Search Results

Search found 10693 results on 428 pages for 'max requests'.

Page 348/428 | < Previous Page | 344 345 346 347 348 349 350 351 352 353 354 355  | Next Page >

• PerformancePoint dashboard permissions problem in MOSS

  - by Nathan DeWitt

  I have a PerformancePoint dashboard running in MOSS 2007 portal. The dashboard consists of one SSRS 2005 report, running in SharePoint Integrated mode. NT Authority\Authenticated Users have read permissions to the report library containing the SSRS report, the dashboard, and the report library containing the dashboard. Users that attempt to access the dashboard receive the following error message: The permissions granted to user 'DOMAIN\firstname.lastname' are insufficient for performing this operation. (rsAccessDenied) Users that then click on the direct link to the report in MOSS will see the report with no problem. Subsequent visits to the dashboard show the report with no problem. The report is using a data source that is located one folder up from the report location. The report has been updated to point to the correct shared data source after deployment. Both the report and the data source have been published. The data source is using stored credentials, with a domain service account that has been set to Use as Windows credentials. This service account is serving other reports in other areas with no problem. Edit: Ok, I've gotten a lot more information on this problem. The request is never actually being made to the data source. The user comes in to the dashboard and requests a report for the first time using their kerberos token identifying themselves. The report looks in the Report Server database and finds that they are not listed in the users table and generates this rsAccessDenied error. Once they view the report directly their name is in this table and they never have the problem again. Unfortunately, removing the user from the Users table in the RS database doesn't actually cause this error to happen again. Everything I've read says that when you run a Report Server in MOSS integrated mode all your permissions are handled at the MOSS report library level, and all Auth users have permissions to the report library, as stated earlier. Any ideas?

  Read the article

• Database design for invoices, invoice lines & revisions

  - by FreshCode

  I'm designing the 2nd major iteration of a relational database for a franchise's CRM (with lots of refactoring) and I need help on the best database design practices for storing job invoices and invoice lines with a strong audit trail of any changes made to each invoice. Current schema Invoices Table InvoiceId (int) // Primary key JobId (int) StatusId (tinyint) // Pending, Paid or Deleted UserId (int) // auditing user Reference (nvarchar(256)) // unique natural string key with invoice number Date (datetime) Comments (nvarchar(MAX)) InvoiceLines Table LineId (int) // Primary key InvoiceId (int) // related to Invoices above Quantity (decimal(9,4)) Title (nvarchar(512)) Comment (nvarchar(512)) UnitPrice (smallmoney) Revision schema InvoiceRevisions Table RevisionId (int) // Primary key InvoiceId (int) JobId (int) StatusId (tinyint) // Pending, Paid or Deleted UserId (int) // auditing user Reference (nvarchar(256)) // unique natural string key with invoice number Date (datetime) Total (smallmoney) Schema design considerations 1. Is it sensible to store an invoice's Paid or Pending status? All payments received for an invoice are stored in a Payments table (eg. Cash, Credit Card, Cheque, Bank Deposit). Is it meaningful to store a "Paid" status in the Invoices table if all the income related to a given job's invoices can be inferred from the Payments table? 2. How to keep track of invoice line item revisions? I can track revisions to an invoice by storing status changes along with the invoice total and the auditing user in an invoice revision table (see InvoiceRevisions above), but keeping track of an invoice line revision table feels hard to maintain. Thoughts? 3. Tax How should I incorporate sales tax (or 14% VAT in SA) when storing invoice data?

  Read the article

• IIS, Web services, Time out error

  - by Eduard

  Hello, We’ve got problem with ASP.NET web application that uses web services of other system. I’ll describe our system architecture: we have web application and Windows services that uses the same web services. - Windows service works all the time and sends information to these web services once an hour. - Web application is designed for users to send the same information in manual behavior. The problem is when user sometimes tries to send information in manual behavior in the web application, .NET throws exception „The operation has timed out” (web?). At that time Windows service successfully sends all necessary information to these web services. IT stuff that supports these web services asserts that there was no any request from our web application at that time. Then we have restarted IIS (iisreset) and everything has started to work fine. This situation repeats all the time. There is no anti-virus or firewall on the server. My suggestion is that there is something wrong with IIS, patches, configuration or whatever? The only specific thing is that there are requests that can least 2 minutes (web service response wait time). We tried to reproduce this situation on our local test servers, but everything works fine. OS: Windows Server 2003 R2 .NET: 3.5

  Read the article

• Optimal Serialization of Primitive Types

  - by Greg Dean

  We are beginning to roll out more and more WAN deployments of our product (.Net fat client w/ IIS hosted Remoting backend). Because of this we are trying to reduce the size of the data on the wire. We have overridden the default serialization by implementing ISerializable (similar to this), we are seeing anywhere from 12% to 50% gains. Most of our efforts focus on optimizing arrays of primitive types. I would like to know if anyone knows of any fancy way of serializing primitive types, beyond the obvious? For example today we serialize an array of ints as follows: [4-bytes (array length)][4-bytes][4-bytes] Can anyone do significantly better? The most obvious example of a significant improvement, for boolean arrays, is putting 8 bools in each byte, which we already do. Note: Saving 7 bits per bool may seem like a waste of time, but when you are dealing with large magnitudes of data (which we are), it adds up very fast. Note: We want to avoid general compression algorithms because of the latency associated with it. Remoting only supports buffered requests/responses(no chunked encoding). I realize there is a fine line between compression and optimal serialization, but our tests indicate we can afford very specific serialization optimizations at very little cost in latency. Whereas reprocessing the entire buffered response into new compressed buffer is too expensive.

  Read the article

• Designing a fluid Javascript interface to hide callback asynchrony

  - by Anurag

  How would I design an API to hide the asynchronous nature of AJAX and HTTP requests, or basically delay it to provide a fluid interface. To show an example from Twitter's new Anywhere API: // get @ded's first 20 statuses, filter only the tweets that // mention photography, and render each into an HTML element T.User.find('ded').timeline().first(20).filter(filterer).each(function(status) { $('div#tweets').append('<p>' + status.text + '</p>'); }); function filterer(status) { return status.text.match(/photography/); } vs this (asynchronous nature of each call is clearly visible) T.User.find('ded', function(user) { user.timeline(function(statuses) { statuses.first(20).filter(filterer).each(function(status) { $('div#tweets').append('<p>' + status.text + '</p>'); }); }); }); It finds the user, gets their tweet timeline, filters only the first 20 tweets, applies a custom filter, and ultimately uses the callback function to process each tweet. I am guessing that a well designed API like this should work like a query builder (think ORMs) where each function call builds the query (HTTP URL in this case), until it hits a looping function such as each/map/etc., the HTTP call is made and the passed in function becomes the callback. An easy development route would be to make each AJAX call synchronous, but that's probably not the best solution. I am interested in figuring out a way to make it asynchronous, and still hide the asynchronous nature of AJAX.

  Read the article

• add/remove items in a list

  - by Jam

  I'm trying to create a player who can add and remove items from their inventory. I have everything working, I just have 1 small problem. Every time it prints the inventory, 'None' also appears. I've been messing with it to try and remove that, but no matter what I do, 'None' always appears in the program! I know I'm just missing something simple, but I can't figure it out for the life of me. class Player(object): def __init__(self, name, max_items, items): self.name=name self.max_items=max_items self.items=items def inventory(self): for item in self.items: print item def take(self, new_item): if len(self.items)<self.max_items: self.items.append(new_item) else: print "You can't carry any more items!" def drop(self, old_item): if old_item in self.items: self.items.remove(old_item) else: print "You don't have that item." def main(): player=Player("Jimmy", 5, ['sword', 'shield', 'ax']) print "Max items:", player.max_items print "Inventory:", player.inventory() choice=None while choice!="0": print \ """ Inventory Man 0 - Quit 1 - Add an item to inventory 2 - Remove an item from inventory """ choice=raw_input("Choice: ") print if choice=="0": print "Good-bye." elif choice=="1": new_item=raw_input("What item would you like to add to your inventory?") player.take(new_item) print "Inventory:", player.inventory() elif choice=="2": old_item=raw_input("What item would you like to remove from your inventory?") player.drop(old_item) print "Inventory:", player.inventory() else: print "\nSorry, but", choice, "isn't a valid choice." main() raw_input("Press enter to exit.")

  Read the article

• Unit Testing a Java Chat Application

  - by Epitaph

  I have developed a basic Chat application in Java. It consists of a server and multiple client. The server continually monitors for incoming messages and broadcasts them to all the clients. The client is made up of a Swing GUI with a text area (for messages sent by the server and other clients), a text field (to send Text messages) and a button (SEND). The client also continually monitors for incoming messages from other clients (via the Server). This is achieved with Threads and Event Listeners and the application works as expected. But, how do I go about unit testing my chat application? As the methods involve establishing a connection with the server and sending/receiving messages from the server, I am not sure if these methods should be unit tested. As per my understanding, Unit Testing shouldn't be done for tasks like connecting to a database or network. The few test cases that I could come up with are: 1) The max limit of the text field 2) Client can connect to the Server 3) Server can connect to the Client 4) Client can send message 5) Client can receive message 6) Server can send message 7) Server can receive message 8) Server can accept connections from multiple clients But, since most of the above methods involve some kind of network communication, I cannot perform unit testing. How should I go about unit testing my chat application?

  Read the article

• Unable to call RESTful web services methods

  - by Alessandro

  Hello, I'm trying to dive into the RESTful web services world and have started with the following template: [ServiceContract] [AspNetCompatibilityRequirements(RequirementsMode = AspNetCompatibilityRequirementsMode.Allowed)] [ServiceBehavior(InstanceContextMode = InstanceContextMode.PerCall)] public class Test { // TODO: Implement the collection resource that will contain the SampleItem instances [WebGet(UriTemplate = ""), OperationContract] public List<SampleItem> GetCollection() { // TODO: Replace the current implementation to return a collection of SampleItem instances return new List<SampleItem>() {new SampleItem() {Id = 1, StringValue = "Hello"}}; } [WebInvoke(UriTemplate = "", Method = "POST"), OperationContract] public SampleItem Create(SampleItem instance) { // TODO: Add the new instance of SampleItem to the collection throw new NotImplementedException(); } [WebGet(UriTemplate = "{id}"), OperationContract] public SampleItem Get(string id) { // TODO: Return the instance of SampleItem with the given id throw new NotImplementedException(); } [WebInvoke(UriTemplate = "{id}", Method = "PUT"), OperationContract] public SampleItem Update(string id, SampleItem instance) { return new SampleItem { Id = 99, StringValue = "Done" }; } [WebInvoke(UriTemplate = "{id}", Method = "DELETE"), OperationContract] public void Delete(string id) { // TODO: Remove the instance of SampleItem with the given id from the collection throw new NotImplementedException(); } } I am able to perform the GET operation but I am unable to perform PUT, POST or DELETE requests. Can anyone explain me how to perform these operations and how to create the correct URLs? Best regards Alessandro

  Read the article

• Linq to SQL case sensitivity causing problems

  - by Roger Lipscombe

  I've seen this question, but that's asking for case-insensitive comparisons when the database is case-sensitive. I'm having a problem with the exact opposite. I'm using SQL Server 2005, my database collation is set to Latin1_General_CI_AS. I've got a table, "User", like this: CREATE TABLE [dbo].[User] ( [Id] [int] IDENTITY(1,1) NOT NULL, [Name] [nvarchar](max) NOT NULL, CONSTRAINT [PK_Example] PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED ( [Id] ASC ) ) And I'm using the following code to populate it: string[] names = new[] { "Bob", "bob", "BoB" }; using (MyDataContext dataContext = new AppCompatDataContext()) { foreach (var name in names) { string s = name; if (dataContext.Users.SingleOrDefault(u => u.Name == s) == null) dataContext.Users.InsertOnSubmit(new User { Name = name }); } dataContext.SubmitChanges(); } When I run this the first time, I end up with "Bob", "bob" and "BoB" in the table. When I run it again, I get an InvalidOperationException: "Sequence contains more than one element", because the query against the database returns all 3 rows, and... SELECT * FROM [User] WHERE Name = 'bob' ... is case-insensitive. That is: when I'm inserting rows, Linq to SQL appears to use C# case-sensitive comparisons. When I query later, Linq to SQL uses SQL Server case-insensitive comparisons. I'd like the initial insert to use case-insensitive comparisons, but when I change the code as follows... if (dataContext.Users.SingleOrDefault(u => u.Name.Equals(s, StringComparison.InvariantCultureIgnoreCase) ) == null) ... I get a NotSupportedException: "Method 'Boolean Equals(System.String, System.StringComparison)' has no supported translation to SQL." Question: how do I get the initial insert to be case-insensitive or, more precisely, match the collation of the column in the database? Update: This doesn't appear to be my problem. My problem appears to be that SingleOrDefault doesn't actually look at the pending inserts at all.

  Read the article

• SQL CE: Limiting rows returned in the query

  - by Diakonia7

  In SQL Compact Edition 3.5 , note that it is the Compact Edition I am talking about- Is there a way to limit the amount of rows to only 2? Something like using LIMIT or TOP. I really don't want to use anything with a SqlCEDataReader, or SqlCEResultSet. I want to do all the limiting in the query. Is this possible now? I have looked around and it doesn't seem so. EDIT- In response to Dave Swersky's request for data and using Min()/Max() on some columns as a means to get the top 2 lines, here is some sample (sterilized) data: Line Site Function Status 1010 Las Vegas new 4 1020 DC send 1 1030 Portland copy 1 1040 SF copy 1 1050 Portland copy 1 1060 DC send 1 *There are more columns than this but these are the significant ones. Sorry for the lack of intuitive data (but the actual data is even less intuitive!), but for security i need to change the data. So- i need to determine: what site the record was at in the preceding line to determine where it needs to be picked up. The site on any given line (except the first line with function = 'new') corresponds to where the item is going next. So simply grabbing that site off the same line wont tell me where it came from. The status will always be 1 or 4. The 4 corresponds to a where it has been delivered already and so i dont want to include those records in the result. But it might be useful in getting the pickup site. For this table of data i want the query to return the site corresponding to the line just above the first line with status 1. So- for this it would be Las Vegas.

  Read the article

• jQuery Autocomplete Json Ajax cross browser issue with Google Search Appliance

  - by skyfoot

  I am implementing a jquery autocomplete on a search form and am getting the suggestions from the Google Search Appliance Autocomple suggestions service which returns a result set in json. What I am trying to do is go off to the GSA to get suggestions when the user types something in the search box. The url to get the json suggestions is as follows: http://gsaurl/suggest?q=<query>&max=10&site=default_site&client=default_frontend&access=p&format=rich The json which is returned is as follows: { "query":"re", "results": [ {"name":"red", "type":"suggest"}, {"name":"read", "type":"suggest"}] } The jQuery autocomplete code is as follows: $(#q).autocomplete(searchUrl, { width: 320, dataType: 'json', highlight: false, scroll: true, scrollHeight: 300, parse: function(data) { var array = new Array(); for(var i=0;i<data.results.length;i++) { array[i] = { data: data.results[i], value: data.results[i].name, result: data.results[i].name }; } return array; }, formatItem: function(row) { return row.name; } }); This works in IE but fails in firefox as the data returned in the parse function is null. Any ideas why this would be the case? Workaround I created an aspx page to call the GSA suggest service and to return the json from the suggest service. Using this page as a proxy and setting it as the url in the jQuery autocomplete worked in both IE and FireFox.

  Read the article

• jQuery - Not sure which method to use, closest() and parent() don't work.

  - by Nike

  Hello, again. :) God i feel like i'm spamming stackoverflow, this is my 3rd post for today. Sorry, heh. I even posted a question regarding this before, kind of, but i've changed the code a bit since so i thought it was better to post a new question. $('.pmlist ul li h4 .toggle').click(function() { $(this).closest('.meddel').toggle(250); }); That's what i've got now. The reason why the closest() method isn't working is because the div .meddel is just next to the h4 element. And closest() only crawls right up the DOM tree, ignoring other child elements. Right? parent() works almost the same and doesn't work either. And as i only want to toggle the closest .meddel div in the element, i need something that, yeah justs grabs the nearest one, and not all of them. To clear it up a bit, here's the HTML for one list item: <li class="item"> <h4><a class="toggle">ämne</a><small>2010-04-17 kl 12:54 by <u>nike1</u></small></h4> <div class="meddel"> <span> <img style="max-width: 70%; min-height: 70%;" src="profile-images/nike1.jpg" alt="" /> <a href="account.php?usr=47">nike1</a> </span> <p>text</p> </div> </li> I have several items like that, and if i click one toggle link, i just want the nearest .meddel to be toggled, as mentioned before. Thanks. -Nike

  Read the article

• need some help in Abraham twitteroauth class

  - by diEcho

  Hello All, i m learning how to use twitter from twitter developer link on Authenticating Requests with OAuth page i was debugging my code with given procedure on Sending the user to authorization section there is written that if you are using the callback flow, your oauth_callback should have received back your oauth_token (the same that you sent, your "request token") and a field called the oauth_verifier. You'll need that for the next step. Here's the response I received: oauth_token=8ldIZyxQeVrFZXFOZH5tAwj6vzJYuLQpl0WUEYtWc&oauth_verifier=pDNg57prOHapMbhv25RNf75lVRd6JDsni1AJJIDYoTY my original code is require_once('twitteroauth/twitteroauth.php'); require_once('config.php'); /* Build TwitterOAuth object with client credentials. */ $connection = new TwitterOAuth(CONSUMER_KEY, CONSUMER_SECRET); /* Get temporary credentials. */ $request_token = $connection->getRequestToken(OAUTH_CALLBACK); /* Save temporary credentials to session. */ $_SESSION['oauth_token'] = $token = $request_token['oauth_token']; $_SESSION['oauth_token_secret'] = $request_token['oauth_token_secret']; /* If last connection failed don't display authorization link. */ switch ($connection->http_code) { case 200: /* Build authorize URL and redirect user to Twitter. */ echo "<br/>Authorize URL:".$url = $connection->getAuthorizeURL($token); //header('Location: ' . $url); break; default: /* Show notification if something went wrong. */ echo 'Could not connect to Twitter. Refresh the page or try again later.'; } and i m getting Authorize URL: https://twitter.com/oauth/authenticate?oauth_token=BHqbrTjsPcyvaAsfDwfU149aAcZjtw45nhLBeG1c i m not getting above URL having oauth_verifier. please tell me from where do i see/debug that url??

  Read the article

• Is this a valid XPath expression?

  - by sid_com

  Is this xpath a valid XPath expression? (It does what it should ). #!/usr/bin/env perl use strict; use warnings; use 5.012; use XML::LibXML; my $string =<<EOS; <result> <cd> <artists> <artist class="1">Pumkinsingers</artist> <artist class="2">Max and Moritz</artist> </artists> <title>Hello, Hello</title> </cd> <cd> <artists> <artist class="3">Green Trees</artist> <artist class="4">The Leons</artist> </artists> <title>The Shield</title> </cd> </result> EOS #/ my $parser = XML::LibXML->new(); my $doc = $parser->load_xml( string => $string ); my $root = $doc->documentElement; my $xpath = '/result/cd[artists[artist[@class="2"]]]/title'; my @nodes = $root->findnodes( $xpath ); for my $node ( @nodes ) { say $node->textContent; }

  Read the article

• Pros & Cons of Google App Engine

  - by Rishi

  Pros & Cons of Google App Engine [An Updated List 21st Aug 09] Help me Compile a List of all the Advantages & Disadvantages of Building an Application on the Google App Engine Pros: 1) No Need to buy Servers or Server Space (no maintenance). 2) Makes solving the problem of scaling much easier. Cons: 1) Locked into Google App Engine ?? 2)Developers have read-only access to the filesystem on App Engine. 3)App Engine can only execute code called from an HTTP request (except for scheduled background tasks). 4)Users may upload arbitrary Python modules, but only if they are pure-Python; C and Pyrex modules are not supported. 5)App Engine limits the maximum rows returned from an entity get to 1000 rows per Datastore call. 6)Java applications may only use a subset (The JRE Class White List) of the classes from the JRE standard edition. 7)Java applications cannot create new threads. Known Issues!! http://code.google.com/p/googleappengine/issues/list Hard limits Apps per developer - 10 Time per request - 30 sec Files per app - 3,000 HTTP response size - 10 MB Datastore item size - 1 MB Application code size - 150 MB Pro or Con? App Engine's infrastructure removes many of the system administration and development challenges of building applications to scale to millions of hits. Google handles deploying code to a cluster, monitoring, failover, and launching application instances as necessary. While other services let users install and configure nearly any *NIX compatible software, App Engine requires developers to use Python or Java as the programming language and a limited set of APIs. Current APIs allow storing and retrieving data from a BigTable non-relational database; making HTTP requests; sending e-mail; manipulating images; and caching. Most existing Web applications can't run on App Engine without modification, because they require a relational database.

  Read the article

• glitchy stuttery iphone game loop

  - by Adam

  This is a problem I've been trying to solve for a few days now, and I've looked at the various solutions on stackoverflow and nothing has really seemed to work for me. I'm making an iPhone game with OpenGLES graphics and accelerometer input, at this point it's very simple, but the rendering is already pretty bad... it stutters and seems to jump back or forward in time. It doesn't happen a lot, but it happens enough to be a problem. I mean, who wants to play a game where a bullet gets magically transported into the player, and then it's game over? No one. I've tried using NSTimer for the game loop, I've tried using a separate thread (with a frame rate and continuously) I've tried using different frame rates, from 30FPS to 60FPS (It seems to have a max frame rate around 45FPS, but no problems at 30FPS) I've tried using timeIntervalSince1970 and CFGetAbsoluteTime to measure loop time, with no noticeable diffence Anyone have any ideas on what is the best way to get this looking better? One of the posts I've read suggested running the simulation at a fixed frame rate and then just render as fast as possible, does that seem like a good idea?

  Read the article

• php refresh on 2nd page refresh

  - by cnotethegr8

  i have this function that gives me an output of a number. (the number is my total amount of downloads from my iphone themes.) because the code has to make so many requests, it loads the page very slowly. what would be the best way for me to go about the code loading into a variable and than calling it on the second page refresh. so it dosnt take so long to load? or any other method will do. i just want it to not take so long to load! also this isnt on my server so i cant use $.ajax <?php function all_downloads() { $allThemes = array( 'com.modmyi.batterytheme', 'com.modmyi.connectiontheme', 'com.modmyi.icontheme', 'com.modmyi.percenttheme', 'com.modmyi.statusnotifiertheme', 'com.modmyi.cnote', 'com.modmyi.iaccescnotekb', 'com.modmyi.cnotelite', 'com.modmyi.multibrowsericon', 'com.modmyi.changeappstoreiconwithinstallous' ); $total = 0; foreach($allThemes as $com_modmyi){ $theme = file_get_contents( "http://modmyi.com/cstats/index.php?package=".$com_modmyi.'&output=number'); $theme = str_replace(",","", $theme); $almost_done += $theme; $rock_your_phone = 301; //From c-note and Multi Lock Screen Theme on Rock Your Phone $total = ($almost_done + $rock_your_phone); } echo number_format($total); } ?>

  Read the article

• Why calling Process.killProcess(Process.myPid()) is a bad idea?

  - by Tal Kanel

  I've read some posts saying using this method is "not good", shouldn't been use, it's not the right way to "close" the application and it's not how android works... I understand and accept the fact that Android OS knows better then me when it's the right time to terminate the process, but I didn't heard yet a good explanation why it's wrong using the killProcess() method?. after all - it's part of the android API... what I do know is that calling this method while other threads doing in potential an important work (operations on files, writing to DB, HTTP requests, running services..) can be terminated in the middle, and it's clearly not good. also I know I can benefit from the fact that "re-open" the application will be faster, cause the system maybe still "holds" in memory state from last time been used, and killProcess() prevents that. beside this reason, in assumption I don't have such operations, and I don't care my application will load from scratch each run, there are other reasons why not using the killProcess() method? I know about finish() method to close an Activity, so don't write me about that please.. finish() is only for Activity. not to all application, and I think I know exactly why and when to use it... and another thing - I'm developing also games with the Unity3D framework, and exporting the project to android. when I decompiled the generated apk, I was very suprised to find out that the java source code created from unity - implementing Unity's - Application.quit() method, with Process.killProcess(Process.myPid()). Application.quit() is suppose to be the right way to close game according to Unity3d guides (is it really?? maybe I'm wrong, and missed something), so how it happens that the Unity's framework developers which doing a very good work as it seems implemented this in native android to killProcess()? anyway - I wish to have a "list of reasons" why not using the killProcess() method, so please write down your answer - if you have something interesting to say about that. TIA

  Read the article

• Weblogic 10.3.0 : Loosing a stateless session bean in the bean pool

  - by KlasE

  Hi, We have a strange situation where we loose a Stateless SessionBean in a Bean Pool in Weblogic 10.3.0 Since we only have one bean in the pool, this effectively hangs all incoming calls. We do not want more than one instance in the pool because of application restrictions. In the Weblogic admin console, we can see that there are 1 instance in the bean pool, 0 beans in use and 1 waiting incoming request. The question is, what can have caused the system to not send the request to the one obviously free bean instance? This happens after several hours and over 100000 incoming requests, and the same scenario worked fine in the old weblogic 8 environment. We get the following stacktrace: "[ACTIVE] ExecuteThread: '5' for queue: 'weblogic.kernel.Default (self-tuning)'" waiting for lock java.util.concurrent.locks.AbstractQueuedSynchronizer$ConditionObject@b0d484 TIMED_WAITING sun.misc.Unsafe.park(Native Method) java.util.concurrent.locks.LockSupport.parkNanos(LockSupport.java:198) java.util.concurrent.locks.AbstractQueuedSynchronizer$ConditionObject.await(AbstractQueuedSynchronizer.java:2054) weblogic.ejb.container.pool.StatelessSessionPool.waitForBean(StatelessSessionPool.java:269) weblogic.ejb.container.pool.StatelessSessionPool.getBean(StatelessSessionPool.java:111) weblogic.ejb.container.manager.StatelessManager.preInvoke(StatelessManager.java:148) weblogic.ejb.container.internal.BaseRemoteObject.preInvoke(BaseRemoteObject.java:227) weblogic.ejb.container.internal.StatelessRemoteObject.preInvoke(StatelessRemoteObject.java:52) com.mycompany.beans.MessageLogFacace_n73y0z_EOImpl.isMyStuffValid(MessageLogFacace_n73y0z_EOImpl.java:261) com.mycompany.beans.MessageLogFacace_n73y0z_EOImpl_WLSkel.invoke(Unknown Source) weblogic.rmi.internal.BasicServerRef.invoke(BasicServerRef.java:589) weblogic.rmi.cluster.ClusterableServerRef.invoke(ClusterableServerRef.java:230) weblogic.rmi.internal.BasicServerRef$1.run(BasicServerRef.java:477) weblogic.security.acl.internal.AuthenticatedSubject.doAs(AuthenticatedSubject.java:363) weblogic.security.service.SecurityManager.runAs(Unknown Source) weblogic.rmi.internal.BasicServerRef.handleRequest(BasicServerRef.java:473) weblogic.rmi.internal.wls.WLSExecuteRequest.run(WLSExecuteRequest.java:118) weblogic.work.ExecuteThread.execute(ExecuteThread.java:201) weblogic.work.ExecuteThread.run(ExecuteThread.java:173) Any help would be very welcome. Regards Klas

  Read the article

• How to import data to SAP

  - by Mehmet AVSAR

  Hi, As a complete stranger in town of SAP, I want to transfer my own application's (mobile salesforce automation) data to SAP. My application has records of customers, stocks, inventory, invoices (and waybills), cheques, payments, collections, stock transfer data etc. I have an additional database which holds matchings of records. ie. A customer with ID 345 in my application has key 120-035-0223 in SAP. Every record, for sure, has to know it's counterpart, including parameters. After searching Google and SAP help site for a day, I covered that it's going to be a bit more pain than I expected. Especially SAP site does not give even a clue on it. Say I couldn't find. We transferred our data to some other ERP systems, some of which wanted XML files, some other exposed their APIs. My point is, is Sql Server's SSIS an option for me? I hope it is, so I can fight on my own territory. Since client requests would vary a lot, I count flexibility as most important criteria. Also, I want to transfer as much data as I could. Any help is appreciated. Regards,

  Read the article

• Persisting complex data between postbacks in ASP.NET MVC

  - by Robert Wagner

  I'm developing an ASP.NET MVC 2 application that connects to some services to do data retrieval and update. The services require that I provide the original entity along with the updated entity when updating data. This is so it can do change tracking and optimistic concurrency. The services cannot be changed. My problem is that I need to somehow store the original entity between postbacks. In WebForms, I would have used ViewState, but from what I have read, that is out for MVC. The original values do not have to be tamper proof as the services treat them as untrusted. The entities would be (max) 1k and it is an intranet app. The options I have come up are: Session - Ruled out - Store the entity in the Session, but I don't like this idea as there are no plans to share session between URL - Ruled out - Data is too big HiddenField - Store the serialized entity in a hidden field, perhaps with encryption/encoding HiddenVersion - The entities have a (SQL) version field on them, which I could put into a hidden field. Then on a save I get "original" entity from the services and compare the versions, doing my own optimistic concurrency. Cookies - Like 3 or 4, but using a cookie instead of a hidden field I'm leaning towards option 4, although 3 would be simpler. Are these valid options or am I going down the wrong track? Is there a better way of doing this?

  Read the article

• How to configure for multiple gettext domains with babel, pylons, setuptools

  - by ICanHaveSpam

  While trying to internationalize my pylons web and mobile application, 'myapp', Im finding that I would like to keep separate gettext pot files for separate domains. There will be common msgid values for both web and mobile users and there will also be unique msgid values that are only translated for web or mobile users. Im expecting localized msgstrs for mobile users will be different (more terse) than the localized msgstrs for normal web users. The environment is like: the same myapp/controllers will be used for both mobile and web requests. mobile users will have their pages rendered from myapp/templates/mobile normal web users will have their pages rendered from myapp/templates/web What happens by default: I end up with myapp/i18n/myapp.pot and myapp/i18n/*/LC_MESSAGES/myapp.[pm]o files that contain msgid values from controllers and both sets of templates. What Im looking for: to set the gettext domain for the user's session when I decide which templates will render their responses. myapp's msgids from controllers and web template extract into myapp/i18n/web.pot myapp's msgids from controllers and mobile templates extract into myapp/i18n/mobile.pot babel's init_catalog, update_catalog, and compile_catalog runs deal with these separate domains and create separate po and mo localization files. Where Im lost: configuring myapp's setup.cfg and setup.py to deal with separate gettext domains so that I can direct extracted msgid values into a particular pot file based on the path of the python and template files.

  Read the article

• How to route all subdomains to a single host using mDNS?

  - by John Mee

  I have a development webserver hosting as "myhost.local" which is found using Bonjour/mDNS. The server is running avahi-daemon. The webserver also wants to handle any subdomains of itself. Eg "cat.myhost.local" and "dog.myhost.local" and "guppy.myhost.local". Given that myhost.local is on a dynamic ip address from dhcp, is there still a way to route all requests for the subdomains to myhost.local? I'm starting to think it not currently possible... http://marc.info/?l=freedesktop-avahi&m=119561596630960&w=2 You can do this with the /etc/avahi/hosts file. Alternatively you can use avahi-publish-host-name. No, he cannot. Since he wants to define an alias, not a new hostname. I.e. he only wants to register an A RR, no reverse PTR RR. But if you stick something into /etc/avahi/hosts then it registers both, and detects a collision if the PTR RR is non-unique, which would be the case for an alias.

  Read the article

• acts_as_solr isn't updating associated models in Rails

  - by Trey Bean

  I'm using acts_as_solr for searching in a project. Unfortunately, the index doesn't seem to be updated for the associated models when a model is saved. Example: I have three models: class Merchant < ActiveRecord::Base acts_as_solr :fields => [:name, :domain, :description], :include => [:coupons, :tags] ... end class Coupon < ActiveRecord::Base acts_as_solr :fields => [:store_name, :url, :code, :description] ... end class Tag < ActiveRecord::Base acts_as_solr :fields => [:name] ... end I use the following line to perform a search: Merchant.paginate_by_solr(params[:q], :per_page => PER_PAGE, :page => [(params[:page] || 1).to_i, 1].max) For some reason though, after I add a coupon that contains the word 'shoes' in the description, a query for 'shoes' doesn't return the merchant associated with the coupon. The association all work and if I run rake solr:reindex, the search then returns the new coupon. Do I need to update the index for Merchant each time a new coupon is created? Do I have to update the index for the whole class or can I just update the associated merchant? Shouldn't this be done automatically? Thanks for any input.

  Read the article

• Learning AES: the KeyBytes

  - by Tom Brito

  I got the following example from here: import java.security.Security; import javax.crypto.Cipher; import javax.crypto.spec.SecretKeySpec; public class MainClass { public static void main(String[] args) throws Exception { Security.addProvider(new org.bouncycastle.jce.provider.BouncyCastleProvider()); byte[] input = "www.java2s.com".getBytes(); byte[] keyBytes = new byte[] { 0x00, 0x01, 0x02, 0x03, 0x04, 0x05, 0x06, 0x07, 0x08, 0x09, 0x0a, 0x0b, 0x0c, 0x0d, 0x0e, 0x0f, 0x10, 0x11, 0x12, 0x13, 0x14, 0x15, 0x16, 0x17 }; SecretKeySpec key = new SecretKeySpec(keyBytes, "AES"); Cipher cipher = Cipher.getInstance("AES/ECB/PKCS7Padding", "BC"); System.out.println(new String(input)); // encryption pass cipher.init(Cipher.ENCRYPT_MODE, key); byte[] cipherText = new byte[cipher.getOutputSize(input.length)]; int ctLength = cipher.update(input, 0, input.length, cipherText, 0); ctLength += cipher.doFinal(cipherText, ctLength); System.out.println(new String(cipherText)); System.out.println(ctLength); // decryption pass cipher.init(Cipher.DECRYPT_MODE, key); byte[] plainText = new byte[cipher.getOutputSize(ctLength)]; int ptLength = cipher.update(cipherText, 0, ctLength, plainText, 0); ptLength += cipher.doFinal(plainText, ptLength); System.out.println(new String(plainText)); System.out.println(ptLength); } } I imagine that the byte[] keyBytes should be random generated, so I gone to test the max size before do it. When adding one more byte 0x18 to the array, the exception raised: InvalidKeyException: Key length not 128/192/256 bits. But the original 18 bytes (from 0 to 17) are not multiple of nither 128, 192 or 256. I would like to understand the math here.. can anyone explain me? Thanks!

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 344 345 346 347 348 349 350 351 352 353 354 355  | Next Page >