Search Results

Search found 27337 results on 1094 pages for 't sql'.

Page 343/1094 | < Previous Page | 339 340 341 342 343 344 345 346 347 348 349 350  | Next Page >

  • Database normalization and duplicate values

    - by bretddog
    Consider a Parent / Child / GrandChild structure in a database table schema, or even a deeper hierarchy. These being in the same aggregate. One table DAYS keeps a single row per day, and has a "Date" field. This is the root table, or maybe a child of the root. No row can ever be deleted in this table. In this case, however complex my table schema looks like, however far away in the hierarchy any other table is, is there any reason why any other table would hold a Date value? Can't it instead just have a FK to the DAYS table. I obviously assume that the creation of these date fields happen not before such datefield exist in the DAYS table. I'm now thinking just about the date part to be relevant, not the time part. Not sure if all databases can store these individually. That's maybe relevant, but not really the focus of the question.

    Read the article

  • Use Linq to SQL to generate sales report

    - by Richard Reddy
    I currently have the following code to generate a sales report over the last 30 days. I'd like to know if it would be possible to use linq to generate this report in one step instead of the rather basic loop I have here. For my requirement, every day needs to return a value to me so if there are no sales for any day then a 0 is returned. Any of the Sum linq examples out there don't explain how it would be possible to include a where filter so I am confused on how to get the total amount per day, or a 0 if no sales, for the last days I pass through. Thanks for your help, Rich //setup date ranges to use DateTime startDate = DateTime.Now.AddDays(-29); DateTime endDate = DateTime.Now.AddDays(1); TimeSpan startTS = new TimeSpan(0, 0, 0); TimeSpan endTS = new TimeSpan(23, 59, 59); using (var dc = new DataContext()) { //get database sales from 29 days ago at midnight to the end of today var salesForDay = dc.Orders.Where(b => b.OrderDateTime > Convert.ToDateTime(startDate.Date + startTS) && b.OrderDateTime <= Convert.ToDateTime(endDate.Date + endTS)); //loop through each day and sum up the total orders, if none then set to 0 while (startDate != endDate) { decimal totalSales = 0m; DateTime startDay = startDate.Date + startTS; DateTime endDay = startDate.Date + endTS; foreach (var sale in salesForDay.Where(b => b.OrderDateTime > startDay && b.OrderDateTime <= endDay)) { totalSales += (decimal)sale.OrderPrice; } Response.Write("From Date: " + startDay + " - To Date: " + endDay + ". Sales: " + String.Format("{0:0.00}", totalSales) + "<br>"); //move to next day startDate = startDate.AddDays(1); } }

    Read the article

  • using NEWSEQUENTIALID() with UPDATE Trigger

    - by Ram
    I am adding a new GUID/Uniqueidentifier column to my table. ALTER TABLE table_name ADD VersionNumber UNIQUEIDENTIFIER UNIQUE NOT NULL DEFAULT NEWSEQUENTIALID() GO And when ever a record is updated in the table, I would want to update this column "VersionNumber". So I create a new trigger CREATE TRIGGER [DBO].[TR_TABLE_NAMWE] ON [DBO].[TABLE_NAME] AFTER UPDATE AS BEGIN UPDATE TABLE_NAME SET VERSIONNUMBER=NEWSEQUENTIALID() FROM TABLE_NAME D JOIN INSERTED I ON D.ID=I.ID/* some ID which is used to join*/ END GO But just realized that NEWSEQUENTIALID() can only be used with CREATE TABLE or ALTER TABLE. I got this error The newsequentialid() built-in function can only be used in a DEFAULT expression for a column of type 'uniqueidentifier' in a CREATE TABLE or ALTER TABLE statement. It cannot be combined with other operators to form a complex scalar expression. Is there a workaround for this ? Edit1: Changing NEWSEQUENTIALID() to NEWID() in the trigger solves this, but I am indexing this column and using NEWID() would be sub-optimal

    Read the article

  • What is the most effective and flexible way to generate combinations in TSQL?

    - by SDReyes
    What is the most effective and flexible way to generate combinations in TSQL? With 'Flexible', I mean you should be able to add easily combination rules. e.g.: to generate combinatories of 'n' elements, sorting, remove duplicates, get combinatories where each prize belongs to a different lottery, etc. For example, Having a set of numbers representing lottery prizes. Number | Position | Lottery --------------------------- 12 | 01 | 67 12 | 02 | 67 34 | 03 | 67 43 | 01 | 89 72 | 02 | 89 33 | 03 | 89 (I include the position column because, a number could be repeated among different lottery's prizes) I would like to generate combinatories like: Numbers | Lotteries ------------------- 12 12 | 67 67 12 34 | 67 67 12 34 | 67 67 12 43 | 67 89 12 72 | 67 89 12 33 | 67 89 . . .

    Read the article

  • Get substring between "\" where multiple "\"

    - by AceAlfred
    Found this solution to get substring after slash () character DECLARE @st1 varchar(10) SET @st1 = 'MYTEST\aftercompare' SELECT @st1 ,SUBSTRING(@st1, CHARINDEX('\', @st1) + 1, LEN(@st1)) http://social.msdn.microsoft.com/Forums/sqlserver/en-US/5c3a5e2c-54fc-43dd-b12c-1a1f6784d7d8/tsql-get-substring-after-slash-character But is there a way to get substring after second slash or even more? DECLARE @st1 varchar(50) --Added more slashes SET @st1 = 'MYTEST\aftercompare\slash2\slash3\slash4' SELECT @st1 --This part would need some work --,SUBSTRING(@st1, CHARINDEX('\', @st1) + 1, LEN(@st1)) And getting only the substring between the slashes. Values: [1] "aftercompare" - [2] "slash2" - [3] "slash3" - [4] "slash4"

    Read the article

  • Is is faster to filter and get data or filter then get data ?

    - by remi bourgarel
    Hi I have this kind of request : SELECT myTable.ID, myTable.Adress, -- 20 more columns of all kind of type FROM myTable WHERE EXISTS(SELECT * FROM myLink WHERE myLink.FID = myTable.ID and myLink.FID2 = 666) myLink has a lot of rows. Do you think it's faster to do like this : SELECT myLink.FID INTO @result FROM myLink WHERE myLink.FID2 = 666 UPDATE @result SET Adress = myTable.Adress, -- 20 more columns of all kind of type FROM myTable WHERE myTable.ID = @result.ID

    Read the article

  • Sum two rows in one - My Sql

    - by user303832
    I have found some similar posts, but I didn't find them useful. But I didn't know how to group them. I would like to Sum 'No' and 'Not Set' to one row, and to lose 'Not Set' row. So : 'No' = 'No' + 'Not Set' I have something like this : TEST TestCount Month 'Yes' 123 March 'No' 432 March 'Not Set' 645 March 'Yes' 13 April 'No' 42 April 'Not Set' 45 April 'Yes' 133 May 'No' 41 May 'Not Set' 35 May .... And I would like something like this : TEST TestCount Month 'Yes' 423 March 'No' 410 March 'Yes' 154 April 'No' 192 April 'Yes' 130 May 'No' 149 May .... Can anybody help me with this, tnx in advance

    Read the article

  • LINQ to SQL left outer joins

    - by César
    Is this query equivalent to a LEFT OUTER join? var rows = from a in query join s in context.ViewSiteinAdvise on a.Id equals s.SiteInAdviseId where a.Order == s.Order select new {....}; I tried this but it did not result from s in ViewSiteinAdvise join q in query on s.SiteInAdviseId equals q.Id into sa from a in sa.DefaultIfEmpty() where s.Order == a.Order select new {s,a} I need all columns from View

    Read the article

  • hierarchical data from self referencing table in tree form

    - by Beta033
    It looks like this has been asked and answered in all the simple cases, excluding the one that I'm having trouble with. I've tried using a recursive CTE to generate this; however maybe a cursor would be better? Or maybe a set of recursive functions will do the trick? Can this be done in a cte? consider the following table PrimaryKey ParentKey 1 NULL 2 1 3 6 4 7 5 2 6 1 7 NULL should yield PK 1 -2 --5 -6 --3 7 -4 where the number of - marks equal the depth, my primary difficulty is the ordering.

    Read the article

  • SQL query, select from 2 tables random

    - by klaus
    Hello all i have a problem that i just CANT get to work like i what it.. i want to show news and reviews (2 tables) and i want to have random output and not the same output here is my query i really hope some one can explain me what i do wrong SELECT anmeldelser.billed_sti , anmeldelser.overskrift , anmeldelser.indhold , anmeldelser.id , anmeldelser.godkendt FROM anmeldelser LIMIT 0,6 UNION ALL SELECT nyheder.id , nyheder.billed_sti , nyheder.overskrift , nyheder.indhold , nyheder.godkendt FROM nyheder ORDER BY rand() LIMIT 0,6

    Read the article

  • Stored procedure and trigger

    - by noober
    Hello all, I had a task -- to create update trigger, that works on real table data change (not just update with the same values). For that purpose I had created copy table then began to compare updated rows with the old copied ones. When trigger completes, it's neccessary to actualize the copy: UPDATE CopyTable SET id = s.id, -- many, many fields FROM MainTable s WHERE s.id IN (SELECT [id] FROM INSERTED) AND CopyTable.id = s.id; I don't like to have this ugly code in trigger anymore, so I has extracted it to a stored procedure: CREATE PROCEDURE UpdateCopy AS BEGIN UPDATE CopyTable SET id = s.id, -- many, many fields FROM MainTable s WHERE s.id IN (SELECT [id] FROM INSERTED) AND CopyTable.id = s.id; END The result is -- Invalid object name 'INSERTED'. How can I workaround this? Regards,

    Read the article

  • Use a SELECT to Print a Bunch of INSERT INTOs

    - by Mikecancook
    I have a bunch of records I want to move to another database and I just want to create a bunch of inserts that I can copy and paste. I've seen someone do this before but I can't figure it out. I'm not getting the escapes right. It's something like this where 'Code', 'Description' and 'Absent' are the columns I want from the table. SELECT 'INSERT INTO AttendanceCodes (Code, Description, Absent) VALUES (' + Code + ',' + Description + ',' + Absent')' FROM AttendanceCodes The end result should be a slew of INSERTS with the correct values like this: INSERT INTO AttendanceCodes (Code, Description, Absent) VALUES ('A','Unverified Absence','UA')

    Read the article

  • Arabic SQL query (on Oracle DB) returns empty result

    - by unprecedented
    I have this query (that runs on Oracle 10g database): SELECT ge.*, ge.concept AS glossarypivot FROM s_glossary_entries ge WHERE (ge.glossaryid = '161' OR ge.sourceglossaryid = '161') AND (ge.approved != 0 OR ge.userid = 361) AND concept = '?' ORDER BY ge.concept The query must display all words that begin with the arabic letter "?" but unfortunately, it returns empty result .. However, if I run the same query on the same database which runs on MYSQL, it works well and displays the correct result .. What should I do in order to get this query working the right way on oracle 10 database? P.S. the oracle database character set is : "AL32UTF8" thank you so much in advance

    Read the article

  • Is there a way to split the results of a select query into two equal halfs?

    - by Matthias
    I'd like to have a query returning two ResultSets each of which holding exactly half of all records matching a certain criteria. I tried using TOP 50 PERCENT in conjunction with an Order By but if the number of records in the table is odd, one record will show up in both resultsets. Example: I've got a simple table with TheID (PK) and TheValue fields (varchar(10)) and 5 records. Skip the where clause for now. SELECT TOP 50 PERCENT * FROM TheTable ORDER BY TheID asc results in the selected id's 1,2,3 SELECT TOP 50 PERCENT * FROM TheTable ORDER BY TheID desc results in the selected id's 3,4,5 3 is a dup. In real life of course the queries are fairly complicated with a ton of where clauses and subqueries.

    Read the article

  • Is this SQL select code following good practice?

    - by acidzombie24
    I am using sqlite and will port to mysql (5) later. I wanted to know if I am doing something I shouldnt be doing. I tried purposely to design so I'll compare to 0 instead of 1 (I changed hasApproved to NotApproved to do this, not a big deal and I haven't written any code). I was told I never need to write a subquery but I do here. My Votes table is just id, ip, postid (I don't think I can write that subquery as a join instead?) and that's pretty much all that is on my mind. Naming conventions I don't really care about since the tables are created via reflection and is all over the place. select id, name, body, upvotes, downvotes, (select 1 from UpVotes where IPAddr=? AND post=Post.id) as myup, (select 1 from DownVotes where IPAddr=@0 AND post=Post.id) as mydown from Post where flag = '0' limit ?, ?"

    Read the article

  • Keeping Linq to SQL alive when using ViewModels (ASP.NET MVC)

    - by Kohan
    I have recently started using custom ViewModels (For example, CustomerViewModel) public class CustomerViewModel { public IList<Customer> Customers{ get; set; } public int ProductId{ get; set; } public CustomerViewModel(IList<Customer> customers, int productId) { this.Customers= customers; this.ProductId= productId; } public CustomerViewModel() { } } ... and am now passing them to my view instead of the Entities themselves (for example, var Custs = repository.getAllCusts(id) ) as it seems good practice to do so. The problem i have encountered is that when using ViewModels; by the time it has got to the the view i have lost the ability to lazy load on customers. I do not believe this was the case before using them. Is it possible to retain the ability of Lazy Loading while still using ViewModels? Or do i have to eager load using this method? Thanks, Kohan.

    Read the article

  • SQL: Using a CASE Statement to update 1000 rows at once

    - by SoLoGHoST
    Ok, I would like to use a CASE STATEMENT for this, but I am lost with this. Basically, I need to update a ton of rows, but just on the "position" column. I need to update all "position" values from 0 - count(position) for each id_layout_position column per id_layout column. OK, here is a pic of what the table looks like: Now let's say I delete the circled row, this will remove position = 2 and give me: 0, 1, 3, 5, 6, 7, and 4. But I want to add something at the end now and make sure that it has the last possible position, but the positions are already messed up, so I need to reorder them like so before I insert the new row: 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6. But it must be ordered by lowest first. So 0 stays at 0, 1 stays at 1, 3 gets changed to 2, the 4 at the end gets changed to a 3, 5 gets changed to 4, 6 gets changed to 5, and 7 gets changed to 6. Hopefully you guys get the picture now. I'm completely lost here. Also, note, this table is tiny compared to how fast it can grow in size, so it needs to be able to do this FAST, thus I was thinking on the CASE STATEMENT for an UPDATE QUERY. Here's what I got for a regular update, but I don't wanna throw this into a foreach loop, as it would take forever to do it. I'm using SMF (Simple Machines Forums), so it might look a little different, but the idea is the same, and CASE statements are supported... $smcFunc['db_query']('', ' UPDATE {db_prefix}dp_positions SET position = {int:position} WHERE id_layout_position = {int:id_layout_position} AND id_layout = {int:id_layout}', array( 'position' => $position++, 'id_layout_position' => (int) $id_layout_position, 'id_layout' => (int) $id_layout, ) ); Anyways, I need to apply some sort of CASE on this so that I can auto-increment by 1 all values that it finds and update to the next possible value. I know I'm doing this wrong, even in this QUERY. But I'm totally lost when it comes to CASES. Here's an example of a CASE being used within SMF, so you can see this and hopefully relate: $conditions = ''; foreach ($postgroups as $id => $min_posts) { $conditions .= ' WHEN posts >= ' . $min_posts . (!empty($lastMin) ? ' AND posts <= ' . $lastMin : '') . ' THEN ' . $id; $lastMin = $min_posts; } // A big fat CASE WHEN... END is faster than a zillion UPDATE's ;). $smcFunc['db_query']('', ' UPDATE {db_prefix}members SET id_post_group = CASE ' . $conditions . ' ELSE 0 END' . ($parameter1 != null ? ' WHERE ' . (is_array($parameter1) ? 'id_member IN ({array_int:members})' : 'id_member = {int:members}') : ''), array( 'members' => $parameter1, ) ); Before I do the update, I actually have a SELECT which throws everything I need into arrays like so: $disabled_sections = array(); $positions = array(); while ($row = $smcFunc['db_fetch_assoc']($request)) { if (!isset($disabled_sections[$row['id_group']][$row['id_layout']])) $disabled_sections[$row['id_group']][$row['id_layout']] = array( 'info' => $module_info[$name], 'id_layout_position' => $row['id_layout_position'] ); // Increment the positions... if (!is_null($row['position'])) { if (!isset($positions[$row['id_layout']][$row['id_layout_position']])) $positions[$row['id_layout']][$row['id_layout_position']] = 1; else $positions[$row['id_layout']][$row['id_layout_position']]++; } else $positions[$row['id_layout']][$row['id_layout_position']] = 0; } Thanks, I know if anyone can help me here it's definitely you guys and gals... Anyways, here is my question: How do I use a CASE statement in the first code example, so that I can update all of the rows in the position column from 0 - total # of rows found, that have that id_layout value and that id_layout_position value, and continue this for all different id_layout values in that table? Can I use the arrays above somehow? I'm sure I'll have to use the id_layout and id_layout_position values for this right? But how can I do this? Ok, guy, I get an error, saying "Hacking Attempt" with the following code: // Updating all positions in here. $smcFunc['db_query']('', ' SET @pos = 0; UPDATE {db_prefix}dp_positions SET position=@pos:=@pos+1 ORDER BY id_layout_position, position', array( ) ); Am I doing something wrong? Perhaps SMF has safeguards against this approach?? Perhaps I need to use a CASE STATEMENT instead?

    Read the article

  • Assign the results of a stored procedure into a variable in another stored procedure

    - by RHPT
    The title of this question is a bit misleading, but I couldn't summarize this very well. I have two stored procedures. The first stored procedure (s_proc1) calls a second stored procedure (s_proc2). I want to assign the value returned from s_proc2 to a variable in s_proc1. Currently, I'm calling s_proc2 (inside s_proc1) in this manner: EXEC s_proc2 @SiteID, @count = @PagingCount OUTPUT s_proc2 contains a dynamic query statement (for reasons I will not outline here). CREATE dbo.s_proc2 ( @siteID int, @count int OUTPUT ) AS DECLARE @sSQL nvarchar(100) DECLARE @xCount int SELECT @sSQL = 'SELECT COUNT(ID) FROM Authors' EXEC sp_ExecuteSQL @sSQL, N'@xCount int output', @xCount output SET @count = @xCount RETURN @count Will this result in @PagingCount having the value of @count? I ask because the result I am getting from s_proc1 is wonky. In fact, what I do get is two results. The first being @count, then the result of s_proc1 (which is incorrect). So, it makes me wonder if @PagingCount isn't being set properly. Thank you.

    Read the article

  • Fetch last item in a category that fits specific criteria

    - by Franz
    Let's assume I have a database with two tables: categories and articles. Every article belongs to a category. Now, let's assume I want to fetch the latest article of each category that fits a specific criteria (read: the article does). If it weren't for that extra criteria, I could just add a column called last_article_id or something similar to the categories table - even though that wouldn't be properly normalized. How can I do this though? I assume there's something using GROUP BY and HAVING?

    Read the article

  • Is there a command to test an SQL query without executing it? ( MySQL or ANSI SQL )

    - by Petruza
    Is there anything like this: TEST DELETE FROM user WHERE somekey = 45; That can return any errors, for example that somekey doesn't exist, or some constraint violation or anything, and reporting how many rows would be affected, but not executing the query? I know you can easily turn any query in a select query that has no write or delete effect in any row, but that can lead to errors and it's not very practical if you want to test and debug many queries.

    Read the article

  • How I can move table to another filegroup ?

    - by denisioru
    Hello, I have MSSQL 2008 Ent and OLTP database with two big tables. How I can move this tables to another filegroup without service interrupting? Now, about 100-130 records inserted and 30-50 records updated each second in this tables. Each table have about 100M records and six fields (including one field geography). I looking for solution via google, but all solutions contain "create second table, insert rows from first table, drop first table, bla bla bla". Can I use partitioning functions for solving this problem? Thank you.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 339 340 341 342 343 344 345 346 347 348 349 350  | Next Page >