Json deserialization using Jackson. I would like to deserialize a Json file using a class like this one: (taken from http://wiki.fasterxml.com/JacksonInFiveMinutes) public class User { public enum Gender { MALE, FEMALE }; public static class Name { private String _first, _last; public String getFirst() { return _first; } public String getLast() { return _last; } public void setFirst(String s) { _first = s; } public void setLast(String s) { _last = s; } } private Gender _gender; private Name _name; private boolean _isVerified; private byte[] _userImage; public Name getName() { return _name; } public boolean isVerified() { return _isVerified; } public Gender getGender() { return _gender; } public byte[] getUserImage() { return _userImage; } public void setName(Name n) { _name = n; } public void setVerified(boolean b) { _isVerified = b; } public void setGender(Gender g) { _gender = g; } public void setUserImage(byte[] b) { _userImage = b; } } A Json file can be deserialized using the so called "Full Data Binding" in this way: ObjectMapper mapper = new ObjectMapper(); User user = mapper.readValue(new File("user.json"), User.class); My problem is the usage of the inner class "Name". I would like to do the same thing without using inner classes. The "User" class would became like that: import Name; import Gender; public class User { private Gender _gender; private Name _name; private boolean _isVerified; private byte[] _userImage; public Name getName() { return _name; } public boolean isVerified() { return _isVerified; } public Gender getGender() { return _gender; } public byte[] getUserImage() { return _userImage; } public void setName(Name n) { _name = n; } public void setVerified(boolean b) { _isVerified = b; } public void setGender(Gender g) { _gender = g; } public void setUserImage(byte[] b) { _userImage = b; } } This means to find a way to specify to the mapper all the required classes in order to perform the deserialization. Is this possible? I looked at the documentation but I cannot find any solution. My need comes from the fact that I use the Javassist library to create such classes, and it does not support inner or anonymous classes. Thank you in advance

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  • Bidirectional URL Rewriting/Redirecting in IIS7.5

    - by David Foster
    First off, I'd like to apologise for the ludicrous title. I'm not trying to sound cool or clever by using the word 'bidirectional', I just genuinely couldn't think of another way to describe it. Promise. On to my problem. I have the following in the <system.webserver>/<rewrite>/<rules> section of my Web.config. <!-- Who We Are --> <rule name="1A"> <match url="^whoweare.aspx$" /> <action type="Redirect" url="who-we-are" redirectType="Permanent" /> </rule> <rule name="1B"> <match url="^who-we-are$" /> <action type="Rewrite" url="whoweare.aspx" /> </rule> <!-- What We Do --> <rule name="2A"> <match url="^whatwedo.aspx$" /> <action type="Redirect" url="what-we-do" redirectType="Permanent" /> </rule> <rule name="2B"> <match url="^what-we-do$" /> <action type="Rewrite" url="whatwedo.aspx" /> </rule> Now this works tremendously. Effectively, if you visit the URL http://example.com/whoweare.aspx (which is the actual URL of the page), you'll be 301 redirected to the URL http://example.com/who-we-are (the virtual URL), and if you visit the virtual URL, you'll be rewritten to the actual URL. This means super sexy URLs without duplication, and it doesn't result in reciprocal rewriting either, so smiles all round. My question is this: could this be done more elegantly? It's a little cumbersome having to write out two rules to ensure that one is redirected to the other, and the other is rewritten to the one. Is it possible to write one rule which will achieve the functionality of the above two?

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  • Exception when deploying a JSR 286 portlet into WebLogic+WebCenter 11g

    - by Rambaldi
    I get the following exception when deploying a JSR 286 portlet into Oracle WebLogic Server 11g (to deploy it later in Oracle WebCenter 11g): <19-ene-2010 13H32' CET> <Error> <oracle.portlet.server.containerimpl.PortletApplicationImpl> <BEA-000000> <Error al procesar el archivo "/WEB-INF/portlet.xml" en la lÝnea 6 columna 68. org.xml.sax.SAXParseException: cvc-elt.1: Cannot find the declaration of element 'portlet-app' The error message is in spanish. It means: "Error processing the file "/WEB-INF/portlet.xml at line 6 column 68" The portlet.xml of my portlet seems to be correct and I've deployed it in other portal servers. So I don't understand the error message. This is the portlet.xml of my portlet (eclipse XML validator said it was a valid XML) <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <portlet-app version="2.0" xmlns="http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/portlet/portlet-app_2_0.xsd" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xsi:schemaLocation="http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/portlet/portlet-app_2_0.xsd http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/portlet/portlet-app_2_0.xsd" xmlns:dnd="http://www.denodo.com/widget/portlet/portletjsr286"> <portlet> <description>Test Inter Portlet Communication (JSR286)</description> <portlet-name>Test IPC</portlet-name> <display-name>Test IPC</display-name> <portlet-class>com.denodo.ipc.TestIPCPortlet</portlet-class> <supports> <mime-type>text/html</mime-type> <portlet-mode>VIEW</portlet-mode> </supports> <supported-locale>en</supported-locale> <resource-bundle>PortletMessages</resource-bundle> <portlet-info> <title>Test IPC</title> <short-title>Test IPC</short-title> <keywords>Test IPC,Denodo</keywords> </portlet-info> </portlet> </portlet-app> How do I deploy my portlet I convert my portlet into to a WSRP portlet by executing java -jar wsrp-predeploy.jar source EAR target EAR as explained in http://download.oracle.com/docs/cd/E12839_01/webcenter.1111/e12405/wcadm_portlet_prod.htm#CHDECJHI) I try to deploy it into WebLogic with the WebLogic Console and I get this exception. My Environment WebCenter Suite (11.1.1.2.0) + WebLogic Server (10.3.2) downloaded from the oracle.com. Default configuration S.O: Windows XP SP3 Thanks in advance for your time.

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  • Handling Model Inheritance in ASP.NET MVC2 & NHibernate

    - by enth
    I've gotten myself stuck on how to handle inheritance in my model when it comes to my controllers/views. Basic Model: public class Procedure : Entity { public Procedure() { } public int Id { get; set; } public DateTime ProcedureDate { get; set; } public ProcedureType Type { get; set; } } public ProcedureA : Procedure { public double VariableA { get; set; } public int VariableB { get; set; } public int Total { get; set; } } public ProcedureB : Procedure { public int Score { get; set; } } etc... many of different procedures eventually. So, I do things like list all the procedures: public class ProcedureController : Controller { public virtual ActionResult List() { IEnumerable<Procedure> procedures = _repository.GetAll(); return View(procedures); } } but now I'm kinda stuck. Basically, from the list page, I need to link to pages where the specific subclass details can be viewed/edited and I'm not sure what the best strategy is. I thought I could add an action on the ProcedureController that would conjure up the right subclass by dynamically figuring out what repository to use and loading the subclass to pass to the view. I had to store the class in the ProcedureType object. I had to create/implement a non-generic IRepository since I can't dynamically cast to a generic one. public virtual ActionResult Details(int procedureID) { Procedure procedure = _repository.GetById(procedureID, false); string className = procedure.Type.Class; Type type = Type.GetType(className, true); Type repositoryType = typeof (IRepository<>).MakeGenericType(type); var repository = (IRepository)DependencyRegistrar.Resolve(repositoryType); Entity procedure = repository.GetById(procedureID, false); return View(procedure); } I haven't even started sorting out how the view is going to determine which partial to load to display the subclass details. I'm wondering if this is a good approach? This makes determining the URL easy. It makes reusing the Procedure display code easy. Another approach is specific controllers for each subclass. It simplifies the controller code, but also means many simple controllers for the many procedure subclasses. Can work out the shared Procedure details with a partial view. How to get to construct the URL to get to the controller/action in the first place? Time to not think about it. Hopefully someone can show me the light. Thanks in advance.

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  • Asynchronous callback for network in Objective-C Iphone

    - by vodkhang
    I am working with network request - response in Objective-C. There is something with asynchronous model that I don't understand. In summary, I have a view that will show my statuses from 2 social networks: Twitter and Facebook. When I clicked refresh, it will call a model manager. That model manager will call 2 service helpers to request for latest items. When 2 service helpers receive data, it will pass back to model manager and this model will add all data into a sorted array. What I don't understand here is that : when response from social networks come back, how many threads will handle the response. From my understanding about multithreading and networking (in Java), there must have 2 threads handle 2 responses and those 2 threads will execute the code to add the responses to the array. So, it can have race condition and the program can go wrong right? Is it the correct working model of iphone objective-C? Or they do it in a different way that it will never have race condition and we don't have to care about locking, synchronize? Here is my example code: ModelManager.m - (void)updateMyItems:(NSArray *)items { self.helpers = [self authenticatedHelpersForAction:NCHelperActionGetMyItems]; for (id<NCHelper> helper in self.helpers) { [helper updateMyItems:items]; // NETWORK request here } } - (void)helper:(id <NCHelper>)helper didReturnItems:(NSArray *)items { [self helperDidFinishGettingMyItems:items callback:@selector(model:didGetMyItems:)]; break; } } // some private attributes int *_currentSocialNetworkItemsCount = 0; // to count the number of items of a social network - (void)helperDidFinishGettingMyItems:(NSArray *)items { for (Item *item in items) { _currentSocialNetworkItemsCount ++; } NSLog(@"count: %d", _currentSocialNetworkItemsCount); _currentSocialNetworkItemsCount = 0; } I want to ask if there is a case that the method helperDidFinishGettingMyItems is called concurrently. That means, for example, faceboook returns 10 items, twitter returns 10 items, will the output of count will ever be larger than 10? And if there is only one single thread, how can the thread finishes parsing 1 response and jump to the other response because, IMO, thread is only executed sequently, block of code by block of code

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  • Featureful commercial text editors?

    - by wrp
    I'm willing to buy tools if they add genuine value over a FOSS equivalent. One thing I wouldn't mind having is an editor with the power of Emacs, but made more user-friendly. There seem to be several commercial editors out there, but I can't find much discussion of them online. Maybe it's because the kind of people who use commercial software don't have time to do much blogging. ;-) If you have used any, what was your evaluation? I'd especially like to hear how you would compare them to Emacs. I'm thinking of editors like VEDIT, Boxer, Crisp, UltraEdit, SlickEdit, etc. To get things started, I tried EditPad Pro because I needed something on a Win98SE box. I was attracted by its powerful support for regexps, but I didn't use it for long. One annoyance was that find-in-files was only available in a separate product you had to buy. The main problem, though, was stability. It sometimes hung and I lost a few files because it corrupted them while editing. After a couple weeks, I found that I was avoiding using it, so I just uninstalled. Edit: Ah...I need to remove some ambiguity. With reference to Emacs, "power" often means its potential for customization. This malleability comes from having an architecture in which most of the functionality is written in a scripting language that runs on a compiled core. Emacs (with elisp) is by far the most widely known such system among home users, but there have been other heavily used editors such as Freemacs (MINT), JED (S-Lang), XEDIT (Rexx), ADAM (TPU), and SlickEdit (Slick-C). In this case, by "power" I'm not referring to extensibility but to realized features. There are three main areas which I think a commercial text editor might be an improvement over Emacs: Stability The only apps I regularly use on Linux that give me flaky behavior are Emacs, Gedit, and Geany. On Windows, I like the look and features of Notepad++, but I find it extremely unstable, especially if I try to use the plugins. Whatever I happen to be doing, I'm using some text editor practically all day long. If I could switch to an editor that never gave me problems, it would definitely lower my stress level. Tools When I started using Emacs, I searched the manual cover to cover to gleam ideas for clever, useful things I could do with it. I'd like to see lots of useful features for editing code, based on detailed knowledge of what the system can do and the accumulated feedback of users. Polish The rule of threes goes that if you develop something for yourself, it's three times harder to make it usable in-house, and three times harder again to make it a viable product for sale. It's understandable, but free software development doesn't seem to benefit from much usability testing. BTW, texteditors.org is a fantastic resource for researching text editors.

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