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  • Play playlist with MediaPlayer

    - by Kaloer
    Hi, I'm trying to play a playlist I get using the MediaStore provider. However, when I try playing a playlist nothing happens. Can a MediaPlayer play a playlist (m3u file) and do I need to set the first track to play ? This is my test code in the onCreate() method: Uri uri = MediaStore.Audio.Playlists.EXTERNAL_CONTENT_URI; if(uri == null) { Log.e("Uri = null"); } String[] projection = new String[] { MediaStore.Audio.Playlists._ID, MediaStore.Audio.Playlists.NAME, MediaStore.Audio.Playlists.DATA }; Cursor c = managedQuery(uri, projection, null, null, null); if(c == null) { Toast.makeText(getApplicationContext(), R.string.alarm_tone_picker_error, Toast.LENGTH_LONG).show(); return; } if(!c.moveToFirst()) { c.close(); Toast.makeText(getApplicationContext(), R.string.alarm_tone_picker_no_music, Toast.LENGTH_LONG).show(); return; } c.moveToFirst(); try { MediaPlayer player = new MediaPlayer(); player.setDataSource(c.getString(2)); player.start(); } catch(Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); } I have turned on every volume stream. Thanks you, Kaloer

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  • "Detecting" and loading of "plugins" in GAE

    - by Patrick Cornelissen
    Hi! I have a "plugin like" architecture and I want to create one instance of each class that implements a dedicated interface and put these in a cache. (To have a singleton-ish effect). The plugins will be provided as jars and put into the app engine war file before the app is uploaded. I have tried to use the ClassPathScanningCandidateComponentProvider as I'm using spring anyway, but this didn't work. The provider complained that it was not able to find the HttpServletResponse class file while scanning the classpath. I can't get around this, when I add the servlet jar, then I'll get of course problems, because the same jar is also provided by the GAE. If I don't, I'm getting the error above... So I tried to add a static initialization code, but of course this doesn't work, because the class is initialized when it's instantiated for the first time. (Well I knew that but it was worth a try) The last chance I currently see is that I create a properties file with all plugin classes when the package is created, but this requires writing of a maven plugin etc. and I'd like to avoid that. Is there something that I am missing?

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  • Question about using an access database as a resource file in Visual Studio.

    - by user354303
    Hi I am trying to embed a Microsoft Access database file into my Class assembly DLL. I want my code to reference the resource file and use it with a ADODB.Connection object. Any body know a simpler way, or an easier way? Or what is wrong with my code, when i added the resource file it added me dataset definitions, but i have no idea what to do with those. The connection string I am trying below is from an automatically generated app.config. I did add the item as a resource... using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; using System.Data; using ConsoleApplication1.Resources;//SPPrinterLicenses using System.Data.OleDb; using ADODB; using System.Configuration; namespace ConsoleApplication1 { class SharePointPrinterManager { public static bool IsValidLicense(string HardwareID) { OleDbDataAdapter da = new OleDbDataAdapter(); DataSet ds = new DataSet(); ADODB.Connection adoCn = new Connection(); ADODB.Recordset adoRs = new Recordset(); //**open command below fails** adoCn.Open( @"Provider=Microsoft.ACE.OLEDB.12.0;Data Source=|DataDirectory|\Resources\SPPrinterLicenses.accdb;Persist Security Info=True", "", "", 1); adoRs.Open("Select * from AllWorkstationLicenses", adoCn, ADODB.CursorTypeEnum.adOpenForwardOnly, ADODB.LockTypeEnum.adLockReadOnly, 1); da.Fill(ds, adoRs, "AllworkstationLicenses"); adoCn.Close(); DataTable dt = new DataTable(); //ds.Tables. return true; } } }

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  • Why ASP.NET menu control ignores roles in Web.sitemap?

    - by MainMa
    Hi, I have a website with a menu based on sitemap. ActiveDirectoryRoleProvider is a custom class. securityTrimmingEnabled of sitemap provider is set to true. Now, nevertheless the roles set in the sitemap file, site menu displays every sitemap entity. So for example if I have in sitemap a node with roles="*", a second one with roles="Administrators" and a third one with roles="Foo" and I login as a member of Administrators group but not Foo group, the site menu will display all three items. On the other hand, if I have a node which does not specify roles attribute but has children, this node will never be displayed. If I put: <%= HttpContext.Current.User.IsInRole("Administrators") ? "Admin" : "Not admin"%> <%= HttpContext.Current.User.IsInRole("Foo") ? "Foo" : "Not foo"%> before the menu, it displays that I'm Admin, but Not foo, which is just fine. So if it knows that I'm Admin but Not foo, why does it continue to display Foo's sitemap nodes? Note: changing authorizations has no effect on the menu. It continues to show every item, even for the pages I'm unable to access.

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  • How to structure this Symfony web project?

    - by James William
    I am new to Symfony and am not sure how to best structure my web project. The solution must accommodate 3 use cases: Public access to www.mydomain.com for general use Member only access to member.mydomain.com Administrator access to admin.mydomain.com All three virtual hosts point to the Symfony /web directory Questions: Is this 3 separate applications in my Symfony project (e.g. "frontend", "backend" and "admin" or "public", "member", "admin")? Is this a good approach if there is to be some duplicate code (e.g. generating a member list would be common across all 3 applications, but presented differently)? How would I route to the various applications based on the subdomain when a user accesses *.mydomain.com? Where in Symfony should this routing logic be placed? Or, is this one application with modules for each of the above use cases? EDIT: I do not have access to httpd.conf in apache to specify a default page for virtual hosts. I can only specify a directory for each subdomain using the hostin provider's cPanel.

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  • How can I debug a session

    - by Organ Grinding Monkey
    I have been asked to work of a very large web application and deploy it. The problem that I'm facing here is that when I deploy the application and more that 1 user logs into the system, the sessions seem to cross over i.e: Person A logs in and works on the site, all good. When person B logs in, person A will then be logged in as person B as well. I have been asked to work of a very large web application and deploy it. The problem that I'm facing here is that when I deploy the application and more that 1 user logs into the system, the sessions seem to cross over i.e: Person A logs in and works on the site, all good. When person B logs in, person A will then be logged in as person B as well. If anyone has experienced this behaviour before and can steer me in the right direction, that would be first prize, Second prize would be to show me how I can debug this situation so that I can find out where the problem is and fix it. Some information about the application. From what I've been told and what I've seen within the app is that it started as a .Net 1.1 application and got upgraded to .Net 2 and that's why the log in system was done the way it is. (The application is huge and now complete and that's why I cant rewrite the whole user authentication process, it will just take to long and I don't know what effect it might have) All the Logged in User information is stored in properties that have been added in the Global.asax.vb file. (could this be the problem?) Any help here would be greatly appreciated

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  • How to get around LazyInitializationException in scheduled jobs?

    - by Shreerang
    I am working on a J2EE server application which is deployed on Tomcat. I use Spring source as MVC framework and Hibernate as ORM provider. My object model has lot of Lazy relationships (dependent objects are fetched on request). The high level design is like Service level methods call a few DAO methods to perform database operation. The service method is called either from the Flex UI or as a scheduled job. When it is called from Flex UI, the service method works fine i.e. it fetches some objects using DAO methods and even Lazy loading works. This is possible by the use of OpenSessionInViewFilter configured with the UI servlet. But when the same service method is called as scheduled Job, it gives LazyInitializationException. I can not configure OpenSessionInViewFilter because there is no servlet or UI request associated with that. I tried configuring Transaction around the scheduled job method so that service method starts a transaction and all the DAO methods participate in that same transaction, hoping that the transaction will remain active and hibernate session will be available. But it does not work. Please suggest if anyone has ever been able to get such a configuration working. If needed, I can post the Hibernate configuration and log messages. Thanks a lot for help! Shreerang

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  • How to programmatically set the text of a cell of database in VB.Net?

    - by manuel
    I have a Microsoft Access database file connected to VB.NET. In the database table, I have a 'No.' and a 'Status' column. Then I have a textbox where I can input an integer. I also have a button, which will change the data cell in 'Status' where 'No.' = txtTitleNo.Text(), when I click it. Let's say I want the 'Status' cell to be changed to "Reserved". What codes should I put in the BtnReserve_Click? Here is the code: Public Class theForm Dim con As New OleDb.OleDbConnection Dim ds As New DataSet Dim daTitles As OleDb.OleDbDataAdapter Private Sub theForm_Load(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles MyBase.Load con.ConnectionString = "Provider=Microsoft.Jet.OLEDB.4.0; Data Source=|DataDirectory|\db1.mdb" con.Open() daTitles = New OleDb.OleDbDataAdapter("SELECT * FROM Titles", con) daTitles.Fill(ds, "Titles") DataGridView1.DataSource = ds.Tables("Titles") DataGridView1.AutoResizeColumns() End Sub Private Sub BtnReserve_Click(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles BtnReserve.Click Dim daReserve As OleDb.OleDbCommand For i As Integer = 1 TReservedo DataGridView1.RowCount() If i = Val(txtTitleNo.Text()) Then daReserve = New OleDb.OleDbCommand("UPDATE Titles SET Status = 'Reserved' WHERE No = '" & i & "'", con) daReserve.ExecuteNonQuery() End If Next Dim cb As New OleDb.OleDbCommandBuilder(daTitles) daTitles.Update(ds, "Titles") End Sub This code still does not change the 'Status'. What should I do?

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  • IIS to SQL Server kerberos auth issues

    - by crosan
    We have a 3rd party product that allows some of our users to manipulate data in a database (on what we'll call SvrSQL) via a website on a separate server (SvrWeb). On SvrWeb, we have a specific, non-default website setup for this application so instead of going to http://SvrWeb.company.com to get to the website we use http://application.company.com which resolves to SvrWeb and the host headers resolve to the correct website. There is also a specific application pool set up for this site which uses an Active Directory account identity we'll call "company\SrvWeb_iis". We're setup to allow delegation on this account and to allow it to impersonate another login which we want it to do. (we want this account to pass along the AD credentials of the person signed into the website to SQL Server instead of a service account. We also set up the SPNs for the SrvWeb_iis account via the following command: setspn -A HTTP/SrvWeb.company.com SrvWeb_iis The website pulls up, but the section of the website that makes the call to the database returns the message: Cannot execute database query. Login failed for user 'NT AUTHORITY\ANONYMOUS LOGON'. I thought we had the SPN information set up correctly, but when I check the security event log on SrvWeb I see entries of my logging in, but it seems to be using NTLM and not kerberos: Logon Type: 3 Logon Process: NtLmSsp Authentication Package: NTLM Any ideas or articles that cover this setup in detail would be extremely appreciated! If it helps, we are using SQL Server 2005, and both the web and SQL servers are Windows 2003.

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  • Android: How to periodically send location to a server

    - by Mark
    Hi, I am running a Web service that allows users to record their trips (kind of like Google's MyTracks) as part of a larger app. The thing is that it is easy to pass data, including coords and other items, to the server when a user starts a trip or ends it. Being a newbie, I am not sure how to set up a background service that sends the location updates once every (pre-determined) period (min 3 minutes, max 1 hr) until the user flags the end of the trip, or until a preset amount of time elapses. Once the trip is started from the phone, the server responds with a polling period for the phone to use as the interval between updates. This part works, in that I can display the response on the phone, and my server registers the user's action. Similarly, the trip is closed server-side upon the close trip request. However, when I tried starting a periodic tracking method from inside the StartTrack Activity, using requestLocationUpdates(String provider, long minTime, float minDistance, LocationListener listener) where minTime is the poll period from the server, it just did not work, and I'm not getting any errors. So it means I'm clueless at this point, never having used Android before. I have seen many posts here on using background services with handlers, pending intents, and other things to do similar stuff, but I really don't understand how to do it. I would like the user to do other stuff on the phone while the updates are going on, so if you guys could point me to a tutorial that shows how to actually write background services (maybe these run as separate classes?) or other ways of doing this, that would be great. Thanks!

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  • Debug website on host from virtual machine

    - by Luchaguate
    I have a Windows 7 machine hosting a Windows 7 virtual machine. I am developing a web application using visual studio 2010 on my host machine. I want to run the application in debug mode and access my localhost server from a browser on the virtual machine. (The purpose of this is to be able to debug an application that uses Windows Authentication using different users without having to log off and on for different users on my host machine...) I am using a bridged connection for the virtual machine. I googled how to solve this problem and most of the threads that I found said that if I was using a bridged connection, I could access the server on the host machine by just entering the IP address of my host machine into the url in the browser of the virtual machine. I have tried some different urls using the IP but none of them have worked. As an example, suppose I run my web application in visual studio on my host machine and its url is http://localhost:62789/MyPage.aspx Assume also that I ran ipconfig in CommandPrompt on my host machine and found out that the IP address for my host machine is xxx.xxx.xxx.x. What url should I enter on the virtual machine to access my web application? Thanks in advance.

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  • EF in a UserControl can't see the app.config?

    - by Sven
    I just created a user control. This control also makes use of my static Entity Framework class to load two comboboxes. All is well and runs without a problem. Design and runtime are working. Then when I stop the application all the forms that contain my UserControl don't work any more in design time. I just see two errors: Error1: The specified named connection is either not found in the configuration, not intended to be used with the EntityClient provider, or not valid. Error 2: The variable ccArtikelVelden is either undeclared or was never assigned. (ccArtikelVelde is my UserControl) Runtime everything is still working My static EF Repositoy class: public class BSManagerData { private static BSManagerEntities _entities; public static BSManagerEntities Entities { get { if (_entities == null) _entities = new BSManagerEntities(); return _entities; } set { _entities = value; } } } Some logic happening in my UserControl to load the data in the comboboxes: private void LaadCbx() { cbxCategorie.DataSource = (from c in BSManagerData.Entities.Categories select c).ToList(); cbxCategorie.DisplayMember = "Naam"; cbxCategorie.ValueMember = "Id"; } private void cbxCategorie_SelectedIndexChanged(object sender, EventArgs e) { cbxFabrikant.DataSource = from f in BSManagerData.Entities.Fabrikants where f.Categorie.Id == ((Categorie)cbxCategorie.SelectedItem).Id select f; cbxFabrikant.DisplayMember = "Naam"; cbxFabrikant.ValueMember = "Id"; } The only way to make my forms work again, design time, is to comment out the EF part in the UserControl (see above) and rebuild. It's very strange, everything is in the same assembly, same namespace (for the sake of simplicity). Anyone an idea?

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  • Unable to diligently close the excel process running in memory

    - by NewAutoUser
    I have developed a VB.Net code for retrieving data from excel file .I load this data in one form and update it back in excel after making necessary modifications in data. This complete flow works fine but most of the times I have observed that even if I close the form; the already loaded excel process does not get closed properly. I tried all possible ways to close it but could not be able to resolve the issue. Find below code which I am using for connecting to excel and let me know if any other approach I may need to follow to resolve this issue. Note: I do not want to kill the excel process as it will kill other instances of the excel Dim connectionString As String connectionString = "Provider=Microsoft.Jet.OLEDB.4.0; Data Source=" & ExcelFilePath & "; Extended Properties=excel 8.0; Persist Security Info=False" excelSheetConnection = New ADODB.Connection If excelSheetConnection.State = 1 Then excelSheetConnection.Close() excelSheetConnection.Open(connectionString) objRsExcelSheet = New ADODB.Recordset If objRsExcelSheet.State = 1 Then objRsExcelSheet.Close() Try If TestID = "" Then objRsExcelSheet.Open("Select * from [" & ActiveSheet & "$]", excelSheetConnection, 1, 1) Else objRsExcelSheet.Open("Select Test_ID,Test_Description,Expected_Result,Type,UI_Element,Action,Data,Risk from [" & ActiveSheet & "$] WHERE TEST_Id LIKE '" & TestID & ".%'", excelSheetConnection, 1, 1) End If getExcelData = objRsExcelSheet Catch errObj As System.Runtime.InteropServices.COMException MsgBox(errObj.Message, , errObj.Source) Return Nothing End Try excelSheetConnection = Nothing objRsExcelSheet = Nothing

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  • S3 file Uploading from Mac app though PHP?

    - by Ilija Tovilo
    I have asked this question before, but it was deleted due too little information. I'll try to be more concrete this time. I have an Objective-C mac application, which should allow users to upload files to S3-storage. The s3 storage is mine, the users don't have an Amazon account. Until now, the files were uploaded directly to the amazon servers. After thinking some more about it, it wasn't really a great concept, regarding security and flexibility. I want to add a server in between. The user should authenticate with my server, the server would open a session if the authentication was successful, and the file-sharing could begin. Now my question. I want to upload the files to S3. One option would be to make a POST-request and wait until the server would receive the file. Problems here are, that there would be a delay, when the file is being uploaded from my server to the S3 servers, and it would double the uploading time. Best would be, if I could validate the request, and then redirecting it, so the client uploads it directly to the s3-storage. Not sure if this is possible somehow. Uploading directly to S3 doesn't seem to be very smart. After looking into other apps like Droplr and Dropmark, it looks like they don't do this. Btw. I did this using Little Snitch. They have their api on their own web-server, and that's it. Could someone clear things up for me? EDIT How should I transmit my files to S3? Is there a way to "forward" it, or do I have to upload it to my server and then upload it from there to S3? Like I said, other apps can do this efficiently and without the need of communicating with S3 directly.

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  • How should I handle expected errors? eg. "username already exists"

    - by Pheter
    I am struggling to understand how I should design the error handling parts of my code. I recently asked a similar question about how I should go about returning server error codes to the user, eg. 404 errors. I learnt that I should handle the error from within the current part of the application; seem's simple enough. However, what should I do when I can't handle the error from the current link in the chain? For example, I may have a class that is used to manage authentication. One of it's methods could be createUser($username, $password). Within that function, I need to determine if the username already exists. If this is true, how should I alert the calling code about this? Returning null instead of a user object is one way. But how do I then know what caused the error? How should I handle errors in such a way that calling code can easily find out what caused the error? Is there a design pattern commonly used for this kind of situation?

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  • In need of a Smarter Environmental Package Configuration

    - by Jeremy Liberman
    I am trying to set up a package template in SSIS, following the Wrox Programmer to Programmer book, SQL Server 2008 Integration Services: Problem - Design - Solution. I'm really liking this book even though it is 2008 and we're using SQL Server 2005. I've got a working package template that uses an Indirect XML package configuration to identify what environment (local developer, dev, QA, production, etc) the package is being run in. That locates the SQL Server package configuration for the environment. That set-up is great and all except for the environment variable at the very front of it all. My team would prefer it if the package could use the same environment resource locator as all our other applications and tools use, so we don't two environment markers with essentially the same information in them. Normally we look up a registry key in HKey_Local_Machine but the Registry Package Configuration type only lets you look up the HKey_Current_User registries. My first thought was to write a new Package Configuration Type class that extends the Registry type; after all we'd had such luck writing our own custom log provider. SSIS is super extendable, right? So there doesn't seem to be a way to write your own Package Configuration Types. Is there still some way I can configure my SSIS SQL Server package configuration from a HKLM registry key connection string? If this is not possible, what other workarounds are available? My idea is to write a PowerShell script that will create/modify the Environment Variable that the package will use by fetching the connection string from the registry. This way there's still two markers, but at least then it's automatically maintained and automated. Is this kind of workaround necessary? Thank you for your time.

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  • Implimenting Zend MVC for my existing site-first step?

    - by Joel
    Hi guys, OK-newbie question here. I'll try not to bombard SO with lots of questions-and hopefully this first one will show me the method I'll need to follow for subsequent conversions. I have a web-based calendar system that I developed, but it was coded for me procedurally (using PHP). I'm now working on learning OO and wanting to integrate this site into my localhost Zend Framework and slowly start converting parts to OO and the Zend Framework MVC process in particular. As I've said before, I understand that this will be a slow process, and when I'm done, I still probably won't have anything as OO friendly as if I had rewritten it from scratch, but I'd like to use this as a learning experience. So, I have dropped the whole site into my localhose/zend/Public folder, and everything is showing up great and linking to the database, etc. My question is-what would be the easiest first component to switch over to the MVC model? This site has a bit of everything-forms, login, authentication, some jQuery, etc. Can anyone point to a tutorial that would address what I'm trying to do? If indeed, a form would be one of the simpler things to switch, can someone walk me through those changes? Another idea is changing over all the header info, etc? Thanks for any pointers on where to start! EDIT: Also, I understand that SO is mainly for specific coding questions-I'm happy to share specific code, once I have an idea about which section to tackle first...

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  • CSV is actually .... Semicolon Separated Values ... (Excel export on AZERTY)

    - by Bugz R us
    I'm a bit confused here. When I use Excel 2003 to export a sheet to CSV, it actually uses semicolons ... Col1;Col2;Col3 shfdh;dfhdsfhd;fdhsdfh dgsgsd;hdfhd;hdsfhdfsh Now when I read the csv using Microsoft drivers, it expects comma's and sees the list as one big column ??? I suspect Excel is exporting with semicolons because I have a AZERTY keyboard. However, doesn't the CSV reader then also have to take in account the different delimiter ? How can I know the appropriate delimiter, and/or read the csv properly ?? public static DataSet ReadCsv(string fileName) { DataSet ds = new DataSet(); string pathName = System.IO.Path.GetDirectoryName(fileName); string file = System.IO.Path.GetFileName(fileName); OleDbConnection excelConnection = new OleDbConnection (@"Provider=Microsoft.Jet.OLEDB.4.0;Data Source=" + pathName + ";Extended Properties=Text;"); try { OleDbCommand excelCommand = new OleDbCommand(@"SELECT * FROM " + file, excelConnection); OleDbDataAdapter excelAdapter = new OleDbDataAdapter(excelCommand); excelConnection.Open(); excelAdapter.Fill(ds); } catch (Exception exc) { throw exc; } finally { if(excelConnection.State != ConnectionState.Closed ) excelConnection.Close(); } return ds; }

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  • ExecuteNonQuery: Connection property has not been initialized

    - by 20151012
    I get an error in my code: The error point at dbcom.ExecuteNonQuery();. Code(connection) public admin_addemp() { InitializeComponent(); con = new OleDbConnection(@"Provider=Microsoft.ACE.OLEDB.12.0;Data Source=|DataDirectory|\EMPS.accdb;Persist Security Info=True"); con.Open(); ds.Tables.Add(dt); ds.Tables.Add(dt2); } Code (Save button) private void save_btn_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { OleDbCommand check = new OleDbCommand(); check.Connection = con; check.CommandText = "SELECT COUNT(*) FROM employeeDB WHERE ([EmployeeName]=?)"; check.Parameters.AddWithValue("@EmployeeName", tb_name.Text); if (Convert.ToInt32(check.ExecuteScalar()) == 0) { dbcom2 = new OleDbCommand("SELECT EmployeeID FROM employeeDB WHERE EmployeeID='" + tb_id.Text + "'", con); OleDbParameter param = new OleDbParameter(); param.ParameterName = tb_id.Text; dbcom.Parameters.Add(param); OleDbDataReader read = dbcom2.ExecuteReader(); if (read.HasRows) { MessageBox.Show("The Employee ID '" + tb_id.Text + "' already exist. Please choose another Employee ID."); read.Dispose(); read.Close(); } else { string q = "INSERT INTO employeeDB (EmployeeID, EmployeeName, IC, Address, State, " + " Postcode, DateHired, Phone, ManagerName) VALUES ('" + tb_id.Text + "', " + " '" + tb_name.Text + "', '" + tb_ic.Text + "', '" + tb_add1.Text + "', '" + cb_state.Text + "', " + " '" + tb_postcode.Text + "', '" + dateTimePicker1.Value + "', '" + tb_hp.Text + "', '" + cb_manager.Text + "')"; dbcom = new OleDbCommand(q, con); dbcom.ExecuteNonQuery(); MessageBox.Show("New Employee '" + tb_name.Text + "'- Successfuly Added."); } } else { MessageBox.Show("Employee name '" + tb_name.Text + "' already added into the database"); } ds.Dispose(); } I'm using Microsoft Access 2010 as my database and this is stand alone system. Please help me.

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  • Error in FireFox Loading Images

    - by Brian
    Hello, Details of the app are: ASP.NET project, local web server, hosted in IIS locally, using latest FireFox, uses forms authentication. I'm getting a logon user name/pwd box when trying to access my local web server. Using the net panel in firebug, I see the issue is with an animated GIF, showing up as 401 unauthorized. I check the details and this is what I see for this URL: http://localhost/<virtual>/Images/loading.gif I'm getting the following: Response Headers: Server Microsoft-IIS/5.1 Date Thu, 17 Jun 2010 19:02:58 GMT WWW-Authenticate Negotiate NTLM Connection close Content-Length 4046 Content-Type text/html Request headers: Host localhost User-Agent Mozilla/5.0 (Windows; U; Windows NT 5.1; en-US; rv:1.9.2.3) Gecko/20100401 Firefox/3.6.3 ( .NET CLR 3.5.30729; .NET4.0E) Accept image/png,image/*;q=0.8,*/*;q=0.5 Accept-Language en-us,en;q=0.5 Accept-Encoding gzip,deflate Accept-Charset ISO-8859-1,utf-8;q=0.7,*;q=0.7 Keep-Alive 115 Connection keep-alive Referer <correct referer> Cookie ASP.NET_SessionId=ux4bt345qjz4p3u1wm1zgmez; .ASPXFormsAuth=33F12B444040827B8ABF154EE4EDE43B6CA532432EB846987B355097E00256DF0955C76A37BC593EAA961747BF1CC1D8949FF63C6F2CA69D77213EB15B4EDFAF57A83D9E1F88AB8D821C3A09C07EA2EE; .ASPROLES=qTFrGteJydYAE3118WGXbhJthTDdjdtuQ06t4bYVrM1BwIfcEHU1HhnEcs7TqSOaV-fIN5MH3uO57oNVWXDvrhkZ8gQuURuUk_K0TpoR-DEFXuF953Gl9aIilKAdV211jutMNQmhkt2rdPE2tEhHs3pz953fADxjAOyZl7K-AqNvMk3yqJshhKHhJIf-ALMhWIYlrrKy0WsYznUwh3WCtPfzEBD5XzmXU8HVMJ2-ArLjBISuegvSmxvK1PuXBPhoMRMi9Ynaw6xi9ypGk-R6uN0ljOMCGkB2-20WUlFuP0xWTfac_zCTDT00pbpnyjtygnM-LShOXTrZ_mhoRuXfKYEYSodNihwD6SRr19Nm-8uZ5BQ-W81svM17S2C0vc0FaxtiuAcN_vHcsN1OEJeCuVfRjeqzo9xWEViupP3Vh6aOcCm6yrftgw5x94piuCJO7tCfXjJAw5RVUWDBBWv5gmid171F0k-_XZ0CSv7Gm2Eai1BRfogAqQ_MV3tyPv7XVEyJXRXqYGlf1JpkfTW8S8On4E05v9gx9RcdnKHZebiOZwbP1_ho9nG7pMwXysbhjxtxwZ-zLx-v11_rhZw_i5m7iNcLtt4BbFU-sb_crzMpCKGywHIc452Zp1E0kx1Rfx-2eUnaiLiCfGed-QqelO88NYTpJHttGKEfhFrDgmaIXZPJRtuZ-GrS6t3Vla-8qDAVb1p6ovPwoVT4z4BhQyFsk542gDx-uQDw6D0B6zo7lXfcOjtolUxDcLbETsNlYsexZaxFpRSbw7M1ldwL_k92P9wLPlv9mw4NtyhXKJesMu7GjquZuoBN3hO00AqJEe1tKFFtfrvbE5ZH7uNu7myNdtlxRPe3WZe7qukbqHo1 Pragma no-cache Cache-Control no-cache Any ideas? Thanks.

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  • My Rails session is getting reset when I have concurrent requests

    - by alex_c
    I think I might be misunderstanding something about Rails sessions, so please bear with me, I might not be phrasing my question the best way. I'm working on an iPhone app with a Ruby on Rails backend. I have a web view which by default goes to the index action of one controller (and uses sessions), and in the background a bunch of API calls going to a different controller (and which don't need to use sessions). The problem is, the sessions set by my web view seem to be overwitten by the API calls. My staging server is pretty slow, so there's lots of time for the requests to overlap each other - what I see in the logs is basically this: Request A (first controller) starts. Session is empty. Request B (second controller) starts. Session is empty. Request A finishes. Request A has done authentication, and stored the user ID in the session. Session contains user ID. Request B finishes. Session is empty. Request C starts. Session is empty - not what I want. Now, the strange thing is that request B should NOT be writing anything to the session. I do have before and after filters which READ from the session - things like: user = User.find_by_id(session[:id]) or logger.debug session.inspect and if I remove all of those, then everything works as expected - session contents get set by request A, and they're still there when request C starts. So. I think I'm missing something about how sessions work. Why would reading from the session overwrite it? Should I be accessing it some other way? Am I completely on the wrong track and the problem is elsewhere? Thank you for any insights!

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  • Javascript XMLHttpRequest Post method

    - by user535617
    Hey So I have a question about posting using an XMLHttpRequest. In theory, if I am to post a username and password to an https domain (which I have yet to get working, unfortunately) would the responseText then change to the next website, or should the text fields become filled in? What normally happens is you navigate to this page via browser, enter a username and password, and it uses a POST method when the submit button is clicked, doing some authentication under the hood and returning a different page. I feel like maybe the responseText should even stay exactly the same (which is what happens now), but I don't know as I have no experience with this kind of thing. this.requests[1].open("POST", "https://" + this.address, true); var query = "target=%2Fcgi-bin%2FStatusConfig.cgi%3FPage%3Dindex&userfile=&username=user&password=pass&log+in=Log+in"; this.requests[1].setRequestHeader("Content-Type", "application/x-www-form-urlencoded"); this.requests[1].setRequestHeader("Content-length", query.length); this.requests[1].setRequestHeader("Keep-Alive", 115); this.requests[1].setRequestHeader("Connection", "keep-alive"); this.requests[1].setRequestHeader("Host", this.address); this.requests[1].send(query); this.requests[1].onreadystatechange = onReadyStateChange1; Then basically onReadyStateChange1 displays the responseText when ready. Any light that could be shed on what SHOULD be happening with the post and responseText would be very appreciated. As would any advice in getting the new, logged into page. For further clarification, what I'm trying to do is log in and then return the new page, because the login page displays only log in information/functionality and the page after logging in has a lot of relevant information. I'm not trying to check the credentials as much as I'm trying to get it (the script) to log in so it can access the next page. Granted, the credentials will have to be valid for that. Thanks all.

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  • Android - Take a photo, save it in app drawables and display it in an ImageButton

    - by Andres7X
    I have an Android app with an ImageButton. When user clicks on it, intent launches to show camera activity. When user capture the image, I'd like to save it in drawable folder of the app and display it in the same ImageButton clicked by the user, replacing the previous drawable image. I used the activity posted here: Capture Image from Camera and Display in Activity ...but when I capture an image, activity doesn't return to activity which contains ImageButton. Edit code is: public void manage_shop() { static final int CAMERA_REQUEST = 1888; [...] ImageView photo = (ImageView)findViewById(R.id.getimg); photo.setOnClickListener(new View.OnClickListener() { @Override public void onClick(View v) { Intent camera = new Intent(android.provider.MediaStore.ACTION_IMAGE_CAPTURE); startActivityForResult(camera, CAMERA_REQUEST); } }); [...] } And onActivityResult(): protected void onActivityResult(int requestCode, int resultCode, Intent data) { ImageButton getimage = (ImageButton)findViewById(R.id.getimg); if (requestCode == CAMERA_REQUEST && resultCode == RESULT_OK) { Bitmap getphoto = (Bitmap) data.getExtras().get("data"); getimage.setImageBitmap(getphoto); } } How can I also store the captured image in drawable folder?

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  • Is it possible, in ASP .net, to reference private assembly in a non-virtual subdirectory?

    - by Bago
    Is it possible to reference a private assembly in asp .net from a sub-folder that is not setup as a virtual directory? In other words, my page is setup in ~/subdir, I don't have access to ~/, and I am not an IIS admin. Can I reference a private assembly? How would I do this? I've tried <%@ Assembly Src="/subdir/bin/Assembly.dll % and <%@ Assembly Src="/subdir/bin/Assembly.dll % , but I get the messages "There is no build provider to match the extension .dll" or "Failed to map to path" respectively. Here is my folder structure: / | -subdir | | - Bin | | | *Assembly.dll | | *Default.aspx I've heard that in web.config might do the trick, but when I've tried it, it doesn't seem to work. Furthermore, I've read that only works in the application .config file. (i.e., the one in ~/). Anyhow, I already tried adding the following to web.config: <runtime> <assemblyBinding xmlns="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:asm.v1"> <probing privatePath="/subdir/bin" /> <dependentAssembly> <codeBase href="/subdir/bin/Assembly.dll"/> </dependentAssembly> </assemblyBinding> For more background on my problem, I am simply using a shared host, all I have is access to is that subdirectory, and I am trying to use fckeditor.

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  • Is it possible, in ASP.net, to reference private assembly in a non-virtual subdirectory?

    - by Bago
    Is it possible to reference a private assembly in asp .net from a sub-folder that is not setup as a virtual directory? In other words, my page is setup in ~/subdir, I don't have access to ~/, and I am not an IIS admin. Can I reference a private assembly? How would I do this? I've tried <%@ Assembly Src="/subdir/bin/Assembly.dll % and <%@ Assembly Src="/subdir/bin/Assembly.dll % , but I get the messages "There is no build provider to match the extension .dll" or "Failed to map to path" respectively. Here is my folder structure: / | -subdir | | - Bin | | | *Assembly.dll | | *Default.aspx I've heard that in web.config might do the trick, but when I've tried it, it doesn't seem to work. Furthermore, I've read that only works in the application .config file. (i.e., the one in ~/). Anyhow, I already tried adding the following to web.config: <runtime> <assemblyBinding xmlns="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:asm.v1"> <probing privatePath="/subdir/bin" /> <dependentAssembly> <codeBase href="/subdir/bin/Assembly.dll"/> </dependentAssembly> </assemblyBinding> For more background on my problem, I am simply using a shared host, all I have is access to is that subdirectory, and I am trying to use fckeditor.

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