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  • Still failing a function, not sure why...ideas on test cases to run?

    - by igor
    I've been trying to get this Sudoku game working, and I am still failing some of the individual functions. All together the game works, but when I run it through an "autograder", some test cases fail.. Currently I am stuck on the following function, placeValue, failing. I do have the output that I get vs. what the correct one should be, but am confused..what is something going on? EDIT: I do not know what input/calls they make to the function. What happens is that "invalid row" is outputted after every placeValue call, and I can't trace why.. Here is the output (mine + correct one) if it's at all helpful: http://pastebin.com/Wd3P3nDA Here is placeValue, and following is getCoords that placeValue calls.. void placeValue(Square board[BOARD_SIZE][BOARD_SIZE]) { int x,y,value; if(getCoords(x,y)) { cin>>value; if(board[x][y].permanent) { cout<< endl << "That location cannot be changed"; } else if(!(value>=1 && value<=9)) { cout << "Invalid number"<< endl; clearInput(); } else if(validMove(board, x, y, value)) { board[x][y].number=value; } } } bool getCoords(int & x, int & y) { char row; y=0; cin>>row>>y; x = static_cast<int>(toupper(row)); if (isalpha(row) && (x >= 'A' && x <= 'I') && y >= 1 && y <= 9) { x = x - 'A'; // converts x from a letter to corresponding index in matrix y = y - 1; // converts y to corresponding index in matrix return (true); } else if (!(x >= 'A' && x <= 'I')) { cout<<"Invalid row"<<endl; clearInput(); return false; } else { cout<<"Invalid column"<<endl; clearInput(); return false; } }

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  • Use where condition with unjoined table

    - by Dragos D
    I have the following problem: I am trying to retreive a sum value based on one condition. Problem is that I can't join the conditional value since my tables aren't joined. Here is my syntax: SELECT SUM(value) FROM value v join day d on v.day_id = d.day_id join budget b on d.budget_id = b.budget_id join unit u on v.unit_id = u.unit_id where #output.class = (SELECT distinct s.class FROM sale s where s.id = #output.sale_id) AND u.unit_name in ('electronics') With this sybtax I get no error but neither values. Can you please tell me where I do wrong?

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  • Scala Map conversion

    - by Benjamin Metz
    I'm a Scala newbie I'm afraid: I'm trying to convert a Map to a new Map based on some simple logic: val postVals = Map("test" - "testing1", "test2" - "testing2", "test3" - "testing3") I want to test for value "testing1" and change the value (while creating a new Map) def modMap(postVals: Map[String, String]): Map[String, String] = { postVals foreach {case(k, v) => if(v=="testing1") postVals.update(k, "new value")} }

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  • Send html array as post variable using Request.JSON

    - by ian
    I have an html: First name: <input type='text' name='first_name' value='' /><br/> Last name: <input type='text' name='last_name' value='' /><br/> <input type='checkbox' name='category[]' value='Math' /> Math<br/> <input type='checkbox' name='category[]' value='Science' /> Science<br/> <input type='checkbox' name='category[]' value='History' /> History<br/> etc..... I want to send(using post method) the selected categories(category[]) via mootools ajax so that if I dump the $_POST variable in the server I will get something like: array(1) { [category]=> array(2) { [0]=> string(4) "Math" [1]=> string(7) "History" } } What should be the javascript(mootools) code for it? Below is my partial code. new Request.JSON({url: '/ajax_url', onSuccess: function(){ alert('success'); } }).post(???); Note that I don't want to send first_name and last_name fields. I only want to send the category field which is an html array.

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  • Create a multicolor selectbox on Symfony2

    - by Ninsuo
    I try to create the following field : <select name="test"> <option value="1">a</option> <option value="2">b</option> <option value="3" style="font-weight: bold; color: red;">c</option> <option value="4">d</option> <option value="5">e</option> </select> This creates a 2-color selectbox : But in Symfony2, I do not know how to apply a class to a single option. If in my view I do : {{ form_widget(myForm.test, { 'attr': { 'class': 'red', } }) }} Or if in my form I do : $builder->add('test', 'choice', array( 'required' => true, 'choices' => array('a', 'b', 'c', 'd', 'e'), 'attr' => array('class' => 'red'), )); The attribute is stored into the <select> tag and apply to the whole selectable values. How do I apply a class to an <option> in Symfony2 ?

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  • Why is my jQuery event not being triggered when the button is clicked?

    - by Ankur
    I am trying to call the .ajax() method when a button with id=go is clicked. This button is displayed when another jQuery event is triggered, namely that a button with a class called predicate is clicked. The button with id=go is displayed without any problems but on clicking it, there is no call to the alert() or getResults() method which are supposed to occur. Howver if I hard code the button with id=go into the page and don't have it generated by jQuery then the thing works fine. Why does the generated code cause a problem. $(document).ready( function() { $(".predicate").click( function() { makeQuery(this.id); //alert(this.id); }); $(".object").click( function() { //alert(this.id); }); var variables = 0; var queryString = ""; var noOfResults; var formValues=""; var goBegin = ""; var goEnd = "<br/><input name='go' id='go' type='button' value='go'/>"; function makeQuery(value) { queryString = queryString + "val" + variables + "=" + value + "&"; formValues=formValues+"<input type='hidden' name='val"+variables+"' value='"+value+"' />"; variables = variables + 1; $("#resultCount").html(goBegin+formValues+queryString+goEnd); } function getResults(){ $.ajax( { type : "GET", url : "ObjectCount", data : queryString + "count=" + variables, success : function(results) { noOfResults = results; $("#resultCount").html(results - 1 + " results"); } }); } $("#go").click( function() { alert("We have been alerted"); getResults(); }); });

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  • asp.net session error

    - by umeshchaurasia
    HI all, I am working with asp.net with c#.net Here i am using session state to pass the value from one page to another. i have two pages, in first page i am calculating the value and passing the value to second page using session and in second page i am displaying the message through the value. I am using these two pages for facebook application. I uploaded my two pages then i am checking with facebook by opening through internet explorer and its giving below error. Object reference not set to an instance of an object. Description: An unhandled exception occurred during the execution of the current web request. Please review the stack trace for more information about the error and where it originated in the code. Exception Details: System.NullReferenceException: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. But when i open my application using firefox the pages are working fine. please help me...

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  • How do I run some VBA code when a cell is changed?

    - by Gravitas
    I want to add some VBA code when the value in a cell changes. I've already tried Worksheet_Change(), as described at http://www.contextures.com/xlfaqmac.html#WSChange However, this won't work: it only fires when the user changes the value. I want to fire it whenever the value changes, i.e. whenever the spreadsheet recalculates. Any ideas?

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  • addAttributeToFilter and OR condition in Magento's Collection

    - by ÉricP
    Hi, I'd like to select products depending on several criteria from different attribute. I know how to user $collection->addAttributeToFilter('someattribute', array('like' => '%')); But I'd like to use several attribute for OR condition. Like: $collection->addAttributeToFilter('someattribute', array('like' => 'value'));` OR $collection->addAttributeToFilter('otherattribute', array('like' => 'value'));` To get products which either 'someattribute' OR 'otherattribute' set to 'value' Is it possible?

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  • Microsoft Excel Programming

    - by hkf
    I have data in the form of four columns. The first three columns represent time, value1, value 2. The fourth column is binary, all 0's or 1's. Is there a way to tell excel to delete time, value1 and value 2, when the corresponding binary value in column four is 0? I know this is a lot easier in C++ or matlab, but for reasons beyond my control, I must do it in excel.

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  • Iterating through same form elements

    - by Hulk
    If a form has same tag repeatedly. How to get its value in javascript. <script> function validate() { //get all values of elmone } </script> <form> <input type="text" size="15" value="Hello World" name="elmOne"> <input type="text" size="15" value="next Hello World" name="elmOne"> <input type="button" onclick="javascript:validate()" value="validate"> </form> Thanks..

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  • how to store passwords in database?

    - by rgksugan
    I use jsp and servlets in my web application. i need to store passwords in the database. I found that hashing will be the best way to do that. I used this code to do it. java.security.MessageDigest d = null; d = java.security.MessageDigest.getInstance("SHA-1"); d.reset(); d.update(pass.getBytes("UTF-8")); byte b[] = d.digest(); String tmp = (new BASE64Encoder()).encode(b); When i tried to print the value of tmp, i get some other value.i guess its the hash value of the password. But when i persist this data to the database the original password gets saved there other than the value in tmp.. What is the problem???

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  • Using Report (Reporting Services) parameter values in ASP.NET page

    - by noup
    I have a report (Reporting Services) integrated into an ASP.NET that shows dropdownlists to select report parameter values. The dropdownlists are populated using direct database selects, though I see the report RDL files do contain the paramter values and datasets as defined in the report designer. Is it possible to obtain the report parameters "available values" in ASP.NET to populate the dropdownlists? This would avoid some code duplication. Update If the parameter doesn't use a query for available values, the following works: foreach (ValidValue value in this.ReportViewerControl.ServerReport.GetParameters()["myParameter"].ValidValues) { this.DropDownListControl.Items.Add(new ListItem(value.Label, value.Value)); } Still haven't found a way to access report datasets though...

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  • Set Validation Tooltip in CodeBehind instead of XAML

    - by KrisTrip
    I would like to know how to translate the following code to codebehind instead of XAML: <Style.Triggers> <Trigger Property="Validation.HasError" Value="true"> <Setter Property="ToolTip" Value="{Binding RelativeSource={RelativeSource Self}, Path=(Validation.Errors)[0].ErrorContent}"/> </Trigger> </Style.Triggers> The part I can't figure out is the Path portion. I have the following but it doesn't work: new Trigger { Property = Validation.HasErrorProperty, Value = true, Setters = { new Setter { Property = Control.ToolTipProperty, // This part doesn't seem to work Value = new Binding("(Validation.Errors)[0].ErrorContent"){RelativeSource = RelativeSource.Self} } } } Help?

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  • Nullable<T> as a parameter

    - by ferch
    I alredy have this: public static object GetDBValue(object ObjectEvaluated) { if (ObjectEvaluated == null) return DBNull.Value; else return ObjectEvaluated; } used like: List<SqlParameter> Params = new List<SqlParameter>(); Params.Add(new SqlParameter("@EntityType", GetDBValue(EntityType))); Now i wanted to keep the same interface but extend that to use it with nullable public static object GetDBValue(int? ObjectEvaluated) { if (ObjectEvaluated.HasValue) return ObjectEvaluated.Value; else return DBNull.Value; } public static object GetDBValue(DateTime? ObjectEvaluated) {...} but i want only 1 function GetDBValue for nullables. How do I do that and keep the call as is is? Is that possible at all? I can make it work like: public static object GetDBValue<T>(Nullable<T> ObjectEvaluated) where T : struct { if (ObjectEvaluated.HasValue) return ObjectEvaluated.Value; else return DBNull.Value; } But the call changes to: Params.Add(new SqlParameter("@EntityID ", GetDBValue<int>(EntityID)));

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  • MySQL join problem

    - by David
    Table1 has u_name, Table2 has u_name, u_type and u_admin Table1.u_name is unique. But neither of the 3 fields in Table2 is unique. For any value of Table1.u_name, there are 0 to many entries in Table2 that Table2.u_name equals to that value. For any value of Table1.u_name, there are 0 to 1 entries in Table2 that Table2.u_name equals to that value AND Table2.u_type='S' What I want: Use Table1.u_name to get Table1.*, Table2.u_admin where Table1.u_name=Tabl2.u_name and Table2.u_type='S'. If there is no such entry in Table2 we still need to get Table1.* Please help give me some hints. Thank you so much!

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  • Xpath Query to match immediate sibling nodes in a sequence.

    - by Pritam Damania
    Hi, I'm new to XPATH and I'd like to know if there is a nice way to do this using XPATH queries. I want to match consecutive sibling nodes in a XML tree to certain predefined rules for example if there are three sibling nodes occurring immediately one after the other and they have the attributes value="A", value="B" and value="C", I want the XPATH query to match the first node/last node in such a sequence and I want to extract all such consecutive sequence of nodes from the XML tree so that I can process them later on. Thanks!

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  • Calculating a consecutive streak in data

    - by Jura25
    I’m trying to calculate the maximum winning and losing streak in a dataset (i.e. the highest number of consecutive positive or negative values). I’ve found a somewhat related question here on StackOverflow and even though that gave me some good suggestions, the angle of that question is different, and I’m not (yet) experienced enough to translate and apply that information to this problem. So I was hoping you could help me out, even an suggestion would be great. My data set look like this: > subRes Instrument TradeResult.Currency. 1 JPM -3 2 JPM 264 3 JPM 284 4 JPM 69 5 JPM 283 6 JPM -219 7 JPM -91 8 JPM 165 9 JPM -35 10 JPM -294 11 KFT -8 12 KFT -48 13 KFT 125 14 KFT -150 15 KFT -206 16 KFT 107 17 KFT 107 18 KFT 56 19 KFT -26 20 KFT 189 > split(subRes[,2],subRes[,1]) $JPM [1] -3 264 284 69 283 -219 -91 165 -35 -294 $KFT [1] -8 -48 125 -150 -206 107 107 56 -26 189 In this case, the maximum (winning) streak for JPM is four (namely the 264, 284, 69 and 283 consecutive positive results) and for KFT this value is 3 (107, 107, 56). My goal is to create a function which gives the maximum winning streaks per instrument (i.e. JPM: 4, KFT: 3). To achieve that: R needs to compare the current result with the previous result, and if it is higher then there is a streak of at least 2 consecutive positive results. Then R needs to look at the next value, and if this is also higher: add 1 to the already found value of 2. If this value isn’t higher, R needs to move on to the next value, while remembering 2 as the intermediate maximum. I’ve tried cumsum and cummax in accordance with conditional summing (like cumsum(c(TRUE, diff(subRes[,2]) > 0))), which didn’t work out. Also rle in accordance with lapply (like lapply(rle(subRes$TradeResult.Currency.), function(x) diff(x) > 0)) didn’t work. How can I make this work?

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  • how can we pass the variable into the function via url?

    - by subodh
    I have designed a asp.net page which create graphs. I have written a class file (which contain a function to render the graph,a function for entering data named insertdata(string[] s,double[] d)) in App_code folder. I pass the value into the insertdata during page load_event. I saw a feature of googlechart.when you pass the value in url address bar it will create a graph according to that passed value. how can i pass the value into the insertdata() function through url address? can anybody help me?

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  • ASp.NET Dropdown and Dictionary

    - by Lijo
    Hi Team, I am using a dropdown list in ASP.NET with C#. I am trying to bind a dictionary to the dropdownlist. How can we specify the "Text" (key of dictionary as Text of drop down) and "value" (value as Value) for the dropdown? Could you please help? Note: There is a constraint that a class should not be introduced for this purpose. That is why I am trying to use a dictionary. Thanks Lijo

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  • Magento 1.4 - how to show html on product view?

    - by Sam
    Hi All The new version of Magento, 1.4, has it's own WYSIWYG editor, which can be enabled for any product attribute. However, if it is enabled, say for the additional info attribute, if you view the product page the html will be escaped, so you see all the tags (< p , < ul etc). If you change the following in template/catalog/product/view.phtml, you can get the "Quick Overview" and "Additional Information" sections to correctly show the html: <?php echo nl2br($this->htmlEscape($_product->getShortDescription())) ?> to <?php echo $_product->getShortDescription() ?> However, the additional info section is added via template/catalog/product/view/attributes.phtml using the following line, and I can't figure out how to get it to show the html correctly: <?php echo $_helper->productAttribute($_product, $_data['value'], $_data['code']) ?> This references Mage_Catalog_Block_Product_View_Attributes, and if I go to that file and change the following, it works: $value = $this->htmlEscape($value); to $value = value; But is there anyway to do this without overiding this core file with a local version?

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  • Simple XML parser in bison/flex

    - by user360872
    I would like to create simple xml parser using bison/flex. I don't need validation, comments, arguments, only <tag>value</tag>, where value can be number, string or other <tag>value</tag>. So for example: <div> <mul> <num>20</num> <add> <num>1</num> <num>5</num> </add> </mul> <id>test</id> </div> If it helps, I know the names of all tags that may occur. I know how many sub-tag can be hold by given tag. Is it possible to create bison parser that would do something like that: - new Tag("num", 1) // tag1 - new Tag("num", 5) // tag2 - new Tag("add", tag1, tag2) // tag3 - new Tag("num", 20) // tag4 - new Tag("mul", tag4, tag3) ... - root = top_tag Tag & number of sub-tags: num: 1 (only value) str: 1 (only value) add | sub | mul | div: 2 (num | str | tag, num | str | tag) Could you help me with grammar to be able to create AST like given above?

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  • jQuery form zip code to state function

    - by Dakota R.
    I'm trying to convert a preexisting javascript function into a jQuery function. The function comes from http://javascript.internet.com/forms/zip-to-state.html and aims to convert a user-entered zip code into a state. I'm using jQuery 1.3.2, with all the necessary plugins, but I'm not very familiar with jQuery syntax and how to convert this from plain ol' Javascript syntax. The setState function takes two parameters, the zip code element and the state element, so I'm trying to do something like this: $('$zip_code').change( function () { setState($(this), $('#state')); }); Any thoughts on this syntax? Thanks, Dakota function getState(zip) { if ((parseInt(zipString.substr(zip / 4, 1), 16) & Math.pow(2, zip % 4)) && (zip.length == 5)) for (var i = 0; i < stateRange.length; i += 7) if (zip <= 1 * stateRange.substr(i, 5)) return stateRange.substr(i + 5, 2); return null; } function setState(txtZip, optionBox) { if (txtZip.value.length != 5 || isNaN(txtZip.value / 4)) { optionBox.options[0].selected = true; alert("Please enter a 5 digit, numeric zip code."); return; } var state = getState(txtZip.value); for (var i = 0; i < optionBox.options.length; i++) if (optionBox.options[i].value == state) return optionBox.options[i].selected = true; for (var i = 0; i < optionBox.options.length; i++) if (optionBox.options[i].value == "XX") return optionBox.options[i].selected = true; }

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  • Dropdown selection navigation to different page with dropdown values; Asp.Net + Javascript

    - by fzshah76
    I want to access drop down menu's variable in java script on change event, here is my code <asp:DropDownList ID="DropDownList1" runat="server" onchange="document.location.href = url_Lookbook;" > <asp:ListItem Value="0">hello</asp:ListItem> <asp:ListItem Value="1">world</asp:ListItem> </asp:DropDownList> here is the script coding: <script type="text/javascript"> var url_Lookbook = "http://microsoft.com"; </script> My question is how do I pass down value=0 or value = 1 to different page, any help is appreciated.

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  • On ESXi, guest machines hang for significant intervals compared to real machines. How can I fix this?

    - by Tarbox
    This is ESXi version 5.0.0. We plan on upgrading to 5.5 eventually. I have four code profiles, two taken on a real, unvirtualized machine, two taken on a virtual machine. Ordering the list of subroutines by time spent in each one, the two real profiles are practically identical. The two virtual profiles are different from each other and from the real profiles: a subset of subroutines are taking a lot more time on the virtual machines, and the subset is different for each run. The two virtual profiles take a similar amount of time, which is 3 times the amount of time the real profiles take. This gross "how long does it take?" result is consistent after hundreds of tests across three different virtual machines on two different host machines -- the virtual machine is just slower. I've only the code profiling on the four, however. Here's the most guilty set of lines: This is the real machine: 8µs $text = '' unless defined $text; 1.48ms foreach ( split( "\n", $text ) ) { This is the first run on the virtual machine: 20.1ms $text = '' unless defined $text; 1.49ms foreach ( split( "\n", $text ) ) { This is the second run on the virtual machine: 6µs $text = '' unless defined $text; 21.9ms foreach ( split( "\n", $text ) ) { My WAG is that the VM is swapping out the thread and then swapping it back in, destroying some level of cache in the process, but these code profiles were taken when the vm in question was the only active vm on the host, so... what? What does that mean? The guest itself is under light load, this is a latency problem for my users rather than throughput. The host is also under a light load, if I knew what resources to assign where, I could do it without worrying about the cost. I've attempted to lock memory, reserve cpu, assign a restrictive affinity, and disable hyperthread sharing. They don't help, it still takes the VM 2-4x the amount of time to do the same thing as the real machine. The host the tests were run on is 6x2.50GHz, Intel Xeon E5-26400 w/ 16gigs of ram. The guest exhibits the same performance under a wide combination of settings. The real machine is 4x2.13GHz, Xeon E5506 w/ 2 gigs of ram. Thank you for all advice.

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