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• MVC for a desktop application, connection a view/controller pair with another one

  - by lcf

  Hello. I've had mostly experience with "server-side" mvc frameworks very popular in different languages like ASP.NET MVC or Zend Framework for php, Spring for Java etc. Some of them are also possible to use for desktop applications development but I never tried that. I fully understand that design patterns should not limit implementation, they should generally provide ideas and common rules that can be differently implemented. Now I'm playing with one of those mvc frameworks for usual Desktop Applications development (it does not have many tutorials or a decent quickstart) and I have some questions regarding to the mvc paradigm. Here is one of them: What are common ways to link different views / controllers? If I click a button, special controller for that button dispatches the event that is generated, does something with the model, changes view state. But what if I need to interact with another view? Like, when I click on a button, it changes a model, but also I need to open another window or change state of another window (hiding a button on another window let's say...), without changing actually the model. What are common ways here to address this? Should my first controller generate an event for the second controller (or second view)? Or should the second controller be handling events from first view? Some links or examples for any languages/frameworks would be really helpful, thanks!

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• Django tutorial says I haven't set DATABASE_ENGINE setting yet... but I have

  - by Joe

  I'm working through the Django tutorial and receiving the following error when I run the initial python manage.py syncdb: Traceback (most recent call last): File "manage.py", line 11, in <module> execute_manager(settings) File "/Library/Python/2.6/site-packages/django/core/management/__init__.py", line 362 in execute_manager utility.execute() File "/Library/Python/2.6/site-packages/django/core/management/__init__.py", line 303, in execute self.fetch_command(subcommand).run_from_argv(self.argv) File "/Library/Python/2.6/site-packages/django/core/management/base.py", line 195, in run_from_argv self.execute(*args, **options.__dict__) File "/Library/Python/2.6/site-packages/django/core/management/base.py", line 222, in execute output = self.handle(*args, **options) File "/Library/Python/2.6/site-packages/django/core/management/base.py", line 351, in handle return self.handle_noargs(**options) File "/Library/Python/2.6/site-packages/django/core/management/commands/syncdb.py", line 49, in handle_noargs cursor = connection.cursor() File "/Library/Python/2.6/site-packages/django/db/backends/dummy/base.py", line 15, in complain raise ImproperlyConfigured, "You haven't set the DATABASE_ENGINE setting yet." django.core.exceptions.ImproperlyConfigured: You haven't set the DATABASE_ENGINE setting yet. My settings.py looks like: DATABASES = { 'default': { 'ENGINE': 'django.db.backends.mysql', # Add 'postgresql_psycopg2', 'postgresql', 'mysql', 'sqlite3' or 'oracle'. 'NAME': 'dj_tut', # Or path to database file if using sqlite3. 'USER': '', # Not used with sqlite3. 'PASSWORD': '', # Not used with sqlite3. 'HOST': '', # Set to empty string for localhost. Not used with sqlite3. 'PORT': '', # Set to empty string for default. Not used with sqlite3. } } I'm guessing this is something simple, but why isn't it seeing the ENGINE setting?

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• Inheritence and usage of dynamic_cast

  - by Mewzer

  Hello, Suppose I have 3 classes as follows (as this is an example, it will not compile!): class Base { public: Base(){} virtual ~Base(){} virtual void DoSomething() = 0; virtual void DoSomethingElse() = 0; }; class Derived1 { public: Derived1(){} virtual ~Derived1(){} virtual void DoSomething(){ ... } virtual void DoSomethingElse(){ ... } virtual void SpecialD1DoSomething{ ... } }; class Derived2 { public: Derived2(){} virtual ~Derived2(){} virtual void DoSomething(){ ... } virtual void DoSomethingElse(){ ... } virtual void SpecialD2DoSomething{ ... } }; I want to create an instance of Derived1 or Derived2 depending on some setting that is not available until run-time. As I cannot determine the derived type until run-time, then do you think the following is bad practice?... class X { public: .... void GetConfigurationValue() { .... // Get configuration setting, I need a "Derived1" b = new Derived1(); // Now I want to call the special DoSomething for Derived1 (dynamic_cast<Derived1*>(b))->SpecialD1DoSomething(); } private: Base* b; }; I have generally read that usage of dynamic_cast is bad, but as I said, I don't know which type to create until run-time. Please help!

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• Approaches for animating a C# property over time?

  - by Mario Fritsch

  I'm currently trying to animate a bunch of public properties on certain objects. Usually they are of type float or vectors of floats (the type is known at compile-time). I want to be able to: assign a static value to them (MyObject.Duration = 10f;) or assign a random value to them by specifying a minimum and maximum value and optionally also a weight (MyObject.Duration = new RandomFloat(5f, 20f, 2f);) or "bind" this property to the property of another object (think of a child object binding some of its properties to its parent object, like its color or size or sth.) or assign sort of a keyframe animation to them, specifying a variable number of keyframes with timecode and the property's value at that specific point in time as well as information about how to interpolate between these frames The keyframes should be able to accept random values for each frame, both for the time and the property's value. What would be a practical approach for this kind of system? Currently I'm thinking about polymorphism: implement a base class or interface with a public Value-property and/or GetValue(float time)-method and then creating different sub classes like StaticValue, RandomValue, BindingValue and AnimatedValue implementing this base class or interface. Doesn't seem very elegant, though, and the initialization of even simple objects becomes a bit tedious. Another idea would be to implement these properties just as regular floats or vectors and create special "Modifier"-types binding to these properties. To retrieve the "real" value of the property, I'd first call any Modifier bound to the property, which would in turn update the actual object's property for me to retrieve later on. That would most likely mean using reflection at some point, which could be quite bad for performance as I'll probably have thousands of properties to update dozens of times per second. Any suggestions on this? Being a novice I'm (hopefully) missing some far more elegant and/or practical solution than I'm already playing around with :( Edit: Probably should have mentioned this earlier, but WPF isn't an option - it's not available on all targetted platforms, so I can't rely on it. I'm aware of its powerful databinding and animation capabilities, but I need to roll my own (or find some other lightweight alternative meeting my needs).

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• CQRS without using others patterns

  - by John Smith

  I would like to explain CQRS to my team of developers. I just can't figure out how to explain it in the simplest way so they can implement the pattern rapidly without any others frameworks. I've read a lot of resources including video and articles but I don't find how to implement CQRS without using others patterns like a service Bus, event sourcing pattern, domain driven design. I know the purpose of these pattern but for the first step, I don't want them to think CQRS and theses patterns must be tied together. My first idea is to say that CQRS is about separating the read part and the write part. The read part is composed only of the UI project, and DAL project. Then the write part is composed of a typical multilayer architecture: UI/BLL/DAL. Then, does CQRS say we must also have two datastore ? What about the notion of commands which reveal the user's intention, is it also something part of CQRS or DDD ? Basically, how to implement CQRS without using others patterns. I concede it's also not that clear in my mind because I've used to work with NCQRS/DDD/Event Sourcing/ServiceBus in my personal project. Thanks

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• VisualSVN How to roll back the revision number ?

  - by Ita

  The company I work in has suffered a major server failure. During this failure the SVN Repository was lost. But there is still hope ! We have an old backup of the repository which I've managed to successfully restore using VisualSVN. The problem I'm facing now is that I can't update / commit pre-failure checkedout folders. The reason for this problem is that for instance: a local folder has a revision number of 2361, while the repository itself holds a revision number of 2290, which is older. Is there a way to deal with this issue ? Can I some how change the revision numbers on either the local copy or the server copy? A few points: I'm using TortoiseSVN 1.6.6. I can checkout folders from the repo and the connection is active. I've picked one of my folders and used the Relocate option on it. This helped me see that there is something wrong with the revision number I've experimented a bit with the merge option but this lead me now where special. (I'm open for suggestions ) Thank you for your time, Ita

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• Debugging instance of another thread altering my data

  - by Mick

  I have a huge global array of structures. Some regions of the array are tied to individual threads and those threads can modify their regions of the array without having to use critical sections. But there is one special region of the array which all threads may have access to. The code that accesses these parts of the array needs to carefully use critical sections (each array element has its own critical section) to prevent any possibility of two threads writing to the structure simultaneously. Now I have a mysterious bug I am trying to chase, it is occurring unpredictably and very infrequently. It seems that one of the structures is being filled with some incorrect number. One obvious explanation is that another thread has accidentally been allowed to set this number when it should be excluded from doing so. Unfortunately it seems close to impossible to track this bug. The array element in which the bad data appears is different each time. What I would love to be able to do is set some kind of trap for the bug as follows: I would enter a critical section for array element N, then I know that no other thread should be able to touch the data, then (until I exit the critical section) set some kind of flag to a debugging tool saying "if any other thread attempts to change the data here please break and show me the offending patch of source code"... but I suspect no such tool exists... or does it? Or is there some completely different debugging methodology that I should be employing.

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• Batch script is not executed if chcp was called

  - by Andy

  Hello! I'm trying to delete some files with unicode characters in them with batch script (it's a requirement). So I run cmd and execute: > chcp 65001 Effectively setting codepage to UTF-8. And it works: D:\temp\1>dir Volume in drive D has no label. Volume Serial Number is 8C33-61BF Directory of D:\temp\1 02.02.2010 09:31 <DIR> . 02.02.2010 09:31 <DIR> .. 02.02.2010 09:32 508 1.txt 02.02.2010 09:28 12 delete.bat 02.02.2010 09:20 95 delete.cmd 02.02.2010 09:13 <DIR> Rún 02.02.2010 09:13 <DIR> ????? ??????? 3 File(s) 615 bytes 4 Dir(s) 11 576 438 784 bytes free D:\temp\1>rmdir Rún D:\temp\1>dir Volume in drive D has no label. Volume Serial Number is 8C33-61BF Directory of D:\temp\1 02.02.2010 09:56 <DIR> . 02.02.2010 09:56 <DIR> .. 02.02.2010 09:32 508 1.txt 02.02.2010 09:28 12 delete.bat 02.02.2010 09:20 95 delete.cmd 02.02.2010 09:13 <DIR> ????? ??????? 3 File(s) 615 bytes 3 Dir(s) 11 576 438 784 bytes free Then I put the same rmdir commands in batch script and save it in UTF-8 encoding. But when I run nothing happens, literally nothing: not even echo works from batch script in this case. Even saving script in OEM encoding does not help. So it seems that when I change codepage to UTF-8 in console, scripts just stop working. Does somebody know how to fix that?

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• RPC command to initiate a software install

  - by ericmayo

  I was recently working with a product from Symantech called Norton EndPoint protection. It consists of a server console application and a deployment application and I would like to incorporate their deployment method into a future version of one of my products. The deployment application allows you to select computer workstations running Win2K, WinXP, or Win7. The selection of workstations is provided from either AD (Active Directory) or NT Domain (WINs/DNS NetBIOS lookup). From the list, one can click and choose which workstations to deploy the end point software which is Symantech's virus & spyware protection suite. Then, after selecting which workstations should receive the package, the software copies the setup.exe program to each workstation (presumable over the administrative share \pcname\c$) and then commands the workstation to execute setup.exe resulting in the workstation installing the software. I really like how their product works but not sure what they are doing to accomplish all the steps. I've not done any deep investigations into this such as sniffing the network, etc... and wanted to check here to see if anyone is familiar with what I'm talking about and if you know how it's accomplished or have ideas how it could be accomplished. My thinking is that they are using the admin share to copy the software to the selected workstations and then issuing an RPC call to command the workstation to do the install. What's interesting is that the workstations do this without any of the logged in users knowing what's going on until the very end where a reboot is necessary. At which point, the user gets a pop-up asking to reboot now or later, etc... My hunch is that the setup.exe program is popping this message. To the point: I'm looking to find out the mechanism by which one Windows based machine can tell another to do some action or run some program. My programming language is C/C++ Any thoughts/suggestions appreciated.

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• Problem with reading and writing to binary file in C++

  - by Reem

  I need to make a file that contains "name" which is a string -array of char- and "data" which is array of bytes -array of char in C++- but the first problem I faced is how to separate the "name" from the "data"? newline character could work in this case (assuming that I don't have "\n" in the name) but I could have special characters in the "data" part so there's no way to know when it ends so I'm putting an int value in the file before the data which has the size of the "data"! I tried to do this with code as follow: if((fp = fopen("file.bin","wb")) == NULL) { return false; } char buffer[] = "first data\n"; fwrite( buffer ,1,sizeof(buffer),fp ); int number[1]; number[0]=10; fwrite( number ,1,1, fp ); char data[] = "1234567890"; fwrite( data , 1, number[0], fp ); fclose(fp); but I didn't know if the "int" part was right, so I tried many other codes including this one: char buffer[] = "first data\n"; fwrite( buffer ,1,sizeof(buffer),fp ); int size=10; fwrite( &size ,sizeof size,1, fp ); char data[] = "1234567890"; fwrite( data , 1, number[0], fp ); I see 4 "NULL" characters in the file when I open it instead of seeing an integer. Is that normal? The other problem I'm facing is reading that again from the file! The code I tried to read didn't work at all :( I tried it with "fread" but I'm not sure if I should use "fseek" with it or it just read the other character after it. Forgive me but I'm a beginner :(

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• Sending information between JavaScript and Web Services using AJAX

  - by COB-CSU-AM

  Alright so I'm using Microsoft's Web Services and AJAX to get information from a SQL database for use with java script on the client side. And I'm wondering what the best method is. Before I started working on the project, the web services were setup to return a C# List filled with some objects. Those objects variables (ints, strings, etc.) contain the data I want to use. Of course, java script can't do much with this, to the best of my knowledge. I then modified the web service to return a 2D Array, but java script got confused, and to the best of my knowledge can't handle 2D array's returned from C#. I then tried to use a regular array, but then a found the length property of an array in JS doesn't carry over, so I couldn't preform a for loop through all the items, because there wasn't anyway of knowing how many elements there were. The only other thing I can thing of is returning a string with special char's to separate the data, but this seems way too convoluted. Any suggestions? Thanks in advance!

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• Simple problem with mod_rewrite in the Fat Free Framework

  - by ian

  I am trying to setup and learn the Fat Free Framework for PHP. http://fatfree.sourceforge.net/ It's is fairly simple to setup and I am running it on my machine using MAMP. I was able to get the 'hello world' example running just fin: require_once 'path/to/F3.php'; F3::route('GET /','home'); function home() { echo 'Hello, world!'; } F3::run(); But when I try to add in the second part, which has two routes: require_once 'F3/F3.php'; F3::route('GET /','home'); function home() { echo 'Hello, world!'; } F3::route('GET /about','about'); function about() { echo 'About Us.'; } F3::run(); I get a 404 error if I try the second URL: /about Not sure why one of the mod_rewrite commands would be working and not the other. Below is my .htaccess file: # Enable rewrite engine and route requests to framework RewriteEngine On RewriteBase / RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-l RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteRule .* index.php [L,QSA] # Disable ETags Header Unset ETag FileETag none # Default expires header if none specified (stay in browser cache for 7 days) <IfModule mod_expires.c> ExpiresActive On ExpiresDefault A604800 </IfModule>

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• Reflection and Operator Overloads in C#

  - by TenshiNoK

  Here's the deal. I've got a program that will load a given assembly, parse through all Types and their Members and compile a TreeView (very similar to old MSDN site) and then build HTML pages for each node in the TreeView. It basically takes a given assembly and allows the user to create their own MSDN-like library for it for documentation purposes. Here's the problem I've run into: whenever an operator overload is encounted in a defined class, reflection returns that as a "MethodInfo" with the name set to something like "op_Assign" or "op_Equality". I want to be able to capture these and list them properly, but I can't find anything in the MethodInfo object that is returned to accurately identify that I'm looking at an operator. I definitely don't want to just capture everything that starts with "op_", since that will most certainly (at some point) will pick up a method it's not supposed to. I know that other methods and properties that are "special cases" like this one have the "IsSpecialName" property set, but appearantly that's not the case with operators. I've been scouring the 'net and wracking my brain to two days trying to figure this one out, so any help will be greatly appreciated.

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• c++ specialized overload?

  - by acidzombie24

  -edit- i am trying to close the question. i solved the problem with boost::is_base_and_derived In my class i want to do two things. 1) Copy int, floats and other normal values 2) Copy structs that supply a special copy function (template T copyAs(); } the struct MUST NOT return int's unless i explicitly say ints. I do not want the programmer mistaking the mistake by doing int a = thatClass; -edit- someone mention classes dont return anything, i mean using the operator Type() overload. How do i create my copy operator in such a way i can copy both 1) ints, floats etc and the the struct restricted in the way i mention in 2). i tried doing template <class T2> T operator = (const T2& v); which would cover my ints, floats etc. But how would it differentiate from structs? so i wrote T operator = (const SomeGenericBase& v); The idea was the GenericBase would be unsed instead then i can do v.Whatever. But that backfires bc the functions i want wouldnt exist, unless i use virtual, but virtual templates dont exist. Also i would hate to use virtual I think the solution is to get rid of ints and have it convert to something that can do .as(). So i wrote something up but now i have the same problem, how does that differentiate ints and structs that have the .as() function template?

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• Installing SVN plugin for Eclipse on Ubuntu

  - by Zac

  I am a brand new Linux user configuring my first-ever dev sandbox in Ubuntu. I have installed Java and Eclipse and am trying to get either Subversive or Subclipse (I don't have a preference either way) but have a few questions before I start that process. I just opened Synaptic and downloaded subversion through it. (1) I'm not really sure how SVN deploys locally. My understanding is that SVN has a client and a server; the server manages the repository(ies) and the clieent just sends commands to the server. Is this correct? If so, then what did I download through Synaptic? The client, and/or the server? (2) Do these Eclipse plugins come with SVN (client or server...?) or do you have to pre-install SVN prior to installing these plugins? Basically: is SVN a pre-req for Subclipse or Subversive? Looking back at these 2 questions if someone could first explain to me the architecture of SVN, then explain how that architecture translates to downloading SVN via Synaptic, and then how it translates to downloading/installing either Eclipse plugin, I would see the "big picture" a lot better. Thanks for any and all help!

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• checking mongo database for data

  - by user1647484

  I'm playing around with this tutorial that uses Sinatra, backbone.js, and mongodb for the database. It's my first time using mongo. As far as I understand it the app uses both local storage and a database. it has these routes for the database. For example, it has these routes get '/api/:thing' do DB.collection(params[:thing]).find.to_a.map{|t| from_bson_id(t)}.to_json end get '/api/:thing/:id' do from_bson_id(DB.collection(params[:thing]).find_one(to_bson_id(params[:id]))).to_json end post '/api/:thing' do oid = DB.collection(params[:thing]).insert(JSON.parse(request.body.read.to_s)) "{\"_id\": \"#{oid.to_s}\"}" end After turning the server off and then on, I could see in the server getting data from the database routes 127.0.0.1 - - [17/Sep/2012 08:21:58] "GET /api/todos HTTP/1.1" 200 430 0.0033 My question is, how can I check from within the mongo shell whether the data's in the database? I started the mongo shell ./bin/mongo I selected the database 'use mydb' and then looking at the docs (http://www.mongodb.org/display/DOCS/Tutorial) I tried commands such as > var cursor = db.things.find(); > while (cursor.hasNext()) printjson(cursor.next()); but they didn't return anything.

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• Strange problem on some client's browsers

  - by Gustavo Cardoso

  We are fighting a strange problem on the company that I work. We created a site of a promotion to a client where its consumers can register products barcodes to win prizes. The site was created using PHP and MySQL. The site uses SSL on every form. However, some consumers report to the client's call-center they was no able make a registration at the site. We try everything, but we cannot, by no ways, reproduce the problem. The consumers reported the problem on several browsers ranging from IE8 to Firefox, the problem is same on everyone them. One co-woker this weekend was able to catch this same bug on his wife's notebook and brought her computer to the company so we could test. However, here on the company the problem didn't happened and we can make the registration normally. We suppose this problem could be a matter of encoding and special characteres like ã and ç. But we are sure that all source files are UTF8- with BOM. We also suspect of MSXml version, but we are note sure anymore. Because of legal impediments the client cannot ask the consumers to install anything on they computers to test or fix the problem. Sorry but by complience rules we also cannot share the url of the site, what is a pity. I know it is too much on vacuun, but perhaps you could had crossed something similar. Thank you

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• Scanning, Checking, Converting, Copying values ... How to ? -- C --

  - by ZaZu

  Hi there, Its been a while now and im still trying to get a certain code to work. I asked some question about different commands etc. before, but now I hope this is the final one (combining all questions in one code). I basically want to : *Scan an input (should be character ? ) *Check if its a number *If not, return error *Convert that character into a float number *Copy the value to another variable ( I called it imp here) Here is what I came up with : #include<stdio.h> #include<stdlib.h> #include<ctype.h> main(){ int digits; float imp=0; int alpha; do{ printf("Enter input\n\n"); scanf("\n%c",&alpha); digits=isdigit(alpha); if(digits==0){ printf("error\n\n"); } imp=atof(alpha); }while(digits==0); } The problem is this code does not work at all ... It gives me that atof must be of a const char and whenever I try changing it around, it just keeps failing. I am frustrated and forced to ask here, because I believe I have tried alot and I keep failing, but I wont be relieved until I get it to work xD So I really need your help guys. Please tell me why isnt this code working, what am I doing wrong ? I am still learning C and really appreciate your help :)

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• Redeploying an ASP.NET site in IIS7 without files in use interfering

  - by fyjham

  Hey, We've got a process currently which causes ASP.NET websites to be redeployed. The code is itself an ASP.NET application. The current method, which has worked for quite a while, is simply to loop over all the files in one folder and copy them over the top of the files in the webroot. The problem that's arisen is that occasionally files end up being in use and hence can't be copied over. This has in the past been intermittent to the point it didn't matter but on some of our higher traffic sites it happens the majority of the time now. I'm wondering if anyone has a workaround or alternative approach to this that I haven't thought of. Currently my ideas are: Simply retry each file until it works. That's going to cause errors for a short time though which isn't really that good. Deploy to a new folder and update IIS's webroot to the new folder. I'm not sure how to do this short of running the application as an administrator and running batch files, which is very untidy. Does anyone know what the best way to do this is, or if it's possible to do #2 without running the publishing application as a user who has admin access (Willing to grant it special privileges, but I'd prefer to stop short of administrator)?

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• WPF Prism's delegatecommand not refreshing

  - by gkar

  I am building wpf edit form, that has two buttons, BeginEdit and Save And the form is bound to ViewModel that inherits from Prism's NotificationObject. There is a property called IsReadOnly And there are two commands that are Prism's DelegateCommands BeginEdit command and save command The code is here private DelegateCommand _beginEdit; public DelegateCommand BeginEdit { get { return _beginEdit ?? (_beginEdit = new DelegateCommand(() => this.IsReadOnly = false , () => IsReadOnly)); } } private bool _isReadOnly; public bool IsReadOnly { get { return _isReadOnly; } set { _isReadOnly = value; RaisePropertyChanged("IsReadOnly"); } } private DelegateCommand _saveEdit; public DelegateCommand SaveEdit { get { return _saveEdit ?? (_saveEdit = new DelegateCommand(() => this.IsReadOnly = true , () => !IsReadOnly)); } } So, as you see, the command will set IsReadOnly property to true or false, and CanExecute should get its value from the same property as well. It works when I start the form. But after I press BeginEdit, the buttons stays as the same, and the canExecute is not reflecting the new value of IsReadOnly

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• What prevents a user from adding controls to an ASP.NET page client side?

  - by Curtis White

  This goes back to my other question which I thought was sufficiently answers but upon reflect am not sure that it was (sorry). Backgrounder: I am generating a form dynamically. I am pulling from the database the controls. I must associate each control with a database ID which is not the user's session id. I do this currently by storing my ID in the ID for the web control with some other stuff to make it unique/clear what I am doing. On the post back, I iterate through all the controls on my web page checking for my special identifier, ie, MyGeneratedTextBox_ID_Unique. This process enables for 2 important steps, identifying the control was one I generated and also getting the ID for this input field. And, all of this works but I'm still concerned about the security of it. I do not see a security issue with showing the actual database ID's in this case, although agree it is not desirable. However, I am concerned of the following possibilities: If a user could add a nefarious control to my collection and use that for a SQL injection attack. More academic, but if a user could somehow store data for fields they do not have access too by changing the id's. I agree this is a "hack" of a way to do it. But my question is, is it a security risk and is there an 'easy' way to do it in a less hack way? I assume that only the controls that are created/instantiated on the page are added to the controls list.. thus all controls must be created server side and thus the security issue is address but just wanted to validate. Thanks again. PS: I could see adding a property for each control and encrypting the viewstate would be a little more secure.

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• In .NET, how do you send multiple arguments into a DOS command prompt?

  - by donde

  I am trying to execute DOS commands in ASP.NET 2.0. What I have now calls a BAT file which, in turn, calls a CMD file. It works (with the end result being a file gets ftp'ed). However, I'd like to dump the BAT and CMD files and run everything in .NET. What is the format of sending multiple arguments into the command window? Here is what I have now. The .NET Code: System.Diagnostics.Process proc = new System.Diagnostics.Process(); proc.EnableRaisingEvents = false; proc.StartInfo.FileName = "C:\\MyBat.BAT"; proc.Start(); proc.WaitForExit(); The Bat File looks like this (all it does is run the cmd file): ftp.exe -s:C:\MyCMD.cmd And here is the content of the Cmd file: open <my host> <my user name> <my pw> quote site cyl pri=1 sec=1 lrecl=1786 blksize=0 recfm=fb retpd=30 put C:\MyDTLFile.dtl 'MyDTLFile.dtl' quit

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• Logback: Logging with two loggers

  - by gammay

  I would like to use slf4j+logback for two purposes in my application - log and audit. For logging, I log the normal way: static final Logger logger = LoggerFactory.getLogger(Main.class); logger.debug("-> main()"); For Audit, I create a special named logger and log to it: static final Logger logger = LoggerFactory.getLogger("AUDIT_LOGGER"); Object[] params = { new Integer(1) /* TenantID */, new Integer(10) /* UserID */, msg}; logger.info("{}|{}|{}", params); logback configuration: <logger name="AUDIT_LOGGER" level="info"> <appender name="STDOUT" class="ch.qos.logback.core.ConsoleAppender"> <encoder> <pattern>%d{HH:mm:ss.SSS}|%msg%n </pattern> </encoder> </appender> </logger> <root level="all"> <appender name="STDOUT" class="ch.qos.logback.core.ConsoleAppender"> <encoder> <pattern>%d{HH:mm:ss.SSS} [%thread] %-5level %logger{36} - %msg%n </pattern> </encoder> </appender> </root> Problem: Messages logged through audit logger appear twice - once under the AUDIT_LOGGER and once under the root logger. 14:41:57.975 [main] DEBUG com.gammay.example.Main - - main() 14:41:57.978|1|10|welcome to main 14:41:57.978 [main] INFO AUDIT_LOGGER - 1|10|welcome to main How can I make sure audit messages appear only once under the audit logger?

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• IIS 6.0 Rewrite rules for Wordpress (Forward slash not working and other things)

  - by DigitalBlade

  Hi, I am using Wordpress 3.0.4 on IIS 6.0 and Windows Server 2003, hosted by a company. I was having lots of issues using permalinks. I have fixed most, but now I have an issue with a forward-slash not being added to the address. This would be fine on most websites, but not on IIS for some reason. Specifically, if I go to "mysite.com/wp-admin" I can log-in and get to the dashboard, but as soon as I click anything there i am redirected to a broken link. For example: "mysite.com/post-new.php". If I add the slash at the end it's fine. So I tried to have a rewrite rule to automatically add the slash to such address: RewriteRule /wp-admin /wp-admin/ [L] But it still doesn't work. For your reference, here's the complete file: [ISAPI_Rewrite] RewriteBase / RewriteCond ${REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond ${REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d # For special WordPress folders (e.g. theme, admin, etc.) RewriteRule /wp-admin /wp-admin/ [L] RewriteRule /wp-(.*) /wp-$1 [L] RewriteRule /(.*\.(?:jpg|jpeg|gif|css|txt|xml|html|png|js)) /$1 [I,L] # Rules to ensure that normal content gets through RewriteRule /images/(.*) /images/$1 [L] RewriteRule /favicon.ico /favicon.ico [L] RewriteRule /robots.txt /robots.txt [L] RewriteRule /phpmyadmin/(.*) /phpmyadmin/$1 [L] RewriteRule /phpmyadmin /phpmyadmin/ [L] # For all WordPress pages RewriteRule ^/$ /index.php [L] RewriteRule /(.*) /index.php/$1 [L] Any ideas? Thanks in advance

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• Why it's can be compiled in GNU/C++, can't compiled in VC++2010 RTM?

  - by volnet

  #include #include #include #include "copy_of_auto_ptr.h" #ifdef _MSC_VER #pragma message("#include ") #include // http://gcc.gnu.org/onlinedocs/gcc/Diagnostic-Pragmas.html#Diagnostic-Pragmas #endif /* case 1-4 is the requirement of the auto_ptr. which form http://ptgmedia.pearsoncmg.com/images/020163371X/autoptrupdate/auto_ptr_update.html */ /* case 1. (1) Direct-initialization, same type, e.g. */ std::auto_ptr source_int() { // return std::auto_ptr(new int(3)); std::auto_ptr tmp(new int(3)); return tmp; } /* case 2. (2) Copy-initialization, same type, e.g. */ void sink_int(std::auto_ptr p) { std::cout source_derived() { // return std::auto_ptr(new Derived()); std::auto_ptr tmp(new Derived()); return tmp; } /* case 4. (4) Copy-initialization, base-from-derived, e.g. */ void sink_base( std::auto_ptr p) { p-go(); } int main(void) { /* // auto_ptr */ // case 1. // auto_ptr std::auto_ptr p_int(source_int()); std::cout p_derived(source_derived()); p_derived-go(); // case 4. // auto_ptr sink_base(source_derived()); return 0; } In Eclipse(GNU C++.exe -v gcc version 3.4.5 (mingw-vista special r3)) it's two compile error: Description Resource Path Location Type initializing argument 1 of void sink_base(std::auto_ptr<Base>)' from result ofstd::auto_ptr<_Tp::operator std::auto_ptr<_Tp1() [with _Tp1 = Base, _Tp = Derived]' auto_ptr_ref_research.cpp auto_ptr_ref_research/auto_ptr_ref_research 190 C/C++ Problem Description Resource Path Location Type no matching function for call to `std::auto_ptr::auto_ptr(std::auto_ptr)' auto_ptr_ref_research.cpp auto_ptr_ref_research/auto_ptr_ref_research 190 C/C++ Problem But it's right in VS2010 RTM. Questions: Which compiler stand for the ISO C++ standard? The content of case 4 is the problem "auto_ptr & auto_ptr_ref want to resolve?"

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