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• How do I change the color settings in emacs23 running in a terminal console?

  - by Anonymous

  I use xterm and set its appearance in ~/.Xdefaults: XTerm*background: paleTurquoise XTerm*foreground: black I also use emacs, but set its appearance differently in ~/.emacs: (set-background-color "black") (set-foreground-color "yellow") I usually run emacs within the terminal console with emacs -nw, rather than creating a separate X window. For some reason, this doesn't work properly for emacs23; instead, emacs retains the pale turquoise background of my xterm window. Looking at what's new in emacs23, I noted that: ** When running in a new enough xterm (newer than version 242), Emacs asks xterm what the background color is and it sets up faces accordingly for a dark background if needed (the current default is to consider the background light). So it's a feature, not a bug? Anyway, is there some way that I can I tell emacs23 to ignore the xterm background settings when running in console mode, and use the settings in ~/.emacs instead? I'll also note that: Running M-x set-background-color within emacs23 -nw has no effect. It works fine in emacs23 running in a separate X window (without the -nw option). It worked fine in emacs22; and I'm not really sure whether I need to use emacs23... It's not just xterm: the same problem exists with $TERM=cygwin, for example.

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• I deleted a full set of columns in a save, but have the original larger sheet, Can I get that back?

  - by Ben Henley

  I have an original sheet that has over 39000 lines in it. I knocked it down to 1800 lines that I want to improt into my database, however. The Dumb#$$ that I am, I selected only the visible cells and killed like 10 columns that I need. Is there a way to compare to the original sheet using a specific column... i.e. SKU and pull the data from the origianal to put back in the missing columns or do I have to just re-edit the whole thing down again. Please help as this takes a good day or two to minimize. Any and all help is much appreciated. Below is the column list on the edited sheet vs. the original sheet. SKU DESCRIPTION VENDOR PART # RETAIL UNIT CONVERSION RETAIL U/M RETAIL DEPARTMENT VENDOR NAME SELL PACK QUANTITY BREAK SELL PACK FLAG BLISH VENDOR # FINE LINE CLASS ITEM ACTION FLAG PRIMARY UPC STOCK U/M WEIGHT LENGTH WIDTH HEIGHT SHIP-VIA EXCLUSION HAZARDOUS CODE PRICE SUGGESTED RETAIL SKU DESCRIPTION RETAIL UNIT CONVERSION RETAIL U/M RETAIL DEPARTMENT VENDOR NAME SELL PACK QUANTITY BREAK SELL PACK FLAG FINE LINE CLASS HAZARDOUS CODE PRICE SUGGESTED RETAIL RETAIL SENSITIVITY CODE 2ND UPC CODE 3RD UPC CODE 4TH UPC CODE HEADLINE BULLET #1 BULLET #2 BULLET #3 BULLET #4 BULLET #5 BULLET #6 BULLET #7 BULLET #8 BULLET #9 SIZE COLOR CASE QUANTITY PRODUCT LINE Thanks, Ben

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• SFINAE failing with enum template parameter

  - by zeroes00

  Can someone explain the following behaviour (I'm using Visual Studio 2010). header: #pragma once #include <boost\utility\enable_if.hpp> using boost::enable_if_c; enum WeekDay {MONDAY, TUESDAY, WEDNESDAY, THURSDAY, FRIDAY, SATURDAY, SUNDAY}; template<WeekDay DAY> typename enable_if_c< DAY==SUNDAY, bool >::type goToWork() {return false;} template<WeekDay DAY> typename enable_if_c< DAY!=SUNDAY, bool >::type goToWork() {return true;} source: bool b = goToWork<MONDAY>(); compiler this gives error C2770: invalid explicit template argument(s) for 'enable_if_c<DAY!=6,bool>::type goToWork(void)' and error C2770: invalid explicit template argument(s) for 'enable_if_c<DAY==6,bool>::type goToWork(void)' But if I change the function template parameter from the enum type WeekDay to int, it compiles fine: template<int DAY> typename enable_if_c< DAY==SUNDAY, bool >::type goToWork() {return false;} template<int DAY> typename enable_if_c< DAY!=SUNDAY, bool >::type goToWork() {return true;} Also the normal function template specialization works fine, no surprises there: template<WeekDay DAY> bool goToWork() {return true;} template<> bool goToWork<SUNDAY>() {return false;} To make things even weirder, if I change the source file to use any other WeekDay than MONDAY or TUESDAY, i.e. bool b = goToWork<THURSDAY>(); the error changes to this: error C2440: 'specialization' : cannot convert from 'int' to 'const WeekDay' Conversion to enumeration type requires an explicit cast (static_cast, C-style cast or function-style cast)

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• Web Servicet Client in JBOSS 5.1 with JDK6

  - by dcp

  This is a continuation of the question here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2435286/jboss-does-app-have-to-be-compiled-under-same-jdk-as-jboss-is-running-under It's different enough though that it required a new question. I am trying to use jdk6 to run JBOSS 5.1, and I downloaded the JDK6 version of JBOSS 5.1. This works fine and my EAR application deploys fine. However, when I want to run a web service client with code like this: public static void main(String[] args) throws Exception { System.out.println("creating the web service client..."); TestClient client = new TestClient("http://localhost:8080/tc_test_project-tc_test_project/TestBean?wsdl"); Test service = client.getTestPort(); System.out.println("calling service.retrieveAll() using the service client"); List<TestEntity> list = service.retrieveAll(); System.out.println("the number of elements in list retrieved using the client is " + list.size()); } I get the following exception: javax.xml.ws.WebServiceException: java.lang.UnsupportedOperationException: setProperty must be overridden by all subclasses of SOAPMessage at org.jboss.ws.core.jaxws.client.ClientImpl.handleRemoteException(ClientImpl.java:396) at org.jboss.ws.core.jaxws.client.ClientImpl.invoke(ClientImpl.java:302) at org.jboss.ws.core.jaxws.client.ClientProxy.invoke(ClientProxy.java:170) at org.jboss.ws.core.jaxws.client.ClientProxy.invoke(ClientProxy.java:150) Now, here's the really interesting part. If I change the JDK that my the code above is running under from JDK6 to JDK5, the exception above goes away! It's really strange. The only way I found for the code above to run under JDK6 was to take the JBOSS_HOME/lib/endorsed folder and copy it to JDK6_HOME/lib. This seems like it shouldn't be necessary, but it is. Is there any other way to make this work other than using the workaround I just described?

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• What is default javac source mode (assert as identifier compilation)?

  - by waste

  According to Orcale's Java7 assert guide: source mode 1.3 (default) — the compiler accepts programs that use assert as an identifier, but issues warnings. In this mode, programs are not permitted to use the assert statement. source mode 1.4 — the compiler generates an error message if the program uses assert as an identifier. In this mode, programs are permitted to use the assert statement. I wrote such class: package mm; public class ClassTest { public static void main(String[] arg) { int assert = 1; System.out.println(assert); } } It should compile fine if Oracle's info right (1.3 is default source mode). But I got errors like this: $ javac -version javac 1.7.0_04 $ javac -d bin src/mm/* src\mm\ClassTest.java:5: error: as of release 1.4, 'assert' is a keyword, and may not be used as an identifier int assert = 1; ^ (use -source 1.3 or lower to use 'assert' as an identifier) src\mm\ClassTest.java:6: error: as of release 1.4, 'assert' is a keyword, and may not be used as an identifier System.out.println(assert); ^ (use -source 1.3 or lower to use 'assert' as an identifier) 2 errors I added manually -source 1.3 and it issued warnings but compiled fine. It seems that Oracle's information is wrong and 1.3 is not default source mode. Which one is it then?

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• Display a input type=file over another input type=file

  - by Kevin Sedgley

  WARNING: Lengthy description coming up! I have written an uploader based upon APC progress uploader for PHP. This works fine and dandy, but the script as a whole (apc etc) is intended to be used only for those with Javascript. To achieve this, I have searched for any input type=file, and replaced these with an absolutely positioned form that appears over the original area where the old file input area was. The reasons for this are so the new uploader can submit to a hidden in page IFrame has to be in a seperate <form> in order to submit to the APC reciever to display the progress upload bar. allows it to be used within any form with an input type=file throughout the site I have used JQuery to do this, with the following code: Original HTML form code: <div><input type="file" name="media" id="media" /></div> Find position of div block code: // get the parent div, and properties thereof parentDiv = $(this).closest('div'); w = $(parentDiv).width(); h = $(parentDiv).height(); loc = $(parentDiv).offset(); Locate new block over old block: $('#_sender').appendTo('body').css({left:loc.left,top:loc.top,position:'absolute',zIndex:400,height:h,width:w}).show(); This works fine, and shows over the old block OK. The problem: When other elements in the DOM before or above it change (in this case a "tree view" selector is pushing the old block down) the new upload form gets moved over other elements. Is there a JQuery (or JS) method for changing this upon DOM change? Some kind of .onchange for the page?! Or an .onmove for the original block? Thanks in advance you lovely people Before DOM change: . After: .

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• csc.exe not found error

  - by pokrate

  I have installed a fresh copy of windows xp 2002 with SP2, and then VS.net 2008 enterprise edition. I am trying to build a simplest possible web application, and its not compiling giving error csc.exe not found. I googled a lot, and spot the problem in the following section in web.config : <system.codedom> <compilers> <compiler language="c#;cs;csharp" extension=".cs" warningLevel="4" type="Microsoft.CSharp.CSharpCodeProvider, System, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b77a5c561934e089"> <providerOption name="CompilerVersion" value="v3.5"/> <providerOption name="WarnAsError" value="false"/> </compiler> <compiler language="vb;vbs;visualbasic;vbscript" extension=".vb" warningLevel="4" type="Microsoft.VisualBasic.VBCodeProvider, System, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b77a5c561934e089"> <providerOption name="CompilerVersion" value="v3.5"/> <providerOption name="OptionInfer" value="true"/> <providerOption name="WarnAsError" value="false"/> </compiler> </compilers> </system.codedom> But if i remove the csharp compiler section , and then compile, it compiles fine with vb compiler section. And if I change the value from v3.5 to v2.0 in the of csharp section, then also it compiles fine. But then all my Linq Queries are not recognized by the compiler. But System.Linq and all classes present in it are accessible in the code. Please help in this weird behavior.

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• My timer code is failing when IAR is configured to do max optimization

  - by Vishal

  Hi, I have used timer A in MSP430 with high compiler optimization, but found that my timer code is failing when high compiler optimization used. When none optimization is used code works fine. This code is used to achieve 1 ms timer tick. timeOutCNT is increamented in interrupt. Following is the code [Code] //Disable interrupt and clear CCR0 TIMER_A_TACTL = TIMER_A_TASSEL | // set the clock source as SMCLK TIMER_A_ID | // set the divider to 8 TACLR | // clear the timer MC_1; // continuous mode TIMER_A_TACTL &= ~TIMER_A_TAIE; // timer interrupt disabled TIMER_A_TACTL &= 0; // timer interrupt flag disabled CCTL0 = CCIE; // CCR0 interrupt enabled CCR0 = 500; TIMER_A_TACTL &= TIMER_A_TAIE; //enable timer interrupt TIMER_A_TACTL &= TIMER_A_TAIFG; //enable timer interrupt TACTL = TIMER_A_TASSEL + MC_1 + ID_3; // SMCLK, upmode timeOutCNT = 0; //timeOutCNT is increased in timer interrupt while(timeOutCNT <= 1); //delay of 1 milisecond TIMER_A_TACTL = TIMER_A_TASSEL | // set the clock source as SMCLK TIMER_A_ID | // set the divider to 8 TACLR | // clear the timer MC_1; // continuous mode TIMER_A_TACTL &= ~TIMER_A_TAIE; // timer interrupt disabled TIMER_A_TACTL &= 0x00; // timer interrupt flag disabled [/code] Can anybody help me here to resolve this issue? Is there any other way we can use timer A so it works fine in optimization modes? Or do I have used is wrongly to achieve 1 ms interrupt? Thanks in advanced. Vishal N

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• CorePlot linker errors after upgrading iOS SDK

  - by JustinXXVII

  This seems like it's happened before but somehow ended up working itself out. It's happened again and I can't seem to get this fixed. I use the CorePlot Cocoa Touch framework. Everything was fine until I upgraded to the new 4.3 beta. Now my project won't compile, and is giving me linker errors for unknown symbols having to do with CorePlot. I've become a pro at adding the framework to my project, and I've checked and rechecked the instructions trying to do it again. Is there a button I can click or anything to just make this work again? I've used these instructions to try to re-add the framework, to no avail EDIT: By the way, this compiles just fine for simulator and runs graphs no problem. Compiling for the device gives me the linker errors, as follows: "_OBJC_CLASS_$_CPPlotRange", referenced from: objc-class-ref in GraphStatsWindow.o objc-class-ref in iPadGraphView.o objc-class-ref in GraphTrendView.o "_OBJC_CLASS_$_CPXYGraph", referenced from: objc-class-ref in GraphStatsWindow.o objc-class-ref in iPadGraphView.o objc-class-ref in GraphTrendView.o "_OBJC_CLASS_$_CPTextStyle", referenced from: objc-class-ref in GraphStatsWindow.o objc-class-ref in iPadGraphView.o objc-class-ref in GraphTrendView.o "_OBJC_CLASS_$_CPLineStyle", referenced from: objc-class-ref in GraphStatsWindow.o objc-class-ref in iPadGraphView.o objc-class-ref in GraphTrendView.o "_OBJC_CLASS_$_CPScatterPlot", referenced from: objc-class-ref in GraphStatsWindow.o objc-class-ref in iPadGraphView.o objc-class-ref in GraphTrendView.o "_OBJC_CLASS_$_CPAxisLabel", referenced from: objc-class-ref in GraphStatsWindow.o objc-class-ref in iPadGraphView.o objc-class-ref in GraphTrendView.o "_OBJC_CLASS_$_CPPlotSymbol", referenced from: objc-class-ref in GraphStatsWindow.o objc-class-ref in iPadGraphView.o objc-class-ref in GraphTrendView.o "_OBJC_CLASS_$_CPColor", referenced from: objc-class-ref in GraphStatsWindow.o objc-class-ref in iPadGraphView.o objc-class-ref in GraphTrendView.o "_OBJC_CLASS_$_CPFill", referenced from: objc-class-ref in GraphStatsWindow.o objc-class-ref in iPadGraphView.o objc-class-ref in GraphTrendView.o "_CPDecimalFromFloat", referenced from: -[GraphStatsWindow setNewGraph] in GraphStatsWindow.o -[iPadGraphView viewDidLoad] in iPadGraphView.o -[GraphTrendView setNewGraph] in GraphTrendView.o "_kCPPlainWhiteTheme", referenced from: -[GraphStatsWindow setNewGraph] in GraphStatsWindow.o -[iPadGraphView viewDidLoad] in iPadGraphView.o -[GraphTrendView setNewGraph] in GraphTrendView.o "_OBJC_CLASS_$_CPTheme", referenced from: objc-class-ref in GraphStatsWindow.o objc-class-ref in iPadGraphView.o objc-class-ref in GraphTrendView.o ld: symbol(s) not found for architecture armv7

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• Passing data to a non-static listBox, by calling function from another class

  - by Andrew A

  I have a simple forms program that I have been fighting with for a while now. I simply want to be able to call a method from a different class file (when a certain step is triggered in the code in that class file) in order to insert a string in the listBox. Here is my main method, pretty standard: class Program { [STAThread] static void Main(string[] args) { Application.EnableVisualStyles(); Application.SetCompatibleTextRenderingDefault(false); Application.Run(new MainForm()); } } Here is the function which resides in my MainForm.cs file, which I can call just fine from that class file (via 'TextToBox(myString);'): public partial class MainForm : Form { ... // Function to output results to main Listbox window public void TextToBox(string aString) { // Place messages in Main Display list box window this.listBox1.Items.Insert(0, aString); } ... } But my problem is when I am in another class and I want to call 'TextToBox(myString);'. If I create another object reference of the MainForm, the code compiles fine but nothing will show up in the listBox. How do I do this? I cannot simply make TextToBox() static. I know I must create the object reference but I can't figure out how to reference the ORIGINAL MainForm, the one that was created in the Main method. Thanks in advance...

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• Clarification needed: How does .NET runtime resolve assembly references from parent folder?

  - by aoven

  I have the following output structure of executables in my solution: %ProgramFiles% | +-[MyAppName] | +-[Client] | | | +-(EXE & several DLL assemblies) | +-[Common] | | | +-[Schema Assemblies] | | | | | +-(several DLL assemblies) | | | +-(several DLL assemblies) | +-[Server] | +-(EXE & several DLL assemblies) Each project in solution references different DLL assemblies, some of which are outputs from other projects in solution, and others are plain 3rd-party assemblies. For example, [Client] EXE might reference an assembly in [Common], which is in a different directory branch. All references have "Copy Local" set to false, to mirror the layout of the files in the final installed application. Now, if I take a look at reference properties in the Visual Studio IDE, I see that "Path" of every reference is absolute and that it corresponds to the actual output location of the assembly. That's understandable and correct. As expected, solution compiles and runs just fine. What I don't understand is, why everything seems to work even when I close the IDE, rename the [MyAppName] directory and run the [Client] EXE manually? How does the runtime find the assemblies if the reference paths aren't the same as they were at the time of linking? To be clear - this is actually exactly what I'm after: a semi-dispersed set of application files that run fine regardless of where the [MyAppName] directory is located or even what it's named. I'd just like to know, how and why this works without any specific path resolution on my part. I've read the answers to this similar question, but I still don't get it. Help much appreciated!

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• asp.net doesn't render Sys.WebForms.PageRequestManager._initialize code

  - by ajitatif

  i'm using the ASP.NET 2.0 Ajax Extensions on a web site. as always, everything is fine on local but the remote web site does not use ajax calls. my local server has the ASP.NET Ajax extensions installed but the remote one doesn't. i know that i should be able to use the Ajax extensions without installing them. so in turn, i added the extensions' .dll among the web site's references but still no luck. after my further investigation, i found out that local and remote pages have exactly the same HTML code rendered, except that the local (working) one has these lines //<![CDATA[ Sys.WebForms.PageRequestManager._initialize('ctl00$ContentPlaceHolder1$ScriptManager1', document.getElementById('aspnetForm')); Sys.WebForms.PageRequestManager.getInstance()._updateControls(['tctl00$ContentPlaceHolder1$updReportArgs','tctl00$ContentPlaceHolder1$updReport'], ['ctl00$ContentPlaceHolder1$chkTumu','ctl00$ContentPlaceHolder1$btnGetir'], [], 90); //]]> obviously, these are the lines of code that make callbacks possible. the question is why doesn't asp.net render these lines? what could be missing? by the way, the ScriptResource.axd and WebResource.axd doesn't give a 404 or anything, i can see through their js codes via Firebug. and one more thing: i'm unsure if it is related or not, but there are client-side asp.net validators on the page whose js code are not rendered either. again, those work fine locally. for further investigation you can see the remote site here : http://www.ajitatif.com/subdomains/nazer/Raporlar/danismanbasarim.aspx

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• question/problem regarding assigning an array of char *

  - by Fantastic Fourier

  Hi I'm working with C and I have a question about assigning pointers. struct foo { int _bar; char * _car[MAXINT]; // this is meant to be an array of char * so that it can hold pointers to names of cars } int foofunc (void * arg) { int bar; char * car[MAXINT]; struct foo thing = (struct foo *) arg; bar = arg->_bar; // this works fine car = arg->_car; // this gives compiler errors of incompatible types in assignment } car and _car have same declaration so why am I getting an error about incompatible types? My guess is that it has something to do with them being pointers (because they are pointers to arrays of char *, right?) but I don't see why that is a problem. when i declared char * car; instead of char * car[MAXINT]; it compiles fine. but I don't see how that would be useful to me later when I need to access certain info using index, it would be very annoying to access that info later. in fact, I'm not even sure if I am going about the right way, maybe there is a better way to store a bunch of strings instead of using array of char *?

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• Problem installing mysql gem on Snow Leopard: uninitialized constant MysqlCompat::MysqlRes

  - by emson

  Hi All I've got a problem trying to install the Ruby mysql gem driver. I recently upgraded to Snow Leopard and did the Hivelogic manual install of MySQL. This all seems to work fine as I can access mysql from the command line and make changes to the database. My problem is that if I now use rake db:migrate I get: rake aborted! uninitialized constant MysqlCompat::MysqlRes (See full trace by running task with --trace) Now it appears that my mysql gem isn't working correctly as I can access MySQL fine from Python using the Python driver (which I compiled to). I therefore tried to rebuild the gem using the following command from this site: http://techliberty.blogspot.com/, (incidentally I am using a recent Intel MacBook Pro): sudo env ARCHFLAGS="-arch x86_64" gem install mysql -- --with-mysql-config=/usr/local/mysql/bin/mysql_config This compiles although I get No definition for the documentation: Building native extensions. This could take a while... Successfully installed mysql-2.8.1 1 gem installed Installing ri documentation for mysql-2.8.1... No definition for next_result No definition for field_name ... I'm a little stumped as my mysql_config is located in the correct place: /usr/local/mysql/bin/mysql_config And I have removed all other instances of the mysql gem, from my system. Any suggestions would be greatly appreciated. Many thanks. PS I saw this previous post http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1332207/uninitialized-constant-mysqlcompatmysqlres-using-mms2r-gem but it doesn't seem applicable for my version.

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• file upload working in one and not the other help

  - by rod

  Hi All, I have a web application which has 2 different versions deployed. 1 is a ASP.Net web forms version and the other is an ASP.Net MVC version I have a File Upload page which dynamically creates a directory folder for the target location of the file to be uploaded to. The application is using Forms Authentication for outside users and Integrated Windows Authentication for inside the network users. I have an issue where a user can upload a file in the ASP.Net Web Forms version fine. But when the same user tries to upload the file in the MVC version the user gets a File.IO permission error. Here's a kicker: I can upload the same file in both versions. The user is in a remote location but I believe they're still inside the network because they can work on the other parts of the application just fine. Possible clues: In the event log there's an info that says Event code:4005 Forms authentication failed for the request. Reason: Ticket supplied was invalid. What would be your initial thoughts on why this is happening? Thanks, Rod.

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• Update Related Entity Of Detached Entity

  - by Hemslingo

  I'm having an issue updating an entity with multiple related entities. I've got a very simple model which consists of an article entity and a list of categories the article can be related to. You can choose from a check box list which of these categories are associated to it...which works fine. The problem crops up when I actually come to update an existing entity using the dbContext. As I am updating this entity, I have already detached it from the context ready to re-attach it later so the update can execute properly. I can see that after I posting the model, the category(s) are being added to the article entity just fine and it looks like it updates in the repository with no errors occurring. When I look in the database the article has updated as normal but the category(s) have not. Here is my (simplified) update code... public virtual bool Attach(T entity) { _dbContext.Entry(entity).State = EntityState.Modified; _dbSet.Attach(entity); return this.Commit(); } Any help will be much appreciated.

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• Run an ActiveX through Web

  - by balexandre

  We have a webpage that works fine on the local computer as it uses a COM Object that is only available in the local computer. the program generates HTML code: <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript"> <!-- function ResizeControl(){Y = document.body.clientHeight;if (Y < 1) {Y = 1}X = document.body.clientWidth;if (X < 1) {X = 1}ActiveX.width = X;ActiveX.height = Y} --> </script> <style type="text/css">html, body { overflow:hidden; } </style> </head> <body OnResize="ResizeControl()" OnLoad="ResizeControl()" leftmargin="0" topmargin="0" rightmargin="0" bottommargin="0"> <object id="ActiveX" classid="CLSID:8EC68701-329D-4567-BCB5-9EE4BA43D358" width="14" height="14"> <PARAM NAME="tabName" VALUE="Complaints"> </object> </body> </html> and shows fine My question is, How can we port this into a web environment? As the Delphi developer has no idea and I'm not a Delphi fellow. I want to be able to use this "webpage" on a web address http://INTRANET/mysite/thispage.html Any idea, any though, any door to open is greatly appreciate :)

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• Problem with flash in a webbrowser in a winform

  - by fgnt

  I have the oddest problem (but aren't all programming problems odd?). I have a winform that contains a webbrowser object that opens a website that has flash on it. This winform is running on a touchscreen computer (I can't find the brand or model number). Here is what I know: flash objects embeded in a website that is accessed via the webbrowser object in my winform do not function properly said flash objects only react to the first 'click' on them. So the website opens and if I hit a button, that button works but nothing afterward works within the flash object works. If my first 'click' misses a button, nothing works there after. trying to 'click' an flash button gives the same response as just hovering over the button This isn't a problem with the touch part of the touch screen as using a mouse also gives the same not working right response this isn't a problem with the web page as I can open up explorer on the same computer and navigate the webpage just fine from there The program also works 100% right on my personal computer so it shouldn't be the program's fault if it's not the touch screen fault and not the program's fault, I can't blame anything right now. the EXACT same program worked 100% on our old touch screen (which was having other problems so we had to get rid of it). Oh, also, surfing just a 'normal' webpage in a webbrowser in the winform works just fine.

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• instantiate python object within a c function called via ctypes

  - by gwk

  My embedded Python 3.3 program segfaults when I instantiate python objects from a c function called by ctypes. After setting up the interpreter, I can successfully instantiate a python Int (as well as a custom c extension type) from c main: #import <Python/Python.h> #define LOGPY(x) \ { fprintf(stderr, "%s: ", #x); PyObject_Print((PyObject*)(x), stderr, 0); fputc('\n', stderr); } // c function to be called from python script via ctypes. void instantiate() { PyObject* instance = PyObject_CallObject((PyObject*)&PyLong_Type, NULL); LOGPY(instance); } int main(int argc, char* argv[]) { Py_Initialize(); instantiate(); // works fine // run a script that calls instantiate() via ctypes. FILE* scriptFile = fopen("emb.py", "r"); if (!scriptFile) { fprintf(stderr, "ERROR: cannot open script file\n"); return 1; } PyRun_SimpleFileEx(scriptFile, scriptPath, 1); // close on completion return 0; } I then run a python script using PyRun_SimpleFileEx. It appears to run just fine, but when it calls instantiate() via ctypes, the program segfaults inside PyObject_CallObject: import ctypes as ct dy = ct.CDLL('./emb') dy.instantiate() # segfaults lldb output: instance: 0 Process 52068 stopped * thread #1: tid = 0x1c03, 0x000000010000d3f5 Python`PyObject_Call + 69, stop reason = EXC_BAD_ACCESS (code=1, address=0x18) frame #0: 0x000000010000d3f5 Python`PyObject_Call + 69 Python`PyObject_Call + 69: -> 0x10000d3f5: movl 24(%rax), %edx 0x10000d3f8: incl %edx 0x10000d3fa: movl %edx, 24(%rax) 0x10000d3fd: leaq 2069148(%rip), %rax ; _Py_CheckRecursionLimit (lldb) bt * thread #1: tid = 0x1c03, 0x000000010000d3f5 Python`PyObject_Call + 69, stop reason = EXC_BAD_ACCESS (code=1, address=0x18) frame #0: 0x000000010000d3f5 Python`PyObject_Call + 69 frame #1: 0x00000001000d5197 Python`PyEval_CallObjectWithKeywords + 87 frame #2: 0x0000000201100d8e emb`instantiate + 30 at emb.c:9 Why does the call to instantiate() fail from ctypes only? The function only crashes when it calls into the python lib, so perhaps some interpreter state is getting munged by the ctypes FFI call?

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• Updating a DLL in a Production ASP.NET Web Site bin folder

  - by Josh Stodola

  I want to update a class library (a single DLL file) in a production web application. This web app is pre-compiled (published). I read an answer on StackOverflow (sorry, can't seem to find it anymore because the Search function does not work very well), that led me to believe that I could just paste the new DLL in the bin folder and it would be picked up without problems (this would cause the WP to recycle, which is fine with me because we do not use InProc session state). However, when I tried this, my site blows up and gives a FileLoadException saying that the assembly manifest definition does not match the assembly reference. What in the world is this?! Updating the DLL in Visual Studio and re-deploying the entire site works just fine, but it is a huge pain in the rear. What is the point of having a separate DLL if you have to re-deploy the entire site to implement any changes? Here's the question: How can I update a DLL on a production web site without breaking the app and without re-deploying all of the files?

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• C# 4.0: casting dynamic to static

  - by Kevin Won

  This is an offshoot question that's related to another I asked here. I'm splitting it off because it's really a sub-question: I'm having difficulties casting an object of type dynamic to another (known) static type. I have an ironPython script that is doing this: import clr clr.AddReference("System") from System import * def GetBclUri(): return Uri("http://google.com") note that it's simply newing up a BCL System.Uri type and returning it. So I know the static type of the returned object. now over in C# land, I'm newing up the script hosting stuff and calling this getter to return the Uri object: dynamic uri = scriptEngine.GetBclUri(); System.Uri u = uri as System.Uri; // casts the dynamic to static fine Works no problem. I now can use the strongly typed Uri object as if it was originally instantiated statically. however.... Now I want to define my own C# class that will be newed up in dynamic-land just like I did with the Uri. My simple C# class: namespace Entity { public class TestPy // stupid simple test class of my own { public string DoSomething(string something) { return something; } } } Now in Python, new up an object of this type and return it: sys.path.append(r'C:..path here...') clr.AddReferenceToFile("entity.dll") import Entity.TestPy def GetTest(): return Entity.TestPy(); // the C# class then in C# call the getter: dynamic test = scriptEngine.GetTest(); Entity.TestPy t = test as Entity.TestPy; // t==null!!! here, the cast does not work. Note that the 'test' object (dynamic) is valid--I can call the DoSomething()--it just won't cast to the known static type string s = test.DoSomething("asdf"); // dynamic object works fine so I'm perplexed. the BCL type System.Uri will cast from a dynamic type to the correct static one, but my own type won't. There's obviously something I'm not getting about this...

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• Detect IE version in Javascript

  - by Chad Decker

  I want to bounce users of our web site to an error page if they're using a version of Internet Explorer prior to v9. It's just not worth our time and money to support IE pre-v9. Users of all other non-IE browsers are fine and shouldn't be bounced. Here's the proposed code: if(navigator.appName.indexOf("Internet Explorer")!=-1){ //yeah, he's using IE var badBrowser=( navigator.appVersion.indexOf("MSIE 9")==-1 && //v9 is ok navigator.appVersion.indexOf("MSIE 1")==-1 //v10, 11, 12, etc. is fine too ); if(badBrowser){ // navigate to error page } } Will this code do the trick? To head off a few comments that will probably be coming my way: [1] Yes, I know that users can forge their useragent string. I'm not concerned. [2] Yes, I know that programming pros prefer sniffing out feature-support instead of browser-type but I don't feel this approach makes sense in this case. I already know that all (relevant) non-IE browsers support the features that I need and that all pre-v9 IE browsers don't. Checking feature by feature throughout the site would be a waste. [3] Yes, I know that someone trying to access the site using IE v1 (or = 20) wouldn't get 'badBrowser' set to true and the warning page wouldn't be displayed properly. That's a risk we're willing to take. [4] Yes, I know that Microsoft has "conditional comments" that can be used for precise browser version detection. IE no longer supports conditional comments as of IE 10, rendering this approach absolutely useless. Any other obvious issues to be aware of? Thanks.

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• ASP.NET MVC: Returning a view with querystring in tact

  - by ajbeaven

  I'm creating a messaging web app in ASP.NET and are having some problems when displaying an error message to the user if they go to send a message and there is something wrong. A user can look through profiles of people and then click, 'send a message'. The following action is called (url is /message/create?to=username) and shows them a page where they can enter their message and send it: public ActionResult Create(string to) { ViewData["recipientUsername"] = to; return View(); } On the page that is displayed, the username is entered in to a hidden input field. When the user clicks 'send': [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Create(string message, string to) { try { //do message stuff that errors out } catch { ModelState.AddModelErrors(message.GetRuleViolations()); //adding errors to modelstate } return View(); } So now the error message is displayed to the user fine, however the url is changed in that it no longer has the querystring (/message/create). Again, this would be fine except that when the user clicks the refresh button, the page errors out as the Create action no longer has the 'to' parameter. So I'm guessing that I need to maintain my querystring somehow. Is there any way to do this or do I need to use a different method altogether?

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• Authenticated user cannot log in, "The user does not exist or is not unique."

  - by Aquinas

  This is a weird one. I have a WSS3 site, no MOSS, with a custom membership and role provider that authenticates against CRM. All the users have also been added to the site user list so once logged in they have correct display names. On dev and stage everything works fine, but on UAT the users can't get past the login screen. The login screen is working, in that if you type an incorrect password for a user it comes back with the right message, meaning the custom provider is working fine. If you fill the login form in correctly you are immediately redirected straight back to the login screen, with the IIS logs showing that the login screen sent the authenticated user to the site and then was sent back. Setting the site to allow anonymous access shows that the user is not logged in on the site side after authenticating correctly. The ULS logs show: The user does not exist or is not unique. Found 1 trusted forests nzct.local. Found 0 trusted domains Adding logging code to the site I have verified that the membership provider is correctly set, and can find the user when asked. Also, when accessing the site user list, I can find the SP user with the right name. It just refuses to set the current user to be the authenticated user. Weird.

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• TeamCity + HG. Only pull (push?) passing builds

  - by ColoradoMatt

  Feels like with the popularity of continuous integration this one should be a piece of cake but I am stumped. I am setting up TeamCity with HG. I want to be able to push changesets up to a repository that TeamCity watches and runs builds on changes. That's easy. Next, if a build passes, I want that changeset to be pulled into a "clean" repository... one that contains only passing changesets. Should be easy but... TeamCity 6 supports multiple build steps and if any step fails, the rest don't run. My thought was to put a build step at the end that does a pull (or optionally a push?) to get the passing changeset into the clean repository. I am trying to use PsExec to run hg on the box with the repositories. If I try to run just a plain 'hg pull' it can't find the hg.exe even though it is set in the path and I have used the -w flag. I have tried putting a .bat file in the clean repository that takes a revision parameter and it works fine... locally. When I try to run the .bat file remotely (using PsExec) it runs everything fine but it tries to run it on the build agent. Even if I set the -w argument it runs the .bat file there but tries to run the contents on the build agent box. Am I just WAY off in my approach? Seems like this is a pretty obvious thing to do so either my Google skills are waning or no one thinks this is worthy of writing about. Either way, I am stuck in SVN land trying to get out so I would appreciate some help!

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