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• drupal (CMS) or codeigniter (MVC) for creating a new web application?

  - by ajsie

  im going to create a new web application that is very customized. it will contain images, that are fully searchable - in a very, very customized way. when you click on the pictures you can add comments and so on. it requires users to be registered, but the registration/login process will be highly customized too. at the moment im using CodeIgniter for this. But i've read a lot of posts about CMS like Drupal and it sounds like i could let it handle basic stuff, maybe design and other front end work. i have no experience with CMS, in fact, i just started to use a MVC framework like CI and was impressed of how much easier it gets to start developing. so i wonder, if i'm going to create this kind of application, could i use drupal and then add the usual stuff, as i was going to do with CodeIgniter, like controllers, views, models, config files, my own libraries and so on? how does it work on a system like Drupal. how do you code PHP with it as with any MVC framework. it sounds like it has a lot of modules, i just wonder, if i can use it as a MVC framework but have the benefit of having all these basic stuff and design ready to use? cause then it sounds like the best "library" to provide for a web application from scratch. or is it difficult to create a customized app with it? i guess it has modules like images and users, but then how could i customize these so that every image has tags on it and country information, or have every user subscribing to changes to an image, that email will be sent to users and so on? cause i guess its easy to install a module. the question is, how do i customize it. maybe i don't need all that table columns. maybe i want to add/remove business logic. what are the pros and cons with using Drupal for this? is it even the right way to go? can you make a Stackoverflow with Drupal? Facebook? Twitter? Youtube? assuming that you know php of course. share your thoughts cause im totally new on creating a web application! thanks

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• Mocking methods that call other methods Still hit database.Can I avoid it?

  - by devnet247

  Hi, It has been decided to write some unit tests using moq etc..It's lots of legacy code c# (this is beyond my control so cannot answer the whys of this) Now how do you cope with a scenario when you dont want to hit the database but you indirectly still hit the database? This is something I put together it's not the real code but gives you an idea. How would you deal with this sort of scenario? Basically calling a method on a mocked interface still makes a dal call as inside that method there are other methods not part of that interface?Hope it's clear [TestFixture] public class Can_Test_this_legacy_code { [Test] public void Should_be_able_to_mock_login() { var mock = new Mock<ILoginDal>(); User user; var userName = "Jo"; var password = "password"; mock.Setup(x => x.login(It.IsAny<string>(), It.IsAny<string>(),out user)); var bizLogin = new BizLogin(mock.Object); bizLogin.Login(userName, password, out user); } } public class BizLogin { private readonly ILoginDal _login; public BizLogin(ILoginDal login) { _login = login; } public void Login(string userName, string password, out User user) { //Even if I dont want to this will call the DAL!!!!! var bizPermission = new BizPermission(); var permissionList = bizPermission.GetPermissions(userName); //Method I am actually testing _login.login(userName,password,out user); } } public class BizPermission { public List<Permission>GetPermissions(string userName) { var dal=new PermissionDal(); var permissionlist= dal.GetPermissions(userName); return permissionlist; } } public class PermissionDal { public List<Permission> GetPermissions(string userName) { //I SHOULD NOT BE GETTING HERE!!!!!! return new List<Permission>(); } } public interface ILoginDal { void login(string userName, string password,out User user); } public interface IOtherStuffDal { List<Permission> GetPermissions(); } public class Permission { public int Id { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } } Any suggestions? Am I missing the obvious? Is this Untestable code? Very very grateful for any suggestions.

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• Rails learn's confusion

  - by Steve

  This is a beginner's rails learning confusion. When I learn rails, from time to time, I feel frustrated on rails' principle "Convention over Configuration". Rails uses heavily on conventions. A lot of them are just naming conventions. If I forget a convention, I will either use the wrong naming and get unexpected result or get things magically done but don't understand how. Sometimes, I think of configuration. At least configuration lists everything clearly and nothing is in fog. In rails, there seems a hidden, dark contract between you and the machine. If you follow the contract, you communicate well. But a beginner usually forgets items listed on the contract and this usually leads to confusion. That's why when I first pick up rails, I feel like it is somehow difficult to learn. Besides, there are many other things that could be new to a learner, such as using git, using plugins from community, using RESTful routing style, using RSpec. All these are new and come together in learning ruby and rails. This definitely adds up difficulties for a beginner. In contrast, if you learn php, it wouldn't be that bad. You can forget many things and focus on learning php itself. You don't need to learn database handling if you know SQL already(in rails, you need to learn a whole new concept migration), you don't have to learn a new decent unit test(in rails, usually they teach RSpec along the way because rails is agile and you should learn test-driven development in the early learning stage), you don't have to learn a new version control(in rails, you will be taught about git anyway), you don't have to use complicated plugins(in rails, they usually use third-party plugins in textbook examples! what the hell? why not teach how to do a simplified similar thing in rails?), you don't have to worry RESTful style. All in all, when I learn php, I learn it quick and soon I start to write things myself. Learning php is similar to learning C/java. It tastes like those traditional languages. When I learn rails, it is more difficult. And I need to learn ruby as well (I believe many of you learn ruby just because of rails). Does anyone have the similar feeling as I have? How do you overcome it and start to master rails? Hints will be welcomed. Thank you.

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• custom control in DataGridTemplateColumn

  - by Johnsonlu

  Hi all, I'd like to add my custom control into a template column of data grid. The custom control is very similar to a text box, but has an icon in it. The user can click the icon, and selects an item from a prompted window, then the selected item will be filled into the text box. My problem is when the text box is filled, after I click the second column, the text will disappear. If I replace the custom control with a simple text box, the result is the same. Here is the sample code: //Employee.cs using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; namespace SimpleGridTest { public class Employee { public string Department { get; set; } public int ID { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } } } Mainwindow.xaml <Window x:Class="SimpleGridTest.MainWindow" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" Title="MainWindow" Height="350" Width="525"> <Grid> <DataGrid x:Name="grid" Grid.Row="1" Margin="5" AutoGenerateColumns="False" RowHeight="25" RowHeaderWidth="10" ItemsSource="{Binding}" CanUserAddRows="True" CanUserSortColumns="False"> <DataGrid.Columns> <DataGridTemplateColumn Header="Department" Width="150"> <DataGridTemplateColumn.CellTemplate> <DataTemplate> <TextBox Text="{Binding Department}" /> </DataTemplate> </DataGridTemplateColumn.CellTemplate> </DataGridTemplateColumn> <DataGridTextColumn Header="ID" Binding="{Binding Path=ID}" Width="100"/> <DataGridTextColumn Header="Name" Binding="{Binding Path=Name}" Width="200"/> </DataGrid.Columns> </DataGrid> </Grid> </Window> MainWindow.xaml.cs using System.Windows; using System.Collections.ObjectModel; namespace SimpleGridTest { /// <summary> /// Interaction logic for MainWindow.xaml /// </summary> public partial class MainWindow : Window { private ObservableCollection<Employee> _employees = new ObservableCollection<Employee>(); public ObservableCollection<Employee> Employees { get { return _employees; } set { _employees = value; } } public MainWindow() { InitializeComponent(); grid.ItemsSource = Employees; } } } How can I fix this problem? Or I need to write a DataGrid***Column as DataGridTextColumn? Thanks in advance! Best Regards, Johnson

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• Java Best Practice for type resolution at runtime.

  - by Brian

  I'm trying to define a class (or set of classes which implement the same interface) that will behave as a loosely typed object (like JavaScript). They can hold any sort of data and operations on them depend on the underlying type. I have it working in three different ways but none seem ideal. These test versions only allow strings and integers and the only operation is add. Adding integers results in the sum of the integer values, adding strings concatenates the strings and adding an integer to a string converts the integer to a string and concatenates it with the string. The final version will have more types (Doubles, Arrays, JavaScript-like objects where new properties can be added dynamically) and more operations. Way 1: public interface DynObject1 { @Override public String toString(); public DynObject1 add(DynObject1 d); public DynObject1 addTo(DynInteger1 d); public DynObject1 addTo(DynString1 d); } public class DynInteger1 implements DynObject1 { private int value; public DynInteger1(int v) { value = v; } @Override public String toString() { return Integer.toString(value); } public DynObject1 add(DynObject1 d) { return d.addTo(this); } public DynObject1 addTo(DynInteger1 d) { return new DynInteger1(d.value + value); } public DynObject1 addTo(DynString1 d) { return new DynString1(d.toString()+Integer.toString(value)); } } ...and similar for DynString1 Way 2: public interface DynObject2 { @Override public String toString(); public DynObject2 add(DynObject2 d); } public class DynInteger2 implements DynObject2 { private int value; public DynInteger2(int v) { value = v; } @Override public String toString() { return Integer.toString(value); } public DynObject2 add(DynObject2 d) { Class c = d.getClass(); if(c==DynInteger2.class) { return new DynInteger2(value + ((DynInteger2)d).value); } else { return new DynString2(toString() + d.toString()); } } } ...and similar for DynString2 Way 3: public class DynObject3 { private enum ObjectType { Integer, String }; Object value; ObjectType type; public DynObject3(Integer v) { value = v; type = ObjectType.Integer; } public DynObject3(String v) { value = v; type = ObjectType.String; } @Override public String toString() { return value.toString(); } public DynObject3 add(DynObject3 d) { if(type==ObjectType.Integer && d.type==ObjectType.Integer) { return new DynObject3(Integer.valueOf(((Integer)value).intValue()+((Integer)value).intValue())); } else { return new DynObject3(value.toString()+d.value.toString()); } } } With the if-else logic I could use value.getClass()==Integer.class instead of storing the type but with more types I'd change this to use a switch statement and Java doesn't allow switch to use Classes. Anyway... My question is what is the best way to go about something thike this?

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• remove data layer and put into it's own domain

  - by user334768

  I have a SL4 application that uses EF4 & RIA Services. DB is SQL 2008. All is working well. Now I want to put the Database and web services on one domain (A.com) with the web service exposing the same methods available in my working project. (one listed at top of message) Then put a Silverlight application (same one as above) on domain(B.com) and call the web services on A.com. I thought I had a fair understanding of RIA Services. Enough to get the above application working. Now when I say "working" I do mean on my local dev machine. I have yet to deployed as SL4 & .NET 4 application to my hosting site. But I don't think I understand it well enough. I normally create a new business app, add EF then create the RIA DomainService. Add any [Includes] I need, modify my linq queries and run application. And it works. Now I need to break off my data layer and put it on another hosting site (A.com) And put my UI and business logic on another hosting site (B.com) I think I need to do the following : On the Database & web service site: domain(A.com) create application, create EF4, create RIA Services and deploy. At this time, are the methods exposed available as a "WEB SERVICE" to other applications calling by http:// a.com/serviceName.svc address? I think I need to do the following : On the application site : domain(B.com) create a business application (later will need authentication and navigation). How can I create an EF when I don't have access to the database? (I know I do have access but I want know what happens here when I do not have access to the database, but only data provided by a web service) If I can not create an EF how do I create my RIA Service? I hope any one who takes time to help me understands what I'm asking. Sorry so long.

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• .Net Remote Log Querying

  - by jlafay

  I have a Win Service that I'm working on that consists of the service, WF Service (using WorkflowServiceHost), a Workflow (WorkflowApplication) that queries/processes data from a SQL Server DB, and a Comm Marshall class that handles data flow between the service and the WF. The WF does a lot of heavy data processing and the original app (early VB6) logged all the processing and displayed the results on the screen of the host machine. Critical events will be committed to eventlog because I strongly believe that should be common practice because admins naturally will look there and because it already has support for remote viewing. The workflow will also need to write logging events as it processes and iterates according to our business logic. Such as: records queried, records returned, processed records, etc. The data is very critical and we need to log actions as they occur. The logs are currently kept as text files on disk and I think that is ok. Ideally I would like to record log events in XML so it's easier to query and because it is less costly than a DB, especially since our DB servers do a lot of heavy processing anyways. Since we are replacing essentially a VB6 application with a robust windows service (taking advantage of WF 4.0), it has been requested that a remote client also be created. It receives callbacks from the service after subscribing to it and being added to a collection of subscribers. Basic statistics and summaries are updated client side after receiving basic monitoring data of what is going on with the service. We would like to also provide a way to provide details when we need to examine what is going on further because this is a long running data processing service and issues need to be addressed immediately. What is the best way to implement some type of query from the client that is sent to the service and returned to the client? Would it be efficient to implement another method to expose on the service and then have that pass that off to some querying class/object to examine the XML files by whichever specification and then return it to the client? That's the main concern. I don't want the service to processing to bottleneck much while this occurs. It seems that WF already auto-magically threads well for the most part but I want to make sure this is the right way to go about it. Any suggestions/recommendations on how to architect and implement a small log querying framework for a remote service would be awesome.

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• .NET XmlSerializer fails with List<T>

  - by Redshirt

  I'm using a singleton class to save all my settings info. It's first utilized by calling Settings.ValidateSettings(@"C:\MyApp"). The problem I'm having is that 'List Contacts' is causing the xmlserializer to fail to write the settings file, or to load said settings. If I comment out the List<T> then I have no problems saving/loading the xml file. What am I doing wrong? // The actual settings to save public class MyAppSettings { public bool FirstLoad { get; set; } public string VehicleFolderName { get; set; } public string ContactFolderName { get; set; } public List<ContactInfo> Contacts { get { if (contacts == null) contacts = new List<ContactInfo>(); return contacts; } set { contacts = value; } } private List<ContactInfo> contacts; } // The class in which the settings are manipulated public static class Settings { public static string SettingPath; private static MyAppSettings instance; public static MyAppSettings Instance { get { if (instance == null) instance = new MyAppSettings(); return instance; } set { instance = value; } } public static void InitializeSettings(string path) { SettingPath = Path.GetFullPath(path + "\\MyApp.xml"); if (File.Exists(SettingPath)) { LoadSettings(); } else { Instance.FirstLoad = true; Instance.VehicleFolderName = "Cars"; Instance.ContactFolderName = "Contacts"; SaveSettingsFile(); } } // load the settings from the xml file private static void LoadSettings() { XmlSerializer ser = new XmlSerializer(typeof(MyAppSettings)); TextReader reader = new StreamReader(SettingPath); Instance = (MyAppSettings)ser.Deserialize(reader); reader.Close(); } // Save the settings to the xml file public static void SaveSettingsFile() { XmlSerializer ser = new XmlSerializer(typeof(MyAppSettings)); TextWriter writer = new StreamWriter(SettingPath); ser.Serialize(writer, Settings.Instance); writer.Close(); } public static bool ValidateSettings(string initialFolder) { try { Settings.InitializeSettings(initialFolder); } catch (Exception e) { return false; } // Do some validation logic here return true; } } // A utility class to contain each contact detail public class ContactInfo { public string ContactID; public string Name; public string PhoneNumber; public string Details; public bool Active; public int SortOrder; }

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• Hierarchy inheritance

  - by reito

  I had faced the problem. In my C++ hierarchy tree I have two branches for entities of difference nature, but same behavior - same interface. I created such hierarchy trees (first in image below). And now I want to work with Item or Base classes independetly of their nature (first or second). Then I create one abstract branch for this use. My mind build (second in image below). But it not working. Working scheme seems (third in image below). It's bad logic, I think... Do anybody have some ideas about such hierarchy inheritance? How make it more logical? More simple for understanding? Image Sorry for my english - russian internet didn't help:) Update: You ask me to be more explicit, and I will be. In my project (plugins for Adobe Framemaker) I need to work with dialogs and GUI controls. In some places I working with WinAPI controls, and some other places with FDK (internal Framemaker) controls, but I want to work throw same interface. I can't use one base class and inherite others from it, because all needed controls - is a hierarchy tree (not one class). So I have one hierarchy tree for WinAPI controls, one for FDK and one abstract tree to use anyone control. For example, there is an Edit control (WinEdit and FdkEdit realization), a Button control (WinButton and FdkButton realization) and base entity - Control (WinControl and FdkControl realization). For now I can link my classes in realization trees (Win and Fdk) with inheritence between each of them (WinControl is base class for WinButton and WinEdit; FdkControl is base class for FdkButton and FdkEdit). And I can link to abstract classes (Control is base class for WinControl and FdkControl; Edit is base class for WinEdit and FdkEdit; Button is base class for WinButton and FdkButton). But I can't link my abstract tree - compiler swears. In fact I have two hierarchy trees, that I want to inherite from another one. Update: I have done this quest! :) I used the virtual inheritence and get such scheme (http://img12.imageshack.us/img12/7782/99614779.png). Abstract tree has only absolute abstract methods. All inheritence in abstract tree are virtual. Link from realization tree to abstract are virtual. On image shown only one realization tree for simplicity. Thanks for help!

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• Solving a cyclical dependency in Ninject (Compact Framework)

  - by Alex

  I'm trying to use Ninject for dependency injection in my MVP application. However, I have a problem because I have two types that depend on each other, thus creating a cyclic dependency. At first, I understand that it was a problem, because I had both types require each other in their constructors. Therefore, I moved one of the dependencies to a property injection instead, but I'm still getting the error message. What am I doing wrong? This is the presenter: public class LoginPresenter : Presenter<ILoginView>, ILoginPresenter { public LoginPresenter( ILoginView view ) : base( view ) { } } and this is the view: public partial class LoginForm : Form, ILoginView { [Inject] public ILoginPresenter Presenter { private get; set; } public LoginForm() { InitializeComponent(); } } And here's the code that causes the exception: static class Program { /// <summary> /// The main entry point for the application. /// </summary> [MTAThread] static void Main() { // Show the login form Views.LoginForm loginForm = Kernel.Get<Views.Interfaces.ILoginView>() as Views.LoginForm; Application.Run( loginForm ); } } The exception happens on the line with the Kernel.Get<>() call. Here it is: Error activating ILoginPresenter using binding from ILoginPresenter to LoginPresenter A cyclical dependency was detected between the constructors of two services. Activation path: 4) Injection of dependency ILoginPresenter into property Presenter of type LoginForm 3) Injection of dependency ILoginView into parameter view of constructor of type LoginPresenter 2) Injection of dependency ILoginPresenter into property Presenter of type LoginForm 1) Request for ILoginView Suggestions: 1) Ensure that you have not declared a dependency for ILoginPresenter on any implementations of the service. 2) Consider combining the services into a single one to remove the cycle. 3) Use property injection instead of constructor injection, and implement IInitializable if you need initialization logic to be run after property values have been injected. Why doesn't Ninject understand that since one is constructor injection and the other is property injection, this can work just fine? I even read somewhere looking for the solution to this problem that Ninject supposedly gets this right as long as the cyclic dependency isn't both in the constructors. Apparently not, though. Any help resolving this would be much appreciated.

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• Need Help About Using XPathNavigator in C#?

  - by Nano HE

  Hello. My XML file as below. It mixed schema and normal elements. <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <!-- R1 --> <ax:root xmlns:ax="http://amecn/software/realtime/ax"> <xsd:schema xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema"> <xsd:element name="EquipmentConstants"> <xsd:complexType> <xsd:sequence> <xsd:element minOccurs="0" maxOccurs="unbounded" ref="EquipmentConstant" /> </xsd:sequence> </xsd:complexType> <xsd:unique name="id"> <xsd:selector xpath=".//EquipmentConstant" /> <xsd:field xpath="@id" /> </xsd:unique> </xsd:element> ...... ...... </xsd:schema> <EquipmentConstants xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance"> <EquipmentConstant id="0"> <Name>SerialNumber</Name> <Group>SYSTEM</Group> <Data> <Value min="0" max="10000000" scale_factor="0" unit="U_NO_UNITS" permission="NolimitedAndNoChangeable" type="xsd_string" enum="" flag="0">0</Value> </Data> <Description>Serial Number</Description> </EquipmentConstant> ..... ..... </EquipmentConstants> </ax:root> My C# code as below. I want to loop the elements from <EquipmentConstants xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance"> XPathDocument doc = new XPathDocument("test.xml"); XPathNavigator navigator = doc.CreateNavigator(); navigator.MoveToRoot(); // <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> //navigator.MoveToFirstChild(); // <!-- R1 --> // 1st, I tried to use MoveToChield(), But I failed to move there. navigator.MoveToChild("EquipmentConstants"); // Then, I also tried to use SelectSingleNode(). But I failed too. navigator.SelectSingleNode("ax/EquipmentConstants"); while (navigator.MoveToNext()) { // do something. } Could you please give me some suggestion. Thank you.

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• using AsyncTask class for parallel operationand displaying a progress bar

  - by Kumar

  I am displaying a progress bar using Async task class and simulatneously in parallel operation , i want to retrieve a string array from a function of another class that takes some time to return the string array. The problem is that when i place the function call in doing backgroung function of AsyncTask class , it gives an error in Doing Background and gives the message as cant change the UI in doing Background .. Therefore , i placed the function call in post Execute method of Asynctask class . It doesnot give an error but after the progress bar has reached 100% , then the screen goes black and takes some time to start the new activity. How can i display the progress bar and make the function call simultaneously.??plz help , m in distress here is the code package com.integrated.mpr; import android.app.Activity; import android.app.ProgressDialog; import android.content.Intent; import android.os.AsyncTask; import android.os.Bundle; import android.os.Handler; import android.view.View; import android.view.View.OnClickListener; import android.widget.Button; public class Progess extends Activity implements OnClickListener{ static String[] display = new String[Choose.n]; Button bprogress; @Override protected void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.progress); bprogress = (Button) findViewById(R.id.bProgress); bprogress.setOnClickListener(this); } @Override public void onClick(View v) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub switch(v.getId()){ case R.id.bProgress: String x ="abc"; new loadSomeStuff().execute(x); break; } } public class loadSomeStuff extends AsyncTask<String , Integer , String>{ ProgressDialog dialog; protected void onPreExecute(){ dialog = new ProgressDialog(Progess.this); dialog.setProgressStyle(ProgressDialog.STYLE_HORIZONTAL); dialog.setMax(100); dialog.show(); } @Override protected String doInBackground(String... arg0) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub for(int i = 0 ;i<40;i++){ publishProgress(5); try { Thread.sleep(1000); } catch (InterruptedException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e.printStackTrace(); } } dialog.dismiss(); String y ="abc"; return y; } protected void onProgressUpdate(Integer...progress){ dialog.incrementProgressBy(progress[0]); } protected void onPostExecute(String result){ display = new Logic().finaldata(); Intent openList = new Intent("com.integrated.mpr.SENSITIVELIST"); startActivity(openList); } } }

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• Commitment to Zend Framework - any arguments against?

  - by Pekka

  I am refurbishing a big CMS that I have been working on for quite a number of years now. The product itself is great, but some components, the Database and translation classes for example, need urgent replacing - partly self-made as far back as 2002, grown into a bit of a chaos over time, and might have trouble surviving a security audit. So, I've been looking closely at a number of frameworks (or, more exactly, component Libraries, as I do not intend to change the basic structure of the CMS) and ended up with liking Zend Framework the best. They offer a solid MVC model but don't force you into it, and they offer a lot of professional components that have obviously received a lot of attention (Did you know there are multiple plurals in Russian, and you can't translate them using a simple ($number == 0) or ($number > 1) switch? I didn't, but Zend_Translate can handle it. Just to illustrate the level of thorougness the library seems to have been built with.) I am now literally at the point of no return, starting to replace key components of the system by the Zend-made ones. I'm not really having second thoughts - and I am surely not looking to incite a flame war - but before going onward, I would like to step back for a moment and look whether there is anything speaking against tying a big system closely to Zend Framework. What I like about Zend: As far as I can see, very high quality code Extremely well documented, at least regarding introductions to how things work (Haven't had to use detailed API documentation yet) Backed by a company that has an interest in seeing the framework prosper Well received in the community, has a considerable user base Employs coding standards I like Comes with a full set of unit tests Feels to me like the right choice to make - or at least, one of the right choices - in terms of modern, professional PHP development. I have been thinking about encapsulating and abstracting ZF's functionality into own classes to be able to switch frameworks more easily, but have come to the conclusion that this would not be a good idea because: it would be an unnecessary level of abstraction it could cost performance the big advantage of using a framework - the existence of a developer base that is familiar with its components - would partly be cancelled out therefore, the commitment to ZF would be a deep one. Thus my question: Is there anything substantial speaking against committing to the Zend Framework? Do you have insider knowledge of plans of Zend Inc.'s to go evil in 2011, and make it a closed source library? Is Zend Inc. run by vampires? Are there conceptual flaws in the code base you start to notice when you've transitioned all your projects to it? Is the appearance of quality code an illusion? Does the code look good, but run terribly slow on anything below my quad-core workstation?

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• How to pass operators as parameters

  - by Rodion Ingles

  I have to load an array of doubles from a file, multiply each element by a value in a table (different values for different elements), do some work on it, invert the multiplication (that is, divide) and then save the data back to file. Currently I implement the multiplication and division process in two separate methods. Now there is some extra work behind the scenes but apart from the specific statements where the multiplication/division occurs, the rest of the code is identical. As you can imagine, with this approach you have to be very careful making any changes. The surrounding code is not trivial, so its either a case of manually editing each method or copying changes from one method to the other and remembering to change the * and / operators. After too many close calls I am fed up of this and would like to make a common function which implements the common logic and two wrapper functions which pass which operator to use as a parameter. My initial approach was to use function pointers: MultiplyData(double data) { TransformData(data, &(operator *)); } DivideData(double data) { TransformData(data, &(operator /)); } TransformData(double data, double (*func)(double op1, double op2)) { /* Do stuff here... */ } However, I can't pass the operators as pointers (is this because it is an operator on a native type?), so I tried to use function objects. Initially I thought that multiplies and divides functors in <functional> would be ideal: MultiplyData(double data) { std::multiplies<double> multFunct; TransformData(data, &multFunct); } DivideData(double data) { std::divides<double> divFunct; TransformData(data, &divFunct); } TransformData(double data, std::binary_function<double, double, double> *funct) { /* Do stuff here... */ } As you can see I was trying to use a base class pointer to pass the functor polymorphically. The problem is that std::binary_function does not declare an operator() member for the child classes to implement. Is there something I am missing, or is the solution to implement my own functor heirarchy (which really seems more trouble than it is worth)?

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• How to calculate the time difference between two time fields , with respect to the date changes

  - by Tiru

  I want to calculate the time difference.I have three EditTexts , I want to input the times in the first two edittexts in HH:MM format. And then calculate the time difference and the result will show on third edittext field in same format. If the date changes, the time difference will calculate according that, i.e If first time = 23:00 and second time = 01:00 then, the time difference = 02:00 hours public class TimeCalculate extends Activity { private String mBlock; private String mBlockoff; private String mBlockon ; // String mHours, mMinutes; Date date1, date2; /** Called when the activity is first created. */ @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.main); EditText blockoff = (EditText) findViewById(R.id.blockoff); mBlockoff = blockoff.getText().toString(); EditText blockon = (EditText) findViewById(R.id.blockon); mBlockon = blockon.getText().toString(); SimpleDateFormat simpleDateFormat = new SimpleDateFormat("hh:mm"); try { date1 = simpleDateFormat.parse(mBlockoff); } catch (ParseException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e.printStackTrace(); } try { date2 = simpleDateFormat.parse(mBlockon); } catch (ParseException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e.printStackTrace(); } mBlock = getDifference(date1, date2); EditText block = (EditText) findViewById(R.id.block); block.setText(mBlock.toString()); } public static String getDifference(Date startTime, Date endTime) { if (startTime == null) return "corrupted"; Calendar startDateTime = Calendar.getInstance(); startDateTime.setTime(startTime); Calendar endDateTime = Calendar.getInstance(); endDateTime.setTime(endTime); long milliseconds1 = startDateTime.getTimeInMillis(); long milliseconds2 = endDateTime.getTimeInMillis(); long diff = milliseconds2 - milliseconds1; /*int hours = (int)diff / (60 * 60 * 1000); int minutes = (int) (diff / (60 * 1000)); minutes = minutes - 60 * hours; long seconds = diff / (1000); */ //timeDiff = DateUtils.formatElapsedTime(seconds); SimpleDateFormat simpleDateFormat = new SimpleDateFormat("HH:MM"); Date date = new Date(diff); return simpleDateFormat.format(date); } } I executed this code ,but gives error as Source not found.I think error at getDifference method.Please give any other logic

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• SVG via dynamic XML+XSL

  - by Daniel

  This is a bit of a vague notion which I have been running over in my head, and which I am very curious if there is an elegant method of solving. Perhaps it should be taken as a thought experiment. Imagine you have an XML schema with a corresponding XSL transform, which renders the XML as SVG in the browser. The XSL generates SVG with appropriate Javascript handlers that, ultimately, implement editing-like functionality such that properties of the objects or their locations on the SVG canvas can be edited by the user. For instance, an element can be dragged from one location to another. Now, this isn't particularly difficult - the drag/drop example is simply a matter of changing the (x,y) coordinates of the SVG object, or a resize operation would be a simple matter of changing its width or height. But is there an elegant way to have Javascript work on the DOM of the source XML document instead of the rendered SVG? Why, you ask? Well, imagine you have very complex XSL transforms, where the modification of one property results in complex changes to the SVG. You want to maintain simplicity in your Javascript code, but also a simple way to persist the modified XML back to the server. Some possibilities of how this may function: After modification of the source DOM, simply re-run the XSL transform and replace the original. Downside: brute force, potentially expensive operation. Create id/class naming conventions in the source and target XML/SVG so elements can be related back to each other, and do an XSL transform on only a subset of the new DOM. In other words, modify temporary DOM, apply XSL to it, remove changed elements from SVG, and insert the new one. Downside: May not be possible to apply XSL to temporary in-browser DOMs(?). Also, perhaps a bit convoluted or ugly to maintain. I think that it may be possible to come up with a framework that handles the second scenario, but the challenge would be making it lightweight and not heavily tied to the actual XML schema. Any ideas or other possibilities? Or is there maybe an existing method of doing this which I'm not aware of? UPDATE: To clarify, as I mentioned in a comment below, this aids in separating the draw code from the edit code. For a more concrete example of how this is useful, imagine an element which determines how it is drawn dependent on the value of a property of an adjacent element. It's better to condense that logic directly in the draw code instead of also duplicating it in the edit code.

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• Retain a list of objects and pass it to the create/edit view when validation fails in ASP.NET MVC 2

  - by brainnovative

  I am binding a Foreign key property in my model. I am passing a list of possible values for that property in my model. The model looks something like this: public class UserModel { public bool Email { get; set; } public bool Name { get; set; } public RoleModel Role { get; set; } public IList<RoleModel> Roles { get; set; } } public class RoleModel { public string RoleName { get; set; } } This is what I have in the controller: public ActionResult Create() { IList<RoleModel> roles = RoleModel.FromArray(_userService.GetAllRoles()); UserModel model = new UserModel() { Roles = roles }; return View(model); } In the view I have: <div class="editor-label"> <%= Html.LabelFor(model => model.Role) %> </div> <div class="editor-field"> <%= Html.DropDownListFor(model => model.Role, new SelectList(Model.Roles, "RoleName", "RoleName", Model.Role))%> <%= Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.Role)%> </div> What do I need to do to get the list of roles back to my controller to pass it again to the view when validation fails. This is what I need: [HttpPost] public ActionResult Create(UserModel model) { if (ModelState.IsValid) { // insert logic here } //the validation fails so I pass the model again to the view for user to update data but model.Roles is null :( return View(model); } As written in the comments above I need to pass the model with the list of roles again to my view but model.Roles is null. Currently I ask the service again for the roles (model.Roles = RoleModel.FromArray(_userService.GetAllRoles());) but I don't want to add an extra overhead of getting the list from DB when I have already done that.. Anyone knows how to do it?

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• Avoiding explicit recursion in Haskell

  - by Travis Brown

  The following simple function applies a given monadic function iteratively until it hits a Nothing, at which point it returns the last non-Nothing value. It does what I need, and I understand how it works. lastJustM :: (Monad m) => (a -> m (Maybe a)) -> a -> m a lastJustM g x = g x >>= maybe (return x) (lastJustM g) As part of my self-education in Haskell I'm trying to avoid explicit recursion (or at least understand how to) whenever I can. It seems like there should be a simple non-explicitly recursive solution in this case, but I'm having trouble figuring it out. I don't want something like a monadic version of takeWhile, since it could be expensive to collect all the pre-Nothing values, and I don't care about them anyway. I checked Hoogle for the signature and nothing shows up. The m (Maybe a) bit makes me think a monad transformer might be useful here, but I don't really have the intuitions I'd need to come up with the details (yet). It's probably either embarrassingly easy to do this or embarrassingly easy to see why it can't or shouldn't be done, but this wouldn't be the first time I've used self-embarrassment as a pedagogical strategy. Background: Here's a simplified working example for context: suppose we're interested in random walks in the unit square, but we only care about points of exit. We have the following step function: randomStep :: (Floating a, Ord a, Random a) => a -> (a, a) -> State StdGen (Maybe (a, a)) randomStep s (x, y) = do (a, gen') <- randomR (0, 2 * pi) <$> get put gen' let (x', y') = (x + s * cos a, y + s * sin a) if x' < 0 || x' > 1 || y' < 0 || y' > 1 then return Nothing else return $ Just (x', y') Something like evalState (lastJustM (randomStep 0.01) (0.5, 0.5)) <$> newStdGen will give us a new data point.

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• How to override loading a TImage from the object inspector (at run-time)?

  - by Mawg

  Further to my previous question, which did not get a useful answer despite a bounty, I will try rephrasing the question. Basically, when the user clicks the ellipsis in the object inspector, Delphi opens a file/open dialog. I want to replace this handling with my own, so that I can save the image's path. I would have expected that all I need to do is to derive a class from TImage and override the Assign() function, as in the following code. However, when I do the assign function is never called. So, it looks like I need to override something else, but what? unit my_Image; interface uses Classes, ExtCtrls, Jpeg, Graphics; type Tmy_Image = class(Timage) private FPicture : TPicture; protected procedure OnChange(Sender: TObject); public { Public declarations } Constructor Create(AOwner: TComponent); override; procedure SetPicture(picture : TPicture); procedure Assign(Source: TPersistent); override; published { Published declarations - available in the Object Inspector at design-time } property Picture : TPicture read FPicture write SetPicture; end; // of class Tmy_Image() procedure Register; implementation uses Controls, Dialogs; procedure Register; begin RegisterComponents('Standard', [Tmy_Image]); end; Constructor Tmy_Image.Create(AOwner: TComponent); begin inherited; // Call the parent Create method Hint := 'Add an image from a file|Add an image from a file'; // Tooltip | status bar text AutoSize := True; // Control resizes when contents change (new image is loaded) Height := 104; Width := 104; FPicture := TPicture.Create(); self.Picture.Bitmap.LoadFromResourceName(hInstance, 'picture_poperty_bmp'); end; procedure Tmy_Image.OnChange(Sender: TObject); begin Constraints.MaxHeight := Picture.Height; Constraints.MaxWidth := Picture.Width; Self.Height := Picture.Height; Self.Width := Picture.Width; end; procedure Tmy_Image.SetPicture(picture : TPicture); begin MessageDlg('Tmy_Image.SetPicture', mtWarning, [mbOK], 0); // never called end; procedure Tmy_Image.Assign(Source: TPersistent); begin MessageDlg('Tmy_Image.Assign', mtWarning, [mbOK], 0); // never called end; end.

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• How to design service that can provide interface as JAX-WS web service, or via JMS, or as local meth

  - by kevinegham

  Using a typical JEE framework, how do I develop and deploy a service that can be called as a web service (with a WSDL interface), be invoked via JMS messages, or called directly from another service in the same container? Here's some more context: Currently I am responsible for a service (let's call it Service X) with the following properties: Interface definition is a human readable document kept up-to-date manually. Accepts HTTP form-encoded requests to a single URL. Sends plain old XML responses (no schema). Uses Apache to accept requests + a proprietary application server (not servlet or EJB based) containing all logic which runs in a seperate tier. Makes heavy use of a relational database. Called both by internal applications written in a variety of languages and also by a small number of third-parties. I want to (or at least, have been told to!): Switch to a well-known (pref. open source) JEE stack such as JBoss, Glassfish, etc. Split Service X into Service A and Service B so that we can take Service B down for maintenance without affecting Service A. Note that Service B will depend on (i.e. need to make requests to) Service A. Make both services easier for third parties to integrate with by providing at least a WS-I style interface (WSDL + SOAP + XML + HTTP) and probably a JMS interface too. In future we might consider a more lightweight API too (REST + JSON? Google Protocol Buffers?) but that's a nice to have. Additional consideration are: On a smaller deployment, Service A and Service B will likely to running on the same machine and it would seem rather silly for them to use HTTP or a message bus to communicate; better if they could run in the same container and make method calls to each other. Backwards compatibility with the existing ad-hoc Service X interface is not required, and we're not planning on re-using too much of the existing code for the new services. I'm happy with either contract-first (WSDL I guess) or (annotated) code-first development. Apologies if my terminology is a bit hazy - I'm pretty experienced with Java and web programming in general, but am finding it quite hard to get up to speed with all this enterprise / SOA stuff - it seems I have a lot to learn! I'm also not very used to using a framework rather than simply writing code that calls some packages to do things. I've got as far as downloading Glassfish, knocking up a simple WSDL file and using wsimport + a little dummy code to turn that into a WAR file which I've deployed.

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• ACL implementation

  - by Kirzilla

  First question Please, could you explain me how simpliest ACL could be implemented in MVC. Here is the first approach of using Acl in Controller... <?php class MyController extends Controller { public function myMethod() { //It is just abstract code $acl = new Acl(); $acl->setController('MyController'); $acl->setMethod('myMethod'); $acl->getRole(); if (!$acl->allowed()) die("You're not allowed to do it!"); ... } } ?> It is very bad approach, and it's minus is that we have to add Acl piece of code into each controller's method, but we don't need any additional dependencies! Next approach is to make all controller's methods private and add ACL code into controller's __call method. <?php class MyController extends Controller { private function myMethod() { ... } public function __call($name, $params) { //It is just abstract code $acl = new Acl(); $acl->setController(__CLASS__); $acl->setMethod($name); $acl->getRole(); if (!$acl->allowed()) die("You're not allowed to do it!"); ... } } ?> It is better than previous code, but main minuses are... All controller's methods should be private We have to add ACL code into each controller's __call method. The next approach is to put Acl code into parent Controller, but we still need to keep all child controller's methods private. What is the solution? And what is the best practice? Where should I call Acl functions to decide allow or disallow method to be executed. Second question Second question is about getting role using Acl. Let's imagine that we have guests, users and user's friends. User have restricted access to viewing his profile that only friends can view it. All guests can't view this user's profile. So, here is the logic.. we have to ensure that method being called is profile we have to detect owner of this profile we have to detect is viewer is owner of this profile or no we have to read restriction rules about this profile we have to decide execute or not execute profile method The main question is about detecting owner of profile. We can detect who is owner of profile only executing model's method $model-getOwner(), but Acl do not have access to model. How can we implement this? I hope that my thoughts are clear. Sorry for my English. Thank you.

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• How do I 'globally' catch exceptions thrown in object instances.

  - by SleepyBobos

  I am currently writing a winforms application (C#). I am making use of the Enterprise Library Exception Handling Block, following a fairly standard approach from what I can see. IE : In the Main method of Program.cs I have wired up event handler to Application.ThreadException event etc. This approach works well and handles the applications exceptional circumstances. In one of my business objects I throw various exceptions in the Set accessor of one of the objects properties set { if (value > MaximumTrim) throw new CustomExceptions.InvalidTrimValue("The value of the minimum trim..."); if (!availableSubMasterWidthSatisfiesAllPatterns(value)) throw new CustomExceptions.InvalidTrimValue("Another message..."); _minimumTrim = value; } My logic for this approach (without turning this into a 'when to throw exceptions' discussion) is simply that the business objects are responsible for checking business rule constraints and throwing an exception that can bubble up and be caught as required. It should be noted that in the UI of my application I do explictly check the values that the public property is being set to (and take action there displaying friendly dialog etc) but with throwing the exception I am also covering the situation where my business object may not be used by a UI eg : the Property is being set by another business object for example. Anyway I think you all get the idea. My issue is that these exceptions are not being caught by the handler wired up to Application.ThreadException and I don't understand why. From other reading I have done the Application.ThreadException event and it handler "... catches any exception that occurs on the main GUI thread". Are the exceptions being raised in my business object not in this thread? I have not created any new threads. I can get the approach to work if I update the code as follows, explicity calling the event handler that is wired to Application.ThreadException. This is the approach outlined in Enterprise Library samples. However this approach requires me to wrap any exceptions thrown in a try catch, something I was trying to avoid by using a 'global' handler to start with. try { if (value > MaximumTrim) throw new CustomExceptions.InvalidTrimValue("The value of the minimum..."); if (!availableSubMasterWidthSatisfiesAllPatterns(value)) throw new CustomExceptions.InvalidTrimValue("Another message"); _minimumTrim = value; } catch (Exception ex) { Program.ThreadExceptionHandler.ProcessUnhandledException(ex); } I have also investigated using wiring a handler up to AppDomain.UnhandledException event but this does not catch the exceptions either. I would be good if someone could explain to me why my exceptions are not being caught by my global exception handler in the first code sample. Is there another approach I am missing or am I stuck with wrapping code in try catch, shown above, as required?

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• MySQL Split Time Ranges into Smaller Chunks

  - by Neren

  Hello all, I've recently been tasked with finishing a PHP/MySQL web app when the developer quit last week. I'm no MySQL expert, so I apologize if this is an intensely simple question. I've searched SO for the better part of two days trying to find a relatively easy solution to my problem, which is as follows. Problem in a Nutshell: I have a MySQL table full of start and end datetime (GMT -5) & UNIX Timestamp values covering durations of irregular length and need to break/split/divide them into more-regular time chunks (5 minutes). I'm not after a count of row entries per time chunk/bucket/period, if that makes any sense. Data Example: started, ended, started_UNIX, ended_UNIX 2010-10-25 15:12:33, 2010-10-25 15:47:09, 1288033953, 1288036029 What I'm hoping to get: 2010-10-25 15:12:33, 2010-10-25 15:15:00, 1288033953, 1288037700 2010-10-25 15:15:00, 2010-10-25 15:20:00, 1288037700, 1288038000 2010-10-25 15:20:00, 2010-10-25 15:25:00, 1288038000, 1288038300 2010-10-25 15:25:00, 2010-10-25 15:30:00, 1288038300, 1288038600 2010-10-25 15:30:00, 2010-10-25 15:35:00, 1288038600, 1288038900 2010-10-25 15:35:00, 2010-10-25 15:40:00, 1288038900, 1288039200 2010-10-25 15:40:00, 2010-10-25 15:45:00, 1288039200, 1288039500 2010-10-25 15:45:00, 2010-10-25 15:47:09, 1288039500, 1288039629 If you're interested, here's the quick & dirty on the app and why I need the data: App overview: The application receives very simple POST requests generated by a basic sensor device when its input pins go to ground, which submits an INSERT query to the database where MySQL records a timestamp (as started). When the input pins return from a grounded state, the device submits a different POST request, which causes the PHP app to submit an UPDATE query, where a modification time timestamp is inserted (as ended). My employer recently changed the periodic reporting unit of measure from Seconds "On" Per Day to Seconds "On" Per 5 Minute Interval. I had formulated what I thought would be a workable solution, but when I looked at it on paper, it looked like Rube Goldberg's nightmare constructed in MySQL, so that was out. Any suggestions as to how to break these spans into 5 minute blocks? Keeping it all in MySQL would be my preference, though I'll take any suggestions. Thank you for any suggestions you may have. Again, I apologize if this is a no-brainer. If I ask any additional questions of the SO collective consciousness in the future, I'll try to word them a bit better. Any help will be happily welcomed. Thanks, Neren

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• How to implement a caching model without violating MVC pattern?

  - by RPM1984

  Hi Guys, I have an ASP.NET MVC 3 (Razor) Web Application, with a particular page which is highly database intensive, and user experience is of the upmost priority. Thus, i am introducing caching on this particular page. I'm trying to figure out a way to implement this caching pattern whilst keeping my controller thin, like it currently is without caching: public PartialViewResult GetLocationStuff(SearchPreferences searchPreferences) { var results = _locationService.FindStuffByCriteria(searchPreferences); return PartialView("SearchResults", results); } As you can see, the controller is very thin, as it should be. It doesn't care about how/where it is getting it's info from - that is the job of the service. A couple of notes on the flow of control: Controllers get DI'ed a particular Service, depending on it's area. In this example, this controller get's a LocationService Services call through to an IQueryable<T> Repository and materialize results into T or ICollection<T>. How i want to implement caching: I can't use Output Caching - for a few reasons. First of all, this action method is invoked from the client-side (jQuery/AJAX), via [HttpPost], which according to HTTP standards should not be cached as a request. Secondly, i don't want to cache purely based on the HTTP request arguments - the cache logic is a lot more complicated than that - there is actually two-level caching going on. As i hint to above, i need to use regular data-caching, e.g Cache["somekey"] = someObj;. I don't want to implement a generic caching mechanism where all calls via the service go through the cache first - i only want caching on this particular action method. First thought's would tell me to create another service (which inherits LocationService), and provide the caching workflow there (check cache first, if not there call db, add to cache, return result). That has two problems: The services are basic Class Libraries - no references to anything extra. I would need to add a reference to System.Web here. I would have to access the HTTP Context outside of the web application, which is considered bad practice, not only for testability, but in general - right? I also thought about using the Models folder in the Web Application (which i currently use only for ViewModels), but having a cache service in a models folder just doesn't sound right. So - any ideas? Is there a MVC-specific thing (like Action Filter's, for example) i can use here? General advice/tips would be greatly appreciated.

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• Best practices for displaying large number of images as thumbnails in c#

  - by andySF

  I got to a point where it's very difficult to get answers by debugging and tracing object, so i need some help. What I'm trying to do: A history form for my screen capture pet project. The history must list all images as thumbnails (ex: picasa). What I've done: I created a HistoryItem:UserControl. This history item has a few buttons, a check box, a label and a picture box. The buttons are for delete/edit/copy image. The check box is used for selecting one or more images and the label is for some info text. The picture box is getting the image from a public property that is a path and a method creates a proportional thumbnail to display it when the control has been loaded. This user control has two public events. One for deleting the image and one for bubbling the events for mouse enter and mouse leave trough all controls. For this I use EventBroadcastProvider. The bubbling is useful because wherever I move the mouse over the control, the buttons appear. The dispose method has been extended and I manually remove the events. All images are loaded by looping a xml file that contains the path of all images. For each image in this XML I create a new HitoryItem that is added (after a little coding to sort and limit the amount of images loaded) to a flow layout panel. The problem: When I lunch the history form, and the flow layout panel is populated with my HistoryItem custom control, my memory usage increases drastically.From 14Mb to around 100MB with 100 images loaded. By closing the history form and disposing whatever I could dispose and even trying to call GC.Collect() the memory increase remain. I search for any object that could not be disposed properly like an image or event but wherever I used them they are disposed. The problem seams to be from multiple sources. One is that the events for bubbling are not disposing properly, and the other is from the picture box itself. All of this i could see by commenting all the code to a limited version when only the custom control without any image processing and even events is loaded. Without the events the memory consumption is reduced by axiomatically 20%. So my real question is if this logic, flow layout panels and custom controls with picture boxes, is the best solution for displaying large amounts of images as thumbnails. Thank you!

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