Search Results

Search found 10693 results on 428 pages for 'stay updated'.

Page 347/428 | < Previous Page | 343 344 345 346 347 348 349 350 351 352 353 354  | Next Page >

  • Updating a Foreign Key constraint with ON DELETE CASCADE not updating?

    - by Alastair Pitts
    We've realised in our SQL Server 2005 DB that some Foreign Keys don't have the On Delete Cascade property set, which is giving us a couple of referential errors when we try and delete some records. Use the Management Studio I scripted the DROP and CREATESQL's, but it seems that the CREATE isn't working correctly. The DROP: USE [FootprintReports] GO IF EXISTS (SELECT * FROM sys.foreign_keys WHERE object_id = OBJECT_ID(N'[dbo].[FK__SUBSCRIPTIONS_Reports]') AND parent_object_id = OBJECT_ID(N'[dbo].[_SUBSCRIPTIONS]')) ALTER TABLE [dbo].[_SUBSCRIPTIONS] DROP CONSTRAINT [FK__SUBSCRIPTIONS_Reports] and the CREATE USE [FootprintReports] GO ALTER TABLE [dbo].[_SUBSCRIPTIONS] WITH CHECK ADD CONSTRAINT [FK__SUBSCRIPTIONS_Reports] FOREIGN KEY([PARAMETER_ReportID]) REFERENCES [dbo].[Reports] ([ID]) ON DELETE CASCADE GO ALTER TABLE [dbo].[_SUBSCRIPTIONS] CHECK CONSTRAINT [FK__SUBSCRIPTIONS_Reports] If I manually change the value of the On Delete in the GUI, after dropping and recreating, the On Delete isn't correctly updated. As a test, I set the Delete rule in the GUI to Set Null. It dropped correctly, and recreated without error. If I got back into the GUI, it is still showing the Set Null as the Delete Rule. Have I done something wrong? or is there another way to edit a constraint to add the ON DELETE CASCADE rule?

    Read the article

  • Modify Executing Jar file

    - by pinkynobrain
    Hello Stack Overflow friends. I have a simple problem which i fear doesnt have a simple solution and i need advice as to how to proceed. I am developing a java application packaged as and executable JAR but it requires to modify some of its JAR file contents during execution. At this stage i hit a problem because some OS lock the file preventing writes to it. It is essential that the user sees an updated version of the jar file by the time the application exits allthough i can be pretty flexible as to how to achieve this. A clean and efficient solution is obviously prefereable but portability is the only hard requirement. The following are three approaches i can see to solving the problem, feel free to comment on them or suggest others. Tell Java to unlock the JAR file for writing(this doesnt seem possible but it would be the easyest solution) Copy the executable class files to a tempory file on application startup, use a class loader to load these files and unload the ones from the initial JAR file.(Not had much experience with the classloaders but hopefully the JVM would then be smart enough to realize that the original JAR is nolonger in use and so unlock it) Put a Second executable JAR File inside the First, on startup extract the inner jar to e temporaryfile, invoke a new java process and pass it the location of the Outer JAR, first process exits, second process modifys the Outer jar unincumbered.(This will work but im not sure there is a platform independant way of one java app invoking another) I know this is a weird question but any help would be appreciated.

    Read the article

  • How reliable is DateTime.UtcNow in Silverlight applications?

    - by Edward Tanguay
    I have a silverlight application which users will be running in various time zones. These applications load their data from the server upon start up, then cache it in IsolatedStorage. When I make changes to the data on the server, I want to be able to change the "last updated time" so that all silverlight clients download the newest data the next time they check this date. However, I'm a bit confused as to how to handle the time zone issue since a if the server is in New York and the update time is set to 2010-01-01 17:00:00 and a client in Seattle checks compares it to its local time of 2010-01-01 14:00:00 it won't update and will continue to provide old data for three more hours. My solution is to always post the update time in UTC time, not with the time on the server, then make the Silverlight app check with DateTime.UtcNow. Is this as easy as it sounds or are their issues with this, e.g. that timezones are not set correctly on computers and hence the SilverlightApp does not report the correct UTC time. Can anyone say from experience how likely it is that using DateTime.UtcNow like this for cache refreshing will work in all cases? If DateTime.UtcNow is not reliable, I will just use an incremented "DataVersion" integer but there are other scenarios in which getting time zone sychronization down would make it useful to thoroughly understand how to solve this in silverlight apps.

    Read the article

  • Django tests failing on invalid keyword argument

    - by Darwin Tech
    I have a models.py like so: from django.db import models from django.contrib.auth.models import User from datetime import datetime class UserProfile(models.Model): user = models.OneToOneField(User) def __unicode__(self): return self.user.username class Project(models.Model): user = models.ForeignKey(UserProfile) created = models.DateTimeField(auto_now_add=True) updated = models.DateTimeField(auto_now=True) product = models.ForeignKey('tool.product') module = models.ForeignKey('tool.module') model = models.ForeignKey('tool.model') zipcode = models.IntegerField(max_length=5) def __unicode__(self): return unicode(self.id) And my tests.py: from django.test import TestCase, Client # --- import app models from django.contrib.auth.models import User from tool.models import Module, Model, Product from user_profile.models import Project, UserProfile # --- unit tests --- # class UserProjectTests(TestCase): fixtures = ['admin_user.json'] def setUp(self): self.product1 = Product.objects.create( name='bar', ) self.module1 = Module.objects.create( name='foo', enable=True ) self.model1 = Model.objects.create( module=self.module1, name='baz', enable=True ) self.user1 = User.objects.get(pk=1) ... def test_can_create_project(self): self.project1 = Model.objects.create( user=self.user1, product=self.product1, module=self.module1, model=self.model1, zipcode=90210 ) self.assertEquals(self.project1.zipcode, 90210) But I get a TypeError: 'product' is an invalid keyword argument for this function error. I'm not sure what is failing but I'm guessing something to do with the FK relationships... Any help would be much appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Setting style on first and last visible TabItem of TabControl

    - by Donnelle
    I want to set a style on the first and last TabItems in a TabControl, and have them updated as the visibility of the TabItems is changed. I can't see a way to do so with triggers. What we're after looks like this: | | And the visibility of TabItems are determined by binding. I do have it working in code. On TabItem visibility changed, enumerate through TabItems until you find the first visible one. Set the style on that one. For all other visible TabItems, set them to the pointy style (so that the previously first visible one is now pointy). Then start from the end until you find a visible TabItem and set the last style on that one. (This also lets us address an issue with TabControl where it will display the content of a non-visible TabItem if none of the visible TabItems are selected.) There's undoubtably improvements I could make to my method, but I'm not convinced that it IS the right approach. How would you approach this?

    Read the article

  • postgresql table for storing automation test results

    - by Martin
    I am building an automation test suite which is running on multiple machines, all reporting their status to a postgresql database. We will run a number of automated tests for which we will store the following information: test ID (a GUID) test name test description status (running, done, waiting to be run) progress (%) start time of test end time of test test result latest screenshot of the running test (updated every 30 seconds) The number of tests isn't huge (say a few thousands) and each machine (say, 50 of them) have a service which checks the database and figures out if it's time to start a new automated test on that machine. How should I organize my SQL table to store all the information? Is a single table with a column per attribute the way to go? If in the future I need to add attributes but want to keep compatibility with old database format (ie I may not want to delete and create a new table with more columns), how should I proceed? Should the new attributes just be in a different table? I'm also thinking of replicating the database. In case of failure, I don't mind if the latest screenshots aren't backed up on the slave database. Should I just store the screenshots in its own table to simplify the replication? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Database Design Question regaurding duplicate information.

    - by galford13x
    I have a database that contains a history of product sales. For example the following table CREATE TABLE SalesHistoryTable ( OrderID, // Order Number Unique to all orders ProductID, // Product ID can be used as a Key to look up product info in another table Price, // Price of the product per unit at the time of the order Quantity, // quantity of the product for the order Total, // total cost of the order for the product. (Price * Quantity) Date, // Date of the order StoreID, // The store that created the Order PRIMARY KEY(OrderID)); The table will eventually have millions of transactions. From this, profiles can be created for products in different geographical regions (based on the StoreID). Creating these profiles can be very time consuming as a database query. For example. SELECT ProductID, StoreID, SUM(Total) AS Total, SUM(Quantity) QTY, SUM(Total)/SUM(Quantity) AS AvgPrice FROM SalesHistoryTable GROUP BY ProductID, StoreID; The above query could be used to get the Information based on products for any particular store. You could then determine which store has sold the most, has made the most money, and on average sells for the most/least. This would be very costly to use as a normal query run anytime. What are some design descisions in order to allow these types of queries to run faster assuming storage size isn’t an issue. For example, I could create another Table with duplicate information. Store ID (Key), Product ID, TotalCost, QTY, AvgPrice And provide a trigger so that when a new order is received, the entry for that store is updated in a new table. The cost for the update is almost nothing. What should be considered when given the above scenario?

    Read the article

  • how to atomically claim a row or resource using UPDATE in mysql

    - by Igor
    i have a table of resources (lets say cars) which i want to claim atomically. if there's a limit of one resource per one user, i can do the following trick: UPDATE cars SET user = 'bob' WHERE user IS NULL LIMIT 1 SELECT * FROM cars WHERE user IS bob that way, i claim the resource atomically and then i can see which row i just claimed. this doesn't work when 'bob' can claim multiple cars. i realize i can get a list of cars already claimed by bob, claim another one, and then SELECT again to see what's changed, but that feels hackish. What I'm wondering is, is there some way to see which rows i just updated with my last UPDATE? failing that, is there some other trick to atomically claiming a row? i really want to avoid using SERIALIZABLE isolation level. If I do something like this: 1 SELECT id FROM cars WHERE user IS NULL 2 <here, my PHP or whatever picks a car id> 3 UPDATE cars SET user = 'bob' WHERE id = <the one i picked> would REPEATABLE READ be sufficient here? in other words, could i be guaranteed that some other transactions won't claim the row my software has picked during step 2?

    Read the article

  • How do you update table row background color in IE using Javascript/CSS ?

    - by giulio
    I have a table that i want to "highlight" during onmouseover/onmouseout. I already know this is required in IE but not in other browsers. I have managed to detect the events triggering and this TR tag effectively works. (Note that the originating class "contentTableRow" doesn't seem to be causing any issues.) class="contentTableRow" onclick="openForm('SomeID');" onmouseover="highlight('someRowID', true);" onmouseout="highlight('someRowID', false);" id="someRowID" All is fine and dandy, the "highlight" function fires and actually sets the appropriate class. It's just that IE won't process the CSS class name change. Here is a snippet of the CSS I am using to make the change. .HighlightOn { cursor:pointer; background-color: #D1DFFF; } .HighlightOff { background-color: #E1EEFE; } I can see that the Class names are getting updated when I debug it, and also check it in Firebug. But it seems that IE doesn't like this usage of classes with a TR tag.. Is it the way I am structuring the class for Tables ? Any advice ?

    Read the article

  • Why do people have to use multiple versions of jQuery on the same page?

    - by reprogrammer
    I have noticed that sometimes people have to use multiple versions of jQuery in the same page (See question 1 and question 2). I assume people have to carry old versions of jQuery because some pieces of their code is based on an older version of jQuery. Obviously, this approach causes inefficiency. The ideal solution is to refactor the old code to use the newer jQuery API. I wonder if there are tools that automate the process of upgrading a piece of code to use a newer version of jQuery. I've never written programs in in either Javascript or jQuery. So, I'd like to hear from programmers experienced in these language about their opinion on this issue. In particular, I'd like to know the following. How much of problem it is to have to load multiple versions of jQuery? Have you ever had to load multiple versions of any other library in the same page? Do you know of any refactoring tools that helps you migrate your code to use the updated API? Do you think such a refactoring tool is useful? Are you willing to use it?

    Read the article

  • Microsoft OLE DB Provider for SQL Server error '80040e14' Could not find stored procedure

    - by BBlake
    I am migrating a classic ASP web app to new servers. The database back end is migrating from SQL Server 2000 to SQL Server 2008, and the app is moving from Win2000 x86 to Win2003R2 x64. I am getting the above error on every single stored procedure call within the application. I have verified: Yes, the SQL user is set up, using correct username and password Yes, the SQL user has execute permissions on the stored procedures in the database Yes, I have updated the TypeLib references to the new UUID Yes, I have logged into the database via SSMS with the SQL user id and it can see and execute the stored procedures just fine in SSMS, but not from the web app. Yes, the SQL user has the database set as its default database. The most frustrating thing is it works fine on the DEV server, but not on the production server. I have gone through every IIS setting 5 or 6 times and the web app is set up precisely the same in both environments. The only difference is the database server name in the connection string (DEV vs prod) EDIT: I have also tried pointing the prod web box at the dev database server and get the same error so I'm fairly sure the issue isn't on the database side.

    Read the article

  • git stash blunder:

    - by Chirag Patel
    I did a git stash pop and ended up with merge conflicts. I removed the files from the file system and did a git checkout as shown below, but it thinks the files are still unmerged. I then tried replacing the files and doing a git checkout again and same result. I event tried forcing it with -f flag. Any help would be appreciated! chirag-patels-macbook-pro:haloror patelc75$ git status app/views/layouts/_choose_patient.html.erb: needs merge app/views/layouts/_links.html.erb: needs merge # On branch prod-temp # Changes to be committed: # (use "git reset HEAD <file>..." to unstage) # # modified: db/schema.rb # # Changed but not updated: # (use "git add <file>..." to update what will be committed) # (use "git checkout -- <file>..." to discard changes in working directory) # # unmerged: app/views/layouts/_choose_patient.html.erb # unmerged: app/views/layouts/_links.html.erb chirag-patels-macbook-pro:haloror patelc75$ git checkout app/views/layouts/_choose_patient.html.erb error: path 'app/views/layouts/_choose_patient.html.erb' is unmerged chirag-patels-macbook-pro:haloror patelc75$ git checkout -f app/views/layouts/_choose_patient.html.erb warning: path 'app/views/layouts/_choose_patient.html.erb' is unmerged

    Read the article

  • Searching a document for multiple terms in VBA?

    - by Tony
    I'm trying to create a macro to be used in Microsoft Word 2007 that will search a document for multiple keywords (string variables) located in an external Excel file (the reason for having it in an external file is that the terms will often be changed and updated). I've figured out how to search a document paragraph by paragraph for a single term and color every instance of that term, and I assumed that the proper method would be to use a dynamic array as the search term variable. The question is: how do I get the macro to create an array containing all the terms from an external file and search each paragraph for each and every term? This is what I have so far: Sub SearchForMultipleTerms() ' Dim SearchTerm As String 'declare search term SearchTerm = InputBox("What are you looking for?") 'prompt for term. this should be removed, as the terms should come from an external XLS file rather than user input. Selection.Find.ClearFormatting Selection.Find.Replacement.ClearFormatti… With Selection.Find .Text = SearchTerm 'find the term! .Forward = True .Wrap = wdFindStop .Format = False .MatchCase = False .MatchWholeWord = False .MatchWildcards = False .MatchSoundsLike = False .MatchAllWordForms = False End With While Selection.Find.Execute Selection.GoTo What:=wdGoToBookmark, Name:="\Para" 'select paragraph Selection.Font.Color = wdColorGray40 'color paragraph Selection.MoveDown Unit:=wdParagraph, Count:=1 'move to next paragraph Wend End Sub Thanks for looking!

    Read the article

  • iPhone and Core Data: how to retain user-entered data between updates?

    - by Shaggy Frog
    Consider an iPhone application that is a catalogue of animals. The application should allow the user to add custom information for each animal -- let's say a rating (on a scale of 1 to 5), as well as some notes they can enter in about the animal. However, the user won't be able to modify the animal data itself. Assume that when the application gets updated, it should be easy for the (static) catalogue part to change, but we'd like the (dynamic) custom user information part to be retained between updates, so the user doesn't lose any of their custom information. We'd probably want to use Core Data to build this app. Let's also say that we have a previous process already in place to read in animal data to pre-populate the backing (SQLite) store that Core Data uses. We can embed this database file into the application bundle itself, since it doesn't get modified. When a user downloads an update to the application, the new version will include the latest (static) animal catalogue database, so we don't ever have to worry about it being out of date. But, now the tricky part: how do we store the (dynamic) user custom data in a sound manner? My first thought is that the (dynamic) database should be stored in the Documents directory for the app, so application updates don't clobber the existing data. Am I correct? My second thought is that since the (dynamic) user custom data database is not in the same store as the (static) animal catalogue, we can't naively make a relationship between the Rating and the Notes entities (in one database) and the Animal entity (in the other database). In this case, I would imagine one solution would be to have an "animalName" string property in the Rating/Notes entity, and match it up at runtime. Is this the best way to do it, or is there a way to "sync" two different databases in Core Data?

    Read the article

  • Does Firefox on OS X Lion make use of Full Page Zoom for the touchpad? How to customize behavior?

    - by Steven Lu
    I really like the smooth pinch-zoom of Safari using the touchpad, but the two-finger scroll on Firefox is so much better than the scrolling performance in Safari. So I really like to use Firefox, but then I miss out on two-finger-double-tap to zoom to paragraph width, and the smooth pinch gesture zoom. What I'm wondering is if it is possible to write a Firefox Extension to improve the update rate of the full-page zoom in Firefox that is already functioning via the touchpad pinch gesture. I feel like it is specifically programmed to zoom at certain zoom levels: 100%, 120%, 150% (these are guesses of mine) but I think it would be great if I can get some more control there to make it work more like the zoom functionality in Safari. Also the two-finger-double-tap on a paragraph or element to zoom to it would be really awesome as well. https://developer.mozilla.org/en/Full_page_zoom This seems to indicate (if "full page zoom" is what I think it is) that an extension has the ability to zoom to an arbitrary scale factor, but what remains is to find out if it is possible to obtain or hook the touchpad pinch gesture. Update: I have updated the toolkit.zoomManager.zoomValues option in about:config to include more zoom levels: .3,.5,.67,.8,.9,1,1.01,1.02,1.03,1.04,1.05,1.06,1.07,1.08,1.09,1.1,1.2,1.33,1.5,1.7,2,2.4,3 Notice how I inserted a bunch of entries between 1 and 1.1. But it isn't switching between them any faster (why would it?) so it's less usable than before because of waiting for it to respond fast enough. It's clear that re-rendering the page at a different zoom level requires time and in order for the zoom to be dynamic, some kind of screen capture and scale effect must be performed (which is what Safari does). I guess such a thing is probably doable but I don't think I could pull it off. :-/

    Read the article

  • Please critisize this method

    - by Jakob
    Hi I've been looking around the net for some tab button close functionality, but all those solutions had some complicated eventhandler, and i wanted to try and keep it simple, but I might have broken good code ethics doing so, so please review this method and tell me what is wrong. public void AddCloseItem(string header, object content){ //Create tabitem with header and content StackPanel headerPanel = new StackPanel() { Orientation = Orientation.Horizontal, Height = 14}; headerPanel.Children.Add(new TextBlock() { Text = header }); Button closeBtn = new Button() { Content = new Image() { Source = new BitmapImage(new Uri("images/cross.png", UriKind.Relative)) }, Margin = new Thickness() { Left = 10 } }; headerPanel.Children.Add(closeBtn); TabItem newTabItem = new TabItem() { Header = headerPanel, Content = content }; //Add close button functionality closeBtn.Tag = newTabItem; closeBtn.Click += new RoutedEventHandler(closeBtn_Click); //Add item to list this.Add(newTabItem); } void closeBtn_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { this.Remove((TabItem)((Button)sender).Tag); } So what I'm doing is storing the tabitem in the btn.Tag property, and then when the button is clicked i just remove the tabitem from my observablecollection, and the UI is updated appropriately. Am I using too much memory saving the tabitem to the Tag property?

    Read the article

  • How to know if a graphics card provides hardware rendering for wpf

    - by happyclicker
    I have to run a wpf-app in an environment that has all the same dell-pc's with an intel gma 3000 graphics chip (onbard, Q963/Q965). The app renders only with software rendering (Stated so by the RenderCapability.Tier-property (it says the rendering tier is 0!) and I also see this with Perforator). On all of this machines, DirectX 9c is installed and DXDiag states on many but not on all of this machines, that Direct-3d and Direct-Draw-acceleration is activated. I checked also the registry if the setup of these machines disabled wpf-hw rendering but that's also not the case. On one machine I also updated the video-driver and dx with no success. I found a lot of ressources that say, that directX must be installed and active, so that wpf does not use its own software renderer but uses the DirectX HW-Rendering. But on the above machines, DX9c is installed but there is no hw rendering. May it be that wpf uses dx-graphicscards but does the communication with the graphics card direct and not over dx? How can I find out if a specific graphics-chip has to support hardware rendering for wpf or not. The statement that the graphics card must support dx 9c seems not to be the only condition. The second question is, if wpf renders through dx, is this done through direct-3d or is direct-draw used. Is there any good documentation on this topic?

    Read the article

  • Why is my Python OpenGL render2DTexture function so slow?

    - by Barakat
    SOLVED: The problem was actually using time.time() every CPU cycle to see whether the next frame should be drawn or not. The time it takes to execute time.time() was having an impact on the FPS. I made this function for drawing 2D textures as images in a 2D view in my OpenGL application. After doing some testing I found that it takes up 1-2 fps per texture. I know I am probably doing something wrong in this code. Any ideas? I am limiting the FPS to 60. Edit: When I disable the texture rendering it adds about 15% fps back. When I disabled text rendering it adds about 15% fps back. When i disable both barely any fps is consumed anymore. IE: 20 out of 60 fps with both on. 30 out of 60 when one is disabled. 58 out of 60 when both are disabled. When rendering the text on a button ( the control I'm using to test this ), it only "prepares" the text when the button label is set. Updated code, still running at the same speed but still works the same: def render2DTexture( self, texture, rect, texrect ): glEnable( GL_TEXTURE_2D ) glBindTexture( GL_TEXTURE_2D, texture ) glBegin( GL_QUADS ) glTexCoord2f( texrect.left, texrect.bottom ) glVertex2i( rect.left, self.windowSize[1] - rect.top ) glTexCoord2f( texrect.right, texrect.bottom ) glVertex2i( rect.left + rect.right, self.windowSize[1] - rect.top ) glTexCoord2f( texrect.right, texrect.top ) glVertex2i( rect.left + rect.right, self.windowSize[1] - ( rect.top + rect.bottom ) ) glTexCoord2f( texrect.left, texrect.top ) glVertex2i( rect.left, self.windowSize[1] - ( rect.top + rect.bottom ) ) glEnd() glDisable( GL_TEXTURE_2D ) def prepareText( self, text, fontFace, color ): self.loadFont( fontFace ) bmp = self.fonts[ fontFace ].render( text, 1, color ) return ( pygame.image.tostring( bmp, 'RGBA', 1 ), bmp.get_width(), bmp.get_height() ) def renderText( self, pText, position ): glRasterPos2i( position[0], self.windowSize[1] - ( position[1] + pText[2] ) ) glDrawPixels( pText[1], pText[2], GL_RGBA, GL_UNSIGNED_BYTE, pText[0] )

    Read the article

  • Get remote image using cURL then resample.

    - by Chris
    I want to be able to retrieve a remote image from a webserver, resample it, and then serve it up to the browser AND save it to a file. Here is what I have so far: $ch = curl_init(); // set URL and other appropriate options curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL, "$rURL"); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, 1); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_HEADER, 0); // grab URL and pass it to the browser $out = curl_exec($ch); // close cURL resource, and free up system resources curl_close($ch); $imgRes = imagecreatefromstring($out); imagejpeg($imgRes, $filename, 70); header("Content-Type: image/jpg"); header("Content-length: ".filesize($filename)); header("Content-Transfer-Encoding: binary"); header("Content-Length: ".filesize($filename)); readfile("$filename"); exit(); Update Updated code to include imjpeg step to save the image as lower quality. But how do I then, efficiently, serve this up to the browser. I currently, later in the code, do this readfile("$filename"); along with some header information but that means I'm reading the file back in again which seems inefficient.

    Read the article

  • Mysterious extra hashtable entry

    - by Harm De Weirdt
    Good evening everyone, I'm back :) Let me explain my problem. I have a hashtable in wich I store the products a costumors buys (%orders). It uses the productcode as key and has a reference to an array with the other info as value. At the end of the program, I have to rewrite the inventory to the updated version (i.e. subtract the quantity of the bought items) This is how I do this: sub rewriteInventory{ open(FILE,'>inv.txt'); foreach $key(%inventory){ print FILE "$key\|$inventory{$key}[0]\|$inventory{$key}[1]\|$inventory{$key}[2]\n" } close(FILE); } where $inventory{$key}[x] is 0 - Title, 1 - price, 2 - quantity. The problem here is that when I look at inv.txt afterwards, I see things like this: CD-911|Lady Gaga - The Fame|15.99|21 ARRAY(0x145030c)||| BOOK-1453|The Da Vinci Code - Dan Brown|14.75|12 ARRAY(0x145bee4)||| Where do these "ARRAY(0x145030c)|||" entries come from? Or more important, how do I get rid of them? This is the last part of this school task, I had so much problems programming all this and this stupid little thing comes up now and I'm really fed up with this whole Perl thing. (this aside :p) I hope someone can help me :) Fuji

    Read the article

  • Core Data: Inverse relationship only mirrors when I edit the mutableset. Not sure why.

    - by zorn
    My model is setup so Business has many clients, Client has one business. Inverse relationship is setup in the mom file. I have a unit test like this: - (void)testNewClientFromBusiness { PTBusiness *business = [modelController newBusiness]; STAssertTrue([[business clients] count] == 0, @"is actually %d", [[business clients] count]); PTClient *client = [business newClient]; STAssertTrue([business isEqual:[client business]], nil); STAssertTrue([[business clients] count] == 1, @"is actually %d", [[business clients] count]); } I implement -newClient inside of PTBusiness like this: - (PTClient *)newClient { PTClient *client = [NSEntityDescription insertNewObjectForEntityForName:@"Client" inManagedObjectContext:[self managedObjectContext]]; [client setBusiness:self]; [client updateLocalDefaultsBasedOnBusiness]; return client; } The test fails because [[business clients] count] is still 0 after -newClient is called. If I impliment it like this: - (PTClient *)newClient { PTClient *client = [NSEntityDescription insertNewObjectForEntityForName:@"Client" inManagedObjectContext:[self managedObjectContext]]; NSMutableSet *group = [self mutableSetValueForKey:@"clients"]; [group addObject:client]; [client updateLocalDefaultsBasedOnBusiness]; return client; } The tests passes. My question(s): So am I right in thinking the inverse relationship is only updated when I interact with the mutable set? That seems to go against some other Core Data docs I've read. Is the fact that this is running in a unit test without a run loop have anything to do with it? Any other troubleshooting recommendations? I'd really like to figure out why I can't set up the relationship at the client end.

    Read the article

  • Maintain List of Active Users for Web

    - by Bryan Marble
    Problem Statement - Would like to know if particular web app user is active (i.e. logged in and using site) and be able to query for list of active users or determine a user's activity status. Constraints - Doesn't need to be exact (i.e. if a user was active within a certain timeframe, that's ok to say that they're active even if they've closed their browser). I feel like there should be a design pattern for this type of problem but haven't been able to find anything here or elsewhere on the web. Approaches I'm considering: Maintain a table that is updated any time a user performs an action (or some subset of actions). Would then query for users that have performed an action within some threshold of time. Try to monitor session information and maintain a table that lists logged in users and times out after a certain period of time. Some other more standard way of doing this? How would you approach this problem (again, from a design pattern perspective)? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • A queue in C using structs and dynamic memory allocation (linked list)

    - by Martin Pugh
    I am tasked with making a queue data structure in C, as a linked list. Our lecturer gave us a large amount of code to implement a stack, but we have to adapt it to create a queue. The code our lecturer gave us ends up not compiling and segfaulting at the exact same point as the code I wrote for the queue. I'm very new to structs, malloc and C in general, so there could be something painfully obvious I've overlooked. Here is the code I am using: #include <stdio.h> #include <stdlib.h> struct node{ int data; //contains the actual data struct node *prev; //pointer to previous node (Closer to front) struct node *next; //pointer to next node (Closer to back) }; typedef struct node *Nodepointer; struct queue{ Nodepointer front; Nodepointer back; }; typedef struct queue *Queuepointer; main(){ Queuepointer myqueue; //create a queue called myqueue init(myqueue); //initialise the queue Nodepointer new = (Nodepointer)malloc(sizeof(struct node)); myqueue->front = new; } int init(Queuepointer q){ q = (Queuepointer)malloc(sizeof(struct queue)); q->front = NULL; q->back = NULL; } The idea is that the queue struct 'contains' the first and last nodes in a queue, and when a node is created, myqueue is updated. However, I cannot even get to that part (pop and push are written but omitted for brevity). The code is segfaulting at the line myqueue->front = new; with the following gdb output: Program received signal SIGSEGV, Segmentation fault. 0x08048401 in main () at queue.c:27 27 myqueue->front = new; Any idea what I'm doing wrong?

    Read the article

  • How can I display multiple django modelformset forms in a grouped fieldsets?

    - by JT
    I have a problem with needing to provide multiple model backed forms on the same page. I understand how to do this with single forms, i.e. just create both the forms call them something different then use the appropriate names in the template. Now how exactly do you expand that solution to work with modelformsets? The wrinkle, of course, is that each 'form' must be rendered together in the appropriate fieldset. For example I want my template to produce something like this: <fieldset> <label for="id_base-0-desc">Home Base Description:</label> <input id="id_base-0-desc" type="text" name="base-0-desc" maxlength="100" /> <label for="id_likes-0-icecream">Want ice cream?</label> <input type="checkbox" name="likes-0-icecream" id="id_likes-0-icecream" /> </fieldset> <fieldset> <label for="id_base-1-desc">Home Base Description:</label> <input id="id_base-1-desc" type="text" name="base-1-desc" maxlength="100" /> <label for="id_likes-1-icecream">Want ice cream?</label> <input type="checkbox" name="likes-1-icecream" id="id_likes-1-icecream" /> </fieldset> I am using a loop like this to process the results (after form validation) base_models = base_formset.save(commit=False) like_models = like_formset.save(commit=False) for base_model, likes_model in map(None, base_models, likes_models): which works as I'd expect (I'm using map because the # of forms can be different). The problem is that I can't figure out a way to do the same thing with the templating engine. The system does work if I layout all the base models together then all the likes models after wards, but it doesn't meet the layout requirements. EDIT: Updated the problem statement to be more clear about what exactly I'm processing (I'm processing models not forms in the for loop)

    Read the article

  • Render action return View(); form problem

    - by Roger Rogers
    I'm new to MVC, so please bear with me. :-) I've got a strongly typed "Story" View. This View (story) can have Comments. I've created two Views (not partials) for my Comments controller "ListStoryComments" and "CreateStoryComment", which do what their names imply. These Views are included in the Story View using RenderAction, e.g.: <!-- List comments --> <h2>All Comments</h2> <% Html.RenderAction("ListStoryComments", "Comments", new { id = Model.Story.Id }); %> <!-- Create new comment --> <% Html.RenderAction("CreateStoryComment", "Comments", new { id = Model.Story.Id }); %> (I pass in the Story id in order to list related comments). All works as I hoped, except, when I post a new comment using the form, it returns the current (parent) View, but the Comments form field is still showing the last content I typed in and the ListStoryComments View isn’t updated to show the new story. Basically, the page is being loaded from cache, as if I had pressed the browser’s back button. If I press f5 it will try to repost the form. If I reload the page manually (reenter the URL in the browser's address bar), and then press f5, I will see my new content and the empty form field, which is my desired result. For completeness, my CreateStoryComment action looks like this: [HttpPost] public ActionResult CreateStoryComment([Bind(Exclude = "Id, Timestamp, ByUserId, ForUserId")]Comment commentToCreate) { try { commentToCreate.ByUserId = userGuid; commentToCreate.ForUserId = userGuid; commentToCreate.StoryId = 2; // hard-coded for testing _repository.CreateComment(commentToCreate); return View(); } catch { return View(); } }

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 343 344 345 346 347 348 349 350 351 352 353 354  | Next Page >