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  • NHibernate unintential lazy property loading

    - by chiccodoro
    I introduced a mapping for a business object which has (among others) a property called "Name": public class Foo : BusinessObjectBase { ... public virtual string Name { get; set; } } For some reason, when I fetch "Foo" objects, NHibernate seems to apply lazy property loading (for simple properties, not associations): The following code piece generates n+1 SQL statements, whereof the first only fetches the ids, and the remaining n fetch the Name for each record: ISession session = ...IQuery query = session.CreateQuery(queryString); ITransaction tx = session.BeginTransaction(); List<Foo> result = new List<Foo>(); foreach (Foo foo in query.Enumerable()) { result.Add(foo); } tx.Commit(); session.Close(); produces: NHibernate: select foo0_.FOO_ID as col_0_0_ from V1_FOO foo0_ NHibernate: SELECT foo0_.FOO_ID as FOO1_2_0_, foo0_.NAME as NAME2_0_ FROM V1_FOO foo0_ WHERE foo0_.FOO_ID=:p0;:p0 = 81 NHibernate: SELECT foo0_.FOO_ID as FOO1_2_0_, foo0_.NAME as NAME2_0_ FROM V1_FOO foo0_ WHERE foo0_.FOO_ID=:p0;:p0 = 36470 NHibernate: SELECT foo0_.FOO_ID as FOO1_2_0_, foo0_.NAME as NAME2_0_ FROM V1_FOO foo0_ WHERE foo0_.FOO_ID=:p0;:p0 = 36473 Similarly, the following code leads to a LazyLoadingException after session is closed: ISession session = ... ITransaction tx = session.BeginTransaction(); Foo result = session.Load<Foo>(id); tx.Commit(); session.Close(); Console.WriteLine(result.Name); Following this post, "lazy properties ... is rarely an important feature to enable ... (and) in Hibernate 3, is disabled by default." So what am I doing wrong? I managed to work around the LazyLoadingException by doing a NHibernateUtil.Initialize(foo) but the even worse part are the n+1 sql statements which bring my application to its knees. This is how the mapping looks like: <class name="Foo" table="V1_FOO"> ... <property name="Name" column="NAME"/> </class> BTW: The abstract "BusinessObjectBase" base class encapsulates the ID property which serves as the internal identifier.

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  • What constitutes a development environment, and how do you document it?

    - by Joel Coehoorn
    What items go into a software shop's development environment, how do you document it, and what processes do you follow to make changes? I thinking about this from the standpoint where I want to make it easier to bring new hires up to speed quickly by having all this on a checklist we follow when setting them up, and then while I'm at it making it easier for the new hires or existing team members to bring new powerful toolkits and ideas into the environment without disrupting things. I want to keep this platform agnostic, so even though I'm currently at a microsoft shop where Visual Studio would be assumed I'll go ahead and list compiler/IDE as one of the items: Here are some ideas for part 1: [edit]: I'm keeping this updated based on the better suggestions. Source Control access Issue/Bug/Project tracker System Documention, or references to find the system documentation in source control or in a wiki, including: build document/environment covered by this question design documents / technical notes Coding Style guidelines Deploy for review/testing/QA/staging/production procedures Licensing details for your tools and your product Team Calendar, including the project schedule(s), deadlines, vacation time, and support/on-call schedule (if required) compiler/IDE compiler/IDE extensions (things like source control plugins or visual studio add-ins) 3rd party SDKs/toolkits Database connection and tools Testing Frameworks Internal libraries communication tools (chat, wiki, etc) Static analysis tools (FxCop, FlawFinder, etc) Virtual machines (holding dev environment or for testing) Specialized editors (modeling, xml, etc) Other tools What else goes in this list, and how do you document it and vet changes?

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  • Hide a single content block from search engines?

    - by jonas
    A header is automatically added on top of each content URL, but its not relevant for search and messing up the all the results beeing the first line of every page (in the code its the last line but visually its the first, which google is able to notice) Solution1: You could put the header (content to exculde from google searches) in an iframe with a static url domain.com/header.html and a <meta name="robots" content="noindex" /> ? - are there takeoffs of this solution? Solution2: You could deliver it conditionally by apache mod rewrite, php or javascript -takeoff(?): google does not like it? will google ever try pages with a standard users's useragent and compare? -takeoff: The hidden content will be missing in the google cache version as well... example: add-header.php: <?php $path = $_GET['path']; echo file_get_contents($_SERVER["DOCUMENT_ROOT"].$path); ?> apache virtual host config: RewriteCond %{HTTP_USER_AGENT} !.*spider.* [NC] RewriteCond %{HTTP_USER_AGENT} !Yahoo.* [NC] RewriteCond %{HTTP_USER_AGENT} !Bing.* [NC] RewriteCond %{HTTP_USER_AGENT} !Yandex.* [NC] RewriteCond %{HTTP_USER_AGENT} !Baidu.* [NC] RewriteCond %{HTTP_USER_AGENT} !.*bot.* [NC] RewriteCond %{SCRIPT_FILENAME} \.htm$ [NC,OR] RewriteCond %{SCRIPT_FILENAME} \.html$ [NC,OR] RewriteCond %{SCRIPT_FILENAME} \.php$ [NC] RewriteRule ^(.*)$ /var/www/add-header.php?path=%1 [L]

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  • Different behaviour of method overloading in C#

    - by Wondering
    Hi All, I was going through C# Brainteasers(http://www.yoda.arachsys.com/csharp/teasers.html) and came accross one question:what should be the o/p of below code class Base { public virtual void Foo(int x) { Console.WriteLine ("Base.Foo(int)"); } } class Derived : Base { public override void Foo(int x) { Console.WriteLine ("Derived.Foo(int)"); } public void Foo(object o) { Console.WriteLine ("Derived.Foo(object)"); } } class Test { static void Main() { Derived d = new Derived(); int i = 10; d.Foo(i); // it prints ("Derived.Foo(object)" } } but if I change the code to enter code here class Derived { public void Foo(int x) { Console.WriteLine("Derived.Foo(int)"); } public void Foo(object o) { Console.WriteLine("Derived.Foo(object)"); } } class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { Derived d = new Derived(); int i = 10; d.Foo(i); // prints Derived.Foo(int)"); Console.ReadKey(); } } I want to why the o/p is getting changde when we are inheriting vs not inheriting , why method overloading is behaving differently in both the cases

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  • Android - Two different programs at the same time in an emulator

    - by Léa Massiot
    I'm new to Android development. My OS is WinXP. I'm trying to install two different applications on an Android Device Emulator in command line. I have two Android projects "ap1" and "ap2". In the "ap1" project directory, I ran "ant debug". I got an "ap1.apk" executable. In the "ap2" project directory, I ran "ant debug". I got an "ap2.apk" executable. I created an Android Virtual Device: cmd_line android create avd -n avd1 -t 1 --abi x86 I launched the emulator: cmd_line emulator -avd avd1 -verbose The "adb devices" command returns: List of devices attached emulator-5554 device I installed the first program on the emulator: cmd_line adb -s emulator-5554 install "ap1.apk" I ran the program: cmd_line adb shell am start -a android.intent.action.MAIN -n my.pkg.android/.Activity1 = It worked. I installed the second program on the emulator: cmd_line adb -s emulator-5554 install "ap2.apk" I ran the program: cmd_line adb shell am start -a android.intent.action.MAIN -n my.pkg2.android/.AnotherActivity1 = It worked. All this works except that the second executable "replaced" of the first one. If I try to run the first executable, I get an error: cmd_line adb shell am start -a android.intent.action.MAIN -n my.pkg.android/.Activity1 Starting: Intent { act=android.intent.action.MAIN cmp=my.pkg.android/.Activity1 } Error type 3 Error: Activity class {my.pkg.android/my.pkg.android.Activity1} does not exist. It looks like I can't have the two apps at the same time in the emulator. What do you think? What do I have to do to have the two apps available (at the same time) in the emulator? Thank you for helping. Best regards.

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  • Server.TransferRequest returns blank page on specific server

    - by jishi
    I'm facing an issue that seems to be related to configuration. I have a webapplication based on MonoRail, where we utilize the routing feature from MonoRail. On the first request after the application has started, the routing isn't initialized. To circumvent this, I have the following code in Application_OnError(): public virtual void Application_OnError() { if ( // identified as routing error ) Server.TransferRequest( Context.Request.RawUrl, false ); return; } Problem beeing that on our development server (which runs server 2008 R2, with IIS 7.5 and .NET 3.5) returns a blank page without headers, but on my workstation (which runs win7, IIS 7.5 and .NET 3.5) it works fine. What could be the cause of this? If the code in Application_OnError() throws an exception, what would be the expected output? I have verified the following: The access-log shows one entry, I'm not sure if a TransferRequest would show up as a second entry when invoked successfully The application actually do some work according to my internal logs, and it doesn't die since a subsequent requests works flawlessly (because routing will be active) Any hints on what to look for would be greatly appreciated!

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  • URL equals and checking Internet access

    - by James P.
    On http://java.sun.com/j2se/1.5.0/docs/api/java/net/URL.html it states that: Compares this URL for equality with another object. If the given object is not a URL then this method immediately returns false. Two URL objects are equal if they have the same protocol, reference equivalent hosts, have the same port number on the host, and the same file and fragment of the file. Two hosts are considered equivalent if both host names can be resolved into the same IP addresses; else if either host name can't be resolved, the host names must be equal without regard to case; or both host names equal to null. Since hosts comparison requires name resolution, this operation is a blocking operation. Note: The defined behavior for equals is known to be inconsistent with virtual hosting in HTTP. According to this, equals will only work if name resolution is possible. Since I can't be sure that a computer has internet access at a given time, should I just use Strings to store addresses instead? Also, how do I go about testing if access is available when requested?

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  • .NET MissingMethodException occuring on one of thousands of end-user machines -- any insight?

    - by Yoooder
    This issue has me baffled, it's affecting a single user (to my knowledge) and hasn't been reproduced by us... The user is receiving a MissingMethodException, our trace file indicates it's occuring after we create a new instance of a component, when we're calling an Initialize/Setup method in preparation to have it do work (InitializeWorkerByArgument in the example) The Method specified by the error is an interface method, which a base class implements and classes derived from the base class can override as-needed The user has the latest release of our application All the provided code is shipped within a single assembly Here's a very distilled version of the component: class Widget : UserControl { public void DoSomething(string argument) { InitializeWorkerByArgument(argument); this.Worker.DoWork(); } private void InitializeWorkerByArgument(string argument) { switch (argument) { case "SomeArgument": this.Worker = new SomeWidgetWorker(); break; } // The issue I'm tracking down would have occured during "new SomeWidgetWorker()" // and would have resulted in a missing method exception stating that // method "DoWork" could not be found. this.Worker.DoWorkComplete += new EventHandler(Worker_DoWorkComplete); } private IWidgetWorker Worker { get; set; } void Worker_DoWorkComplete(object sender, EventArgs e) { MessageBox.Show("All done"); } } interface IWidgetWorker { void DoWork(); event EventHandler DoWorkComplete; } abstract class BaseWorker : IWidgetWorker { virtual public void DoWork() { System.Threading.Thread.Sleep(1000); RaiseDoWorkComplete(this, null); } internal void RaiseDoWorkComplete(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (DoWorkComplete != null) { DoWorkComplete(this, null); } } public event EventHandler DoWorkComplete; } class SomeWidgetWorker : BaseWorker { public override void DoWork() { System.Threading.Thread.Sleep(2000); RaiseDoWorkComplete(this, null); } }

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  • Trying to make a plugin system in C++/Qt

    - by Pirate for Profit
    I'm making a task-based program that needs to have plugins. Tasks need to have properties which can be easily edited, I think this can be done with Qt's Meta-Object Compiler reflection capabilities (I could be wrong, but I should be able to stick this in a QtPropertyBrowser?) So here's the base: class Task : public QObject { Q_OBJECT public: explicit Task(QObject *parent = 0) : QObject(parent){} virtual void run() = 0; signals: void taskFinished(bool success = true); } Then a plugin might have this task: class PrinterTask : public Task { Q_OBJECT public: explicit PrinterTask(QObject *parent = 0) : Task(parent) {} void run() { Printer::getInstance()->Print(this->getData()); // fictional emit taskFinished(true); } inline const QString &getData() const; inline void setData(QString data); Q_PROPERTY(QString data READ getData WRITE setData) // for reflection } In a nutshell, here's what I want to do: // load plugin // find all the Tasks interface implementations in it // have user able to choose a Task and edit its specific Q_PROPERTY's // run the TASK It's important that one .dll has multiple tasks, because I want them to be associated by their module. For instance, "FileTasks.dll" could have tasks for deleting files, making files, etc. The only problem with Qt's plugin setup is I want to store X amount of Tasks in one .dll module. As far as I can tell, you can only load one interface per plugin (I could be wrong?). If so, the only possible way to do accomplish what I want is to create a FactoryInterface with string based keys which return the objects (as in Qt's Plug-And-Paint example), which is a terrible boilerplate that I would like to avoid. Anyone know a cleaner C++ plugin architecture than Qt's to do what I want? Also, am I safely assuming Qt's reflection capabilities will do what I want (i.e. able to edit an unknown dynamically loaded tasks' properties with the QtPropertyBrowser before dispatching)?

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  • Using Kerberos authentication for SQL Server 2008

    - by vivek m
    I am trying to configure my SQL Server to use Kerberos authentication. My setup is like this - My setup is like this- I have 2 virtual PCs in a Windows XP Pro SP3 host. Both VPCs are Windows Server 2003 R2. One VPC acts as the DC, DNS Server, DHCP server, has Active Directory installed and the SQL Server default instance is also running on this VPC. The second VPC is the domain member and it acts as the SQL Server client machine. I configured the SPN on the SQL Server service account to get the Kerberos working. On the client VPC it seems like it is using Kerberos authentication (as desired)- C:\Documents and Settings\administrator.SHAREPOINTSVC>sqlcmd -S vm-winsrvr2003 1> select auth_scheme from sys.dm_exec_connections where session_id=@@spid 2> go auth_scheme ---------------------------------------- KERBEROS (1 rows affected) 1> but on the server computer (where the SQL Server instance is actually running) it looks like it is still using NTLM authentication- . This is not a remote instance, the sql server is local to this machine. C:\Documents and Settings\Administrator>sqlcmd 1> select auth_scheme from sys.dm_exec_connections where session_id=@@spid 2> go auth_scheme ---------------------------------------- NTLM (1 rows affected) 1> What can i do so that it uses Kerberos on the server computer as well ? (or is this something that I should not expect)

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  • How do I build a class that shares a table with multiple columns in MVC3?

    - by Barrett Kuethen
    I have a Job table public class Job { public int JobId { get; set; } public int SalesManagerId { get; set; } public int SalesRepId { get; set; } } and a Person table public class Person { public int PersonId { get; set; } public int FirstName { get; set; } public int LastName { get; set; } } My question is, how do I link the SalesManagerId to the Person (or PersonId) as well as the SalesRepId to the Person (PersonId)? The Sales Manager and Sales Rep are independent of each other. I just don't want to make 2 different lists to support the Sales Manager and Sales Rep roles. I'm new to MVC3, but it seems public virtual Person Person {get; set; } would be the way to go, but that doesn't work. Any help would be appreciated! Thanks!

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  • Focus CSS tag in Internet Explorer 8

    - by Sam
    This is driving me nuts. http://www.cssdrive.com/index.php/examples/exampleitem/focus_pseudo_class This is an example of using the hover pseudo-class. Works fine in Chrome and IE. When I save locally it works fine in Chrome but won't work in IE. What am I doing wrong!? <link rel="Stylesheet" href="style.css" /> <form> <p>1) Name:<br /> <input type="text" size="40"></p> <p>2) Email address:<br /> <input type="text" size="40"></p> <p>3) Comments:<br /> <textarea rows="5" name="comments" cols="45" wrap="virtual"></textarea></p> <p><input id="actualsubmit" type="submit" value="Submit"></p> </form> style.css: input:focus, textarea:focus{ background-color: lightyellow; }

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  • How good is the memory mapped Circular Buffer on Wikipedia?

    - by abroun
    I'm trying to implement a circular buffer in C, and have come across this example on Wikipedia. It looks as if it would provide a really nice interface for anyone reading from the buffer, as reads which wrap around from the end to the beginning of the buffer are handled automatically. So all reads are contiguous. However, I'm a bit unsure about using it straight away as I don't really have much experience with memory mapping or virtual memory and I'm not sure that I fully understand what it's doing. What I think I understand is that it's mapping a shared memory file the size of the buffer into memory twice. Then, whenever data is written into the buffer it appears in memory in 2 places at once. This allows all reads to be contiguous. What would be really great is if someone with more experience of POSIX memory mapping could have a quick look at the code and tell me if the underlying mechanism used is really that efficient. Am I right in thinking for example that the file in /dev/shm used for the shared memory always stays in RAM or could it get written to the hard drive (performance hit) at some point? Are there any gotchas I should be aware of? As it stands, I'm probably going to use a simpler method for my current project, but it'd be good to understand this to have it in my toolbox for the future. Thanks in advance for your time.

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  • Trouble with building up a string in Clojure

    - by Aki Iskandar
    Hi gang - [this may seem like my problem is with Compojure, but it isn't - it's with Clojure] I've been pulling my hair out on this seemingly simple issue - but am getting nowhere. I am playing with Compojure (a light web framework for Clojure) and I would just like to generate a web page showing showing my list of todos that are in a PostgreSQL database. The code snippets are below (left out the database connection, query, etc - but that part isn't needed because specific issue is that the resulting HTML shows nothing between the <body> and </body> tags). As a test, I tried hard-coding the string in the call to main-layout, like this: (html (main-layout "Aki's Todos" "Haircut<br>Study Clojure<br>Answer a question on Stackoverfolw")) - and it works fine. So the real issue is that I do not believe I know how to build up a string in Clojure. Not the idiomatic way, and not by calling out to Java's StringBuilder either - as I have attempted to do in the code below. A virtual beer, and a big upvote to whoever can solve it! Many thanks! ============================================================= ;The master template (a very simple POC for now, but can expand on it later) (defn main-layout "This is one of the html layouts for the pages assets - just like a master page" [title body] (html [:html [:head [:title title] (include-js "todos.js") (include-css "todos.css")] [:body body]])) (defn show-all-todos "This function will generate the todos HTML table and call the layout function" [] (let [rs (select-all-todos) sbHTML (new StringBuilder)] (for [rec rs] (.append sbHTML (str rec "<br><br>"))) (html (main-layout "Aki's Todos" (.toString sbHTML))))) ============================================================= Again, the result is a web page but with nothing between the body tags. If I replace the code in the for loop with println statements, and direct the code to the repl - forgetting about the web page stuff (ie. the call to main-layout), the resultset gets printed - BUT - the issue is with building up the string. Thanks again. ~Aki

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  • RhinoMocks: how to test if method was called when using PartialMock

    - by epitka
    I have a clas that is something like this public class MyClass { public virtual string MethodA(Command cmd) { //some code here} public void MethodB(SomeType obj) { // do some work MethodA(command); } } I mocked MyClass as PartialMock (mocks.PartialMock<MyClass>) and I setup expectation for MethodA var cmd = new Command(); //set the cmd to expected state Expect.Call(MyClass.MethodA(cmd)).Repeat.Once(); Problem is that MethodB calls actual implementation of MethodA instead of mocking it up. I must be doing something wrong (not very experienced with RhinoMocks). How do I force it to mock MetdhodA? Here is the actual code: var cmd = new SetBaseProductCoInsuranceCommand(); cmd.BaseProduct = planBaseProduct; var insuredType = mocks.DynamicMock<InsuredType>(); Expect.Call(insuredType.Code).Return(InsuredTypeCode.AllInsureds); cmd.Values.Add(new SetBaseProductCoInsuranceCommand.CoInsuranceValues() { CoInsurancePercent = 0, InsuredType = insuredType, PolicySupplierType = ppProvider }); Expect.Call(() => service.SetCoInsurancePercentages(cmd)).Repeat.Once(); mocks.ReplayAll(); //act service.DefaultCoInsurancesFor(planBaseProduct); //assert service.AssertWasCalled(x => x.SetCoInsurancePercentages(cmd),x=>x.Repeat.Once());

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  • odd nullreference error at foreach when rendering view

    - by giddy
    This error is so weird I Just can't really figure out what is really wrong! In UserController I have public virtual ActionResult Index() { var usersmdl = from u in RepositoryFactory.GetUserRepo().GetAll() select new UserViewModel { ID = u.ID, UserName = u.Username, UserGroupName = u.UserGroupMain.GroupName, BranchName = u.Branch.BranchName, Password = u.Password, Ace = u.ACE, CIF = u.CIF, PF = u.PF }; if (usersmdl != null) { return View(usersmdl.AsEnumerable()); } return View(); } My view is of type @model IEnumerable<UserViewModel> on the top. This is what happens: Where and what exactly IS null!? I create the users from a fake repository with moq. I also wrote unit tests, which pass, to ensure the right amount of mocked users are returned. Maybe someone can point me in the right direction here? Top of the stack trace is : at lambda_method(Closure , User ) at System.Linq.Enumerable.WhereSelectArrayIterator`2.MoveNext() at ASP.Index_cshtml.Execute() Is it something to do with linq here? Tell me If I should include the full stack trace.

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  • ASPX page renders differently when reached on intranet vs. internet?

    - by MattSlay
    This is so odd to me.. I have IIS 5 running on XP and it's hosting a small ASP.Net app for our LAN that we can access by using the computer name, virtual directory, and page name (http://matt/smallapp/customers.aspx), but you can also hit that IIS server and page from the internet because I have a public IP that my firewall routes to the "Matt" computer (like http://213.202.3.88/smallapp/customers.aspx [just a made-up IP]). Don't worry, I have Windows domain authentication is in place to protect the app from anonymous users. So all the abovea parts works fine. But what's weird is that the Border of the divs on the page are rendered much thicker when you access the page from the intranet, versus the internet, (I'm using IE8) and also, some of the div layout (stretching and such) acts differently. Why would it render different in the same browser based on whether it was reached from the LAN vs. the internet? It does NOT do this in FireFox. So it must be just an IE8 thing. All the CSS for the divs is right in the HTML page, so I do not think it is a caching matter of a CSS file. Notice how the borders are different in these two images: Internet: http://twitpic.com/hxx91 . Lan: http://twitpic.com/hxxtv

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  • User to kernel mode big picture?

    - by fsdfa
    I've to implement a char device, a LKM. I know some basics about OS, but I feel I don't have the big picture. In a C programm, when I call a syscall what I think it happens is that the CPU is changed to ring0, then goes to the syscall vector and jumps to a kernel memmory space function that handle it. (I think that it does int 0x80 and in eax is the offset of the syscall vector, not sure). Then, I'm in the syscall itself, but I guess that for the kernel is the same process that was before, only that it is in kernel mode, I mean the current PCB is the process that called the syscall. So far... so good?, correct me if something is wrong. Others questions... how can I write/read in process memory?. If in the syscall handler I refer to address, say, 0xbfffffff. What it means that address? physical one? Some virtual kernel one?

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  • How do I correcly handle ZoneLocalMapping.ResultType.Ambiguous?

    - by RWC
    In my code I try to handle ZoneLocalMapping.ResultType.Ambiguous. The line unambiguousLocalDateTime = localDateTimeMapping.EarlierMapping; throws an InvalidOperationException with message "EarlierMapping property should not be called on a result of type Ambiguous". I have no clue how I should handle it. Can you give me an example? This is what my code looks like: public Instant getInstant(int year, int month, int day, int hour, int minute) { var localDateTime = new LocalDateTime(year, month, day, hour, minute); //invalidated, might be not existing var timezone = DateTimeZone.ForId(TimeZoneId); //TimeZone is set elsewhere, example "Brazil/East" var localDateTimeMapping = timezone.MapLocalDateTime(localDateTime); ZonedDateTime unambiguousLocalDateTime; switch (localDateTimeMapping.Type) { case ZoneLocalMapping.ResultType.Unambiguous: unambiguousLocalDateTime = localDateTimeMapping.UnambiguousMapping; break; case ZoneLocalMapping.ResultType.Ambiguous: unambiguousLocalDateTime = localDateTimeMapping.EarlierMapping; break; case ZoneLocalMapping.ResultType.Skipped: unambiguousLocalDateTime = new ZonedDateTime(localDateTimeMapping.ZoneIntervalAfterTransition.Start, timezone); break; default: throw new InvalidOperationException(string.Format("Unexpected mapping result type: {0}", localDateTimeMapping.Type)); } return unambiguousLocalDateTime.ToInstant(); } If I look at class ZoneLocalMapping I see the following code: /// <summary> /// In an ambiguous mapping, returns the earlier of the two ZonedDateTimes which map to the original LocalDateTime. /// </summary> /// <exception cref="InvalidOperationException">The mapping isn't ambiguous.</exception> public virtual ZonedDateTime EarlierMapping { get { throw new InvalidOperationException("EarlierMapping property should not be called on a result of type " + type); } } That's why I am receiving the exception, but what should I do to get the EarlierMapping?

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  • Web API Getting Http 500 error : Issue Solved See Below

    - by Joe Grasso
    Here is my MVC Controller and everything is fine: private UnitOfWork UOW; public InventoryController() { UOW = new UnitOfWork(); } // GET: /Inventory/ public ActionResult Index() { var products = UOW.ProductRepository.GetAll().ToList(); return View(products); } Same method call in API Controller gives me an Http 500 Error: private UnitOfWork _unitOfWork; public TestController() { _unitOfWork = new UnitOfWork(); } public IEnumerable<Product> Get() { var products = _unitOfWork.ProductRepository.GetAll().ToList(); return products; } Debugging shows that indeed there is data being returned in both controllers' UOW calls. I then added a customer configuration in Global: public static void CustomizeConfig(HttpConfiguration config) { config.Formatters.Remove(config.Formatters.XmlFormatter); var json = config.Formatters.JsonFormatter; json.SerializerSettings.ContractResolver = new CamelCasePropertyNamesContractResolver(); } I am still receiving an Http 500 in API Controller ONLY and at a loss as to why. Any ideas? UPDATE: It appears using lazy loading caused the problem. When I set the associated properties to NON-VIRTUAL the Test API provided the necessary JSON string. However, whereas before I had the Vendor class included, I only have VendorId. I really wanted to included the associated classes. Any ideas? I know there are alot of smart people out there. Anyone?

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  • Attach an entity that is not new, perhaps having been loaded from another DataContext. LINQ to SQL -

    - by soldieraman
    Alright How I got this error I got one application sitting on a server 2 users accessing this application - doing some bulk data processing . eg. entering values and then the application is working with another system to extract values for them and then saving. I can't recreate the error The error logs show: The error happend at the same time in both the application Both happend on a Attach/Submit (but two different functions) There is no way they are using the same DataContext object as I save the DataContext in the HttpContext.Items My hunch / guess is: One datacontext was not refreshed i.e. the an object was created for the same item twice as it was new in both the forms. eg. Customer Number - a customer was created (as one couldn't be found) by one datacontext - the other one couldn't find it either (i am using compiled queries to find it in the datacontext) so it created another object and on attaching failed. The HttpContext.Items lost its value somehow (i am using a virtual pc as server - maybe something went wrong there) I am going more of the second as I can't recreate the error - but it just might be a timing (for attach/save) thing - also the error makes me think of the 2nd too.

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  • Moving from NHibernate to FluentNHibernate: assembly error (related to versions)?

    - by goober
    Not sure where to start, but I had gotten the most recent version of NHibernate, successfully mapped the most simple of business objects, etc. When trying to move to FluentNHibernate and do the same thing, I got this error message on build: "System.IO.FileLoadException: Could not load file or assembly 'NHibernate, Version=2.1.0.4000, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=aa95f207798dfdb4' or one of its dependencies. The located assembly's manifest definition does not match the assembly reference." Background: I'm new to Hibernate, NHibernate, and FluentNHibernate -- but not to .NET, C#, etc. Database I have a database table called Category: (PK) CategoryID (type: int), unique, auto-incrementing UserID (type: uniqueidentifier) -- given the value of the user Guid in ASP.NET database Title (type: varchar(50) -- the title of the category Components involved: I have a SessionProviderClass which creates the mapping to the database I have a Category class which has all the virtual methods for FluentNHibernate to override I have a CategoryMap : ClassMap class, which does the fluent mappings for the entity I have a CategoryRepository class that contains the method to add & save the category I have the TestCatAdd.aspx file which uses the CategoryRepository class. Would be happy to post code for any of those, but I'm not sure that it's necessary, as I think the issue is that somewhere there's a version conflict between what FluentNHibernate references and the NHibernate I have installed from before. Thanks in advance for any help you can give!

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  • C# class can not disguise to be another class because GetType method cannot be override

    - by zinking
    there is a statement in the CLR via C# saying in C#, one class cannot disguise to be another, because GetType is virutal and thus it cannot be override but I think in C# we can still hide the parent implementation of GetType. I must missed something if I hide the base GetType implementation then I can disguise my class to be another class, is that correct? The key here is not whether GetType is virutal or not, the question is can we disguise one class to be another in C# Following is the NO.4 answer from the possible duplicate, so My question is more on this. is this kind of disguise possible, if so, how can we say that we can prevent class type disguise in C# ? regardless of the GetType is virtual or not While its true that you cannot override the object.GetType() method, you can use "new" to overload it completely, thereby spoofing another known type. This is interesting, however, I haven't figured out how to create an instance of the "Type" object from scratch, so the example below pretends to be another type. public class NotAString { private string m_RealString = string.Empty; public new Type GetType() { return m_RealString.GetType(); } } After creating an instance of this, (new NotAString()).GetType(), will indeed return the type for a string. share|edit|flag answered Mar 15 at 18:39 Dr Snooze 213 By almost anything that looks at GetType has an instance of object, or at the very least some base type that they control or can reason about. If you already have an instance of the most derived type then there is no need to call GetType on it. The point is as long as someone uses GetType on an object they can be sure it's the system's implementation, not any other custom definition. – Servy Mar 15 at 18:54 add comment

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  • Call a dynamically generated method on a ILGenerator on the same type

    - by Thiado de Arruda
    Normally, when I want to call a dynamic method in another ILGenerator object that is writing a method on the same type I do the following : generator.Emit(OpCodes.Ldarg_0); // reference to the current object generator.Emit(OpCodes.Ldstr, "someArgument"); generator.Emit(OpCodes.Call, methodBuilder); //this methodbuilder is also defined on this dynamic type. However, I faced the following problem: I cant have a reference to the methodbuilder of the method I want to call, because it is generated by another framework(I only get a reference to the current TypeBuilder). This method is defined as protected virtual(and overriden on the methodbuilder I cant get a reference to) in the base class of the current dynamic type and I can get a reference to it by doing this : generator.Emit(OpCodes.Ldarg_0); // reference to the current object generator.Emit(OpCodes.Ldstr, "someArgument"); generator.Emit(OpCodes.Call, baseType.GetMethod("SomeMethodDefinedInBaseClassThatWasOverridenInThisDynamicType")); The problem is that this calls the method on the base type and not the overriden method. Is there any way I can get a reference to a methodbuilder only having a reference to the typebuilder that defined it? Or is there a way to call a method using ILGenerator without having to pass the 'MethodInfo' object to it?

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  • Visual Studio 2010 / ASP.NET MVC 2 / Publish

    - by SevenCentral
    I just did a clean install on Windows 7 x64 Professional with the final release of Visual Studio 2010 Premium. In order to duplicate what I'm experiencing do the following in: Create a new ASP.NET MVC 2 Web Application Right click the project and select Properties On the Web tab, select "Use Local IIS Web Server" Click on Create Virtual Directory Save all Unload the project Edit the project file Change MvcBuildViews to true Save all Reload project Right click the project and select Publish Choose the file system publish method Enter a target location Choose Delete all existing files Select Publish Right click the project Select Publish Each time I do the above I get the following errror: "It is an error to use a section registered as allowDefinition='MachineToApplication' beyond application level..." The error originates from obj\debug\package\packagetmp\web.config, relative to the project directory. I can repeat this all day long with any MVC 2 project I've built. In order to fix this problem, I need to set MvcBuildViews to false in the project file. That's not really an option. This wasn't a problem in Visual Studio 2008 and it seems to be an issue with the way the Publish command stages files beneath the project directory. Can anyone else duplicate this error? Is this a bug or by design? Is there a fix, workaround, etc...? Thanks.

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