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  • Find all CSS rules that apply to an element

    - by Carl Byström
    Many tools/APIs provide ways of selecting elements of specific classes or IDs. There's also possible to inspect the raw stylesheets loaded by the browser. However, for browsers to render an element, they'll compile all CSS rules (possibly from different stylesheet files) and apply it to the element. This is what you see with Firebug or the WebKit Inspector - the full CSS inheritance tree for an element. How can I reproduce this feature in pure JavaScript without requiring additional browser plugins? Perhaps an example can provide some clarification for what I'm looking for: <style type="text/css"> p { color :red; } #description { font-size: 20px; } </style> <p id="description">Lorem ipsum</p> Here the p#description element have two CSS rules applied: a red color and a font size of 20 px. I would like to find the source from where these computed CSS rules originate from (color comes the p rule and so on).

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  • Accessing Web.config directly in ASP.NET MVC 1

    - by Neil T.
    I'm trying to implement integration testing in my ASP.NET MVC 1.0 solution. The technologies in use are LINQ-to-SQL, NUnit and WatiN. I recently discovered a pattern that will allow me to create a testing version of the database on the fly without modifying the development version of the database. I needed this behavior in order to run my user interface tests in WatiN that may modify the database. The plan is to modify the connection string in the Web.config file, and pass that new connection string to the DataContext constructor. This way, I don't have to add routes or modify my URLs in order to perform the integration testing. I've set up the project so that the test setup can modify the connection string to point to the test database when the tests are running. The connection string is stored in web.config. The problem I'm having is that when I try to run the tests, I get a NullReferenceException when trying to access the HTTPContext. From everything that I have read so far, the HTTPContext is only available within the context of a controller. Here is the code for the property that is supposed to give me the reference to the Web.config file: private System.Configuration.Configuration WebConfig { get { ExeConfigurationFileMap fileMap = new ExeConfigurationFileMap(); // NullReferenceException occurs on this line. fileMap.ExeConfigFilename = HttpContext.Current.Server.MapPath("~\\web.config"); System.Configuration.Configuration config = ConfigurationManager.OpenMappedExeConfiguration(fileMap, ConfigurationUserLevel.None); return config; } } Is there something that I am missing in order to make this work? Is there a better way to accomplish what I'm trying to achieve?

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  • Users Hierarchy Logic

    - by user342944
    Hi guys, I am writing a user security module using SQLServer 2008 so threfore need to design a database accordingly. Formally I had Userinfo table with UserID, Username and ParentID to build a recursion and populated tree to represent hierarchy but now I have following criteria which I need to develop. I have now USERS, ADMINISTRATORS and GROUPS. Each node in the user hierarchy is either a user, administrator or group. User Someone who has login access to my application Administrator A user who may also manage all their child user accounts (and their children etc) This may include creating new users and assigning permissions to those users. There is no limit to the number of administrators in user structure. The higher up in the hierarchy that I go administrators have more child accounts to manage which include other child administrators. Group A user account can be designated as a group. This will be an account which is used to group one or more users together so that they can be manage as a unit. But no one can login to my application using a group account. This is how I want to create structure Super Administrator administrator ------------------------------------------------------------- | | | Manager A Manager B Manager C (adminstrator) (administrator) (administrator) | ----------------------------------------- | | | Employee A Employee B Sales Employees (User) (User) (Group) | ------------------------ | | | Emp C Emp D Emp E (User) (User) (User) Now how to build the table structure to achieve this. Do I need to create Users table alongwith Group table or what? Please guide I would really appreciate.

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  • Component based web project directory layout with git and symlinks

    - by karlthorwald
    I am planning my directory structure for a linux/apache/php web project like this: Only www.example.com/webroot/ will be exposed in apache www.example.com/ webroot/ index.php comp1/ comp2/ component/ comp1/ comp1.class.php comp1.js comp2/ comp2.class.php comp2.css lib/ lib1/ lib1.class.php the component/ and lib/ directory will only be in the php path. To make the css and js files visible in the webroot directory I am planning to use symlinks. webroot/ index.php comp1/ comp1.js (symlinked) comp2/ comp2.css (symlinked) I tried following these principles: layout by components and libraries, not by file type and not by "public' or 'non public', index.php is an exception. This is for easier development. symlinking files that need to be public for the components and libs to a public location, but still mirroring the layout. So the component and library structure is also visible in the resulting html code in the links, which might help development. git usage should be safe and always work. it would be ok to follow some procedure to add a symlink to git, but after that checking them out or changing branches should be handled safely and clean How will git handle the symlinking of the single files correctly, is there something to consider? When it comes to images I will need to link directories, how to handle that with git? component/ comp3/ comp3.class.php img/ img1.jpg img2.jpg img3.jpg They should be linked here: webroot/ comp3/ img/ (symlinked ?) If using symlinks for that has disadvantages maybe I could move images to the webroot/ tree directly, which would break the first principle for the third (git practicability). So this is a git and symlink question. But I would be interested to hear comments about the php layout, maybe you want to use the comment function for this.

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  • How can I diff against a revision of a single file using only the default Git GUI tools?

    - by Rich
    I want to view the history of a single file, and then compare a single revision from that history against the current version. On the command line, this is easy: Run: git log -- <filename> Locate the version you want to compare, Run: git diff <commitid> -- <filename> But how can this be done using only the default Git gui tools, git gui and gitk? I know of two methods using gitk, but they're both horribly clunky: Either: Select the New View option from the View menu, Type in the full path to your file into the box labelled Enter files and directories to include, one per line, Locate the version you want to compare by looking at the highlighted items in the top pane, and click on it to select it, Right-click on the current version and select Diff selected - this, Or: Select Tree in the bottom right-hand pane, Locate the file you want to look at, right-click on it, and select Highlight this only, Locate the version you want to compare by looking at the highlighted items in the top pane, and click on it to select it, Right-click on the current version and select Diff selected - this, Click on the file in the bottom right-hand pane to jump to it in the diff output, or scroll manually. Is a better method than this?

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  • Python and the self parameter

    - by Svend
    I'm having some issues with the self parameter, and some seemingly inconsistent behavior in Python is annoying me, so I figure I better ask some people in the know. I have a class, Foo. This class will have a bunch of methods, m1, through mN. For some of these, I will use a standard definition, like in the case of m1 below. But for others, it's more convinient to just assign the method name directly, like I've done with m2 and m3. import os def myfun(x, y): return x + y class Foo(): def m1(self, y, z): return y + z + 42 m2 = os.access m3 = myfun f = Foo() print f.m1(1, 2) print f.m2("/", os.R_OK) print f.m3(3, 4) Now, I know that os.access does not take a self parameter (seemingly). And it still has no issues with this type of assignment. However, I cannot do the same for my own modules (imagine myfun defined off in mymodule.myfun). Running the above code yields the following output: 3 True Traceback (most recent call last): File "foo.py", line 16, in <module> print f.m3(3, 4) TypeError: myfun() takes exactly 2 arguments (3 given) The problem is that, due to the framework I work in, I cannot avoid having a class Foo at least. But I'd like to avoid having my mymodule stuff in a dummy class. In order to do this, I need to do something ala def m3(self,a1, a2): return mymodule.myfun(a1,a2) Which is hugely redundant when you have like 20 of them. So, the question is, either how do I do this in a totally different and obviously much smarter way, or how can I make my own modules behave like the built-in ones, so it does not complain about receiving 1 argument too many.

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  • JDialog setResizable(false) is not working in Window Title Bar Menu

    - by jolonaleur
    JDialog setResizable(false) is not working in Window Title Bar Menu Windows XP SP2 Java JRE 1.6.0_11-b03 Behavior varies. Sometimes, the Maximize and Minimize item on the window menu is disabled and sometimes enabled. Steps to reproduce enabled Maximize and Minimize button: Show the JDialog with setResizable(false) Open another window, say for example Notepad. Right-click on the window title bar of Notepad and click Maximize. Go to your JDialog and right click on the window title bar. Maximize window is enabled. Likewise, to disable the Maximize item for the JDialog, go to the maximized Notepad window and right click on title bar. Maximize item is disabled in the Notepad window. Go the your JDialog and right click on the title bar, notice that the Maximize item is also disabled. Note that my application can not use the defaultLookAndFeel method of java dialogs. The bug report related to this was for Solaris OS but that was already ages ago. bug report Is there any workaround? Thanks.

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  • Boost Asio UDP retrieve last packet in socket buffer

    - by Alberto Toglia
    I have been messing around Boost Asio for some days now but I got stuck with this weird behavior. Please let me explain. Computer A is sending continuos udp packets every 500 ms to computer B, computer B desires to read A's packets with it own velocity but only wants A's last packet, obviously the most updated one. It has come to my attention that when I do a: mSocket.receive_from(boost::asio::buffer(mBuffer), mEndPoint); I can get OLD packets that were not processed (almost everytime). Does this make any sense? A friend of mine told me that sockets maintain a buffer of packets and therefore If I read with a lower frequency than the sender this could happen. ¡? So, the first question is how is it possible to receive the last packet and discard the ones I missed? Later I tried using the async example of the Boost documentation but found it did not do what I wanted. http://www.boost.org/doc/libs/1_36_0/doc/html/boost_asio/tutorial/tutdaytime6.html From what I could tell the async_receive_from should call the method "handle_receive" when a packet arrives, and that works for the first packet after the service was "run". If I wanted to keep listening the port I should call the async_receive_from again in the handle code. right? BUT what I found is that I start an infinite loop, it doesn't wait till the next packet, it just enters "handle_receive" again and again. I'm not doing a server application, a lot of things are going on (its a game), so my second question is, do I have to use threads to use the async receive method properly, is there some example with threads and async receive? Thanks for you attention.

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  • Performance difference in for loop condition?

    - by CSharperWithJava
    Hello all, I have a simple question that I am posing mostly for my curiousity. What are the differences between these two lines of code? (in C++) for(int i = 0; i < N, N > 0; i++) for(int i = 0; i < N && N > 0; i++) The selection of the conditions is completely arbitrary, I'm just interested in the differences between , and &&. I'm not a beginner to coding by any means, but I've never bothered with the comma operator. Are there performance/behavior differences or is it purely aesthetic? One last note, I know there are bigger performance fish to fry than a conditional operator, but I'm just curious. Indulge me. Edit Thanks for your answers. It turns out the code that prompted this question had misused the comma operator in the way I've described. I wondered what the difference was and why it wasn't a && operator, but it was just written incorrectly. I didn't think anything was wrong with it because it worked just fine. Thanks for straightening me out.

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  • How to use boost::transform_iterator to iterate over modifed std::map values?

    - by Frank
    I have an std::map, and I would like to define an iterator that returns modified values. Typically, a std::map<int,double>::iterator iterates over std::pair<int,double>, and I would like the same behavior, just the double value is multiplied by a constant. I tried it with boost::transform_iterator, but it doesn't compile: #include <map> #include <boost/iterator/transform_iterator.hpp> #include <boost/functional.hpp> typedef std::map<int,double> Map; Map m; m[100] = 2.24; typedef boost::binder2nd< std::multiplies<double> > Function; typedef boost::transform_iterator<Function, Map::value_type*> MultiplyIter; MultiplyIter begin = boost::make_transform_iterator(m.begin(), Function(std::multiplies<double>(), 4)); // now want to similarly create an end iterator // and then iterate over the modified map The error is: error: conversion from 'boost ::transform_iterator< boost::binder2nd<multiplies<double> >, gen_map<int, double>::iterator , boost::use_default, boost::use_default >' to non-scalar type 'boost::transform_iterator< boost::binder2nd<multiplies<double> >, pair<const int, double> * , boost::use_default, boost::use_default >' requested What is gen_map and do I really need it? I adapted the transform_iterator tutorial code from here to write this code ...

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  • Handling Application Logic in Multiple AsyncTask onPostExecute()s

    - by stormin986
    I have three simultaneous instances of an AsyncTask for download three files. When two particular ones finish, at the end of onPostExecute() I check a flag set by each, and if both are true, I call startActivity() for the next Activity. I am currently seeing the activity called twice, or something that resembles this type of behavior. Since the screen does that 'swipe left' kind of transition to the next activity, it sometimes does it twice (and when I hit back, it goes back to the same activity). It's obvious two versions of the activity that SHOULD only get called once are being put on the Activity stack. The only way I can find that this is possible is if both AsyncTasks' onPostExecute() executed SO simultaneously that they were virtually running the same lines at the same time, since I set the 'itemXdownloaded' flag to true right before I check for both and call startActivity(). But this is happening enough that it's very hard for me to believe that both downloads are finishing precisely at the same time and having their onPostExecute()s so close together... Any thoughts on what could be going on here? General gist of code (details removed, ignore any syntactical errors I may have edited in): // In onPostExecute() switch (downloadID) { case DL1: dl1complete = true; break; case DL2: dl2complete = true; break; case DL3: dl3complete = true; break; } // If 1 and 2 are done, move on (DL3 still going in background) if ( downloadID != DL3 && dl1complete && dl2complete) { ParentClass.this.startActivity(new Intent(ParentClass.this, NextActivity.class)); }

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  • Choosing a W3C valid DOCTYPE and charset combination?

    - by George Carter
    I have a homepage with the following: <DOCTYPE html> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8"> My choice of the DOCTYPE "html" is based on a recommendation for html pages using jQuery. My choice of charset=utf=8 is based on a recommendation to make my pages readable on most browsers. But these choices may be wrong. When I run this page thru the W3C HTML validator, I get messages you see below. Any way I can eliminate the 2 errors? ! Using experimental feature: HTML5 Conformance Checker. The validator checked your document with an experimental feature: HTML5 Conformance Checker. This feature has been made available for your convenience, but be aware that it may be unreliable, or not perfectly up to date with the latest development of some cutting-edge technologies. If you find any issue with this feature, please report them. Thank you. Validation Output: 2 Errors 1. Error Line 18, Column 70: Changing character encoding utf-8 and reparsing. …ntent-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8"> 2. Error Line 18, Column 70: Changing encoding at this point would need non-streamable behavior. …ntent-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8">

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  • How to prevent chrome from injecting content to webpage

    - by Nazariy
    Recently I have discovered that my application is misbehaving in Google Chrome. On a page with a form, after it was submitted, my application reloads page using simple method like this: header('Location: ' . $url); after that, page is rendered incorrectly and this content is injected to DOM <div id="sbi_camera_button" class="sbi_search" style="left: 0px; top: 0px; position: absolute; width: 29px; height: 27px; border: none; margin: 0px; padding: 0px; z-index: 2147483647; display: none; "></div> After manual page refresh everything works as expected. I'm not sure what causing this behavior, as I'm working in closed local environment and application works fine in Firefox. My application using following libraries (hosted locally): jQuery v1.7.1 jQuery UI 1.8.16 Bootstrap.js v 2.1.1 Can someone suggest me what can possibly cause this issue?

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  • Flash SWF not initializing until visible - can I force them to initialize?

    - by Jason
    I have an application that needs to render about 100 flash graphs (as well as other DOM stuff) in a series of rows that vertically extend many times beyond the current visible window - in other words, the users have to scroll down see see all the different graphs. This application is also dynamic and when a user changes a value in the DOM (anywhere on the page) it will need to propagate that change to all the Flash graphs at the same time. So I setup all the externalInterface callbacks and was careful to not let any JS start going until the ever-so-important "flashIsReady" call and...it worked great until I tried to update() the existing swf's with new data. Here was the behavior: - All the swfs load (initially) in both IE/Fox = good. - Updating swfs with new content works in IE but not in Fox = not good - Updating swfs with new content works in Fox --ONLY IF-- I scrolled down to the bottom of the page, then back to the top -- BEFORE -- I triggered an update(). So then I started tracing out each time a swf called the JS to say "flash is ready" and I realized, Firfox only renders swfs as they become visible. And To be honest - that's fine and actually, I am pretty sure that IE does this too. But the problem is that not only does Firefox not initialize the swf, Firefox doesn't even acknowledge the swf exists (expect for after onload) if it has not yet been visible. And the proof is that you get JS errors saying: "[FlashDOMID].FlashMethod is not a function". However, scroll down a little, wait until its visible and suddenly the trace starts lighting up "Flash Ready", "Flash Ready", "Flash Ready" and once they are all ready, everything works fine. Someone told me that FF does not init swf's until visible - can I force it? I can post code if you need...but its pretty heavy (hard to strip out the relevant from the rest) and I would like to avoid it (for your sakes) if possible. The question is simple - have you had this happen and if so, did you find a solution? Does anyone now how to force a not-yet-visible swf to initialize? Thanks guys.

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  • FileReference.browse() stops playback on some Flash Players

    - by Christophe Herreman
    We have an issue were the server session associated with a Flex client times out when the browse file dialog is open for a time longer then the configured session timeout. It seems that on some players, the playback is stopped when browse or download on a FileReference is executing. This also causes remote calls to be blocked and hence our manual keep-alive messages are not sent to the server, resulting in a session timeout. I searched for some info on this in the docs and found a notice of it, but it does not explicitly list the players it does (not) work. Would anyone know were I could find a complete list? PS: here are the links that mention this behavior: http://livedocs.adobe.com/flex/3/html/help.html?content=17_Networking_and_communications_7.html While calls to the FileReference.browse(), FileReferenceList.browse(), or FileReference.download() method are executing, most players will continue SWF file playback. http://livedocs.adobe.com/flex/3/langref/flash/net/FileReference.html While calls to the FileReference.browse(), FileReferenceList.browse(), or FileReference.download() methods are executing, SWF file playback pauses in stand-alone and external versions of Flash Player and in AIR for Linux and Mac OS X 10.1 and earlier Anyone knows what is meant with an "external Flash Player"? PPS: we tested this on Linux (10.0.x and 10.1.x) in Firefox where it seems to stop playback and on Windows (10.0.x) in IE where playback seems to continue.

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  • Can a Generic Method handle both Reference and Nullable Value types?

    - by Adam Lassek
    I have a series of Extension methods to help with null-checking on IDataRecord objects, which I'm currently implementing like this: public static int? GetNullableInt32(this IDataRecord dr, int ordinal) { int? nullInt = null; return dr.IsDBNull(ordinal) ? nullInt : dr.GetInt32(ordinal); } public static int? GetNullableInt32(this IDataRecord dr, string fieldname) { int ordinal = dr.GetOrdinal(fieldname); return dr.GetNullableInt32(ordinal); } and so on, for each type I need to deal with. I'd like to reimplement these as a generic method, partly to reduce redundancy and partly to learn how to write generic methods in general. I've written this: public static Nullable<T> GetNullable<T>(this IDataRecord dr, int ordinal) { Nullable<T> nullValue = null; return dr.IsDBNull(ordinal) ? nullValue : (Nullable<T>) dr.GetValue(ordinal); } which works as long as T is a value type, but if T is a reference type it won't. This method would need to return either a Nullable type if T is a value type, and default(T) otherwise. How would I implement this behavior?

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  • "Access is denied" by executing .hta file with JScript on Windows XP x64

    - by mem64k
    I have a simple HTML (as HTA) application that shows strange behavior on Windows XP x64 machine. I getting periodically (not every time) error message "Access is denied." when i start the application. The same application on Windows XP 32bit runs just fine... Does somebody has any idea or explanation? Error message: Line: 18 Char: 6 Error: Access is denied. Code: 0 URL: file:///D:/test_j.hta Here is the code of my "test_j.hta": <html> <head> <title>Test J</title> <HTA:APPLICATION ID="objTestJ" APPLICATIONNAME="TestJ" SCROLL="no" SINGLEINSTANCE="yes" WINDOWSTATE="normal" > <script language="JScript"> function main() { //window.alert("test"); window.resizeTo(500, 300); } function OnExit() { window.close(); } </script> </head> <body onload="main()"> <input type="button" value="Exit" name="Exit" onClick="OnExit()" title="Exit"> </body> </html>

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  • How to implement an ID field on a POCO representing an Identity field in SQL Server?

    - by Dr. Zim
    If I have a Domain Model that has an ID that maps to a SQL Server identity column, what does the POCO look like that contains that field? Candidate 1: Allows anyone to set and get the ID. I don't think we want anyone setting the ID except the Repository, from the SQL table. public class Thing { public int ID {get;set;} } Candidate 2: Allows someone to set the ID upon creation, but we won't know the ID until after we create the object (factory creates a blank Thing object where ID = 0 until we persist it). How would we set the ID after persisting? public class Thing { public Thing () : This (ID: 0) {} public Thing (int ID) { this.ID = ID } private int _ID; public int ID { get { return this.ID;}; } Candidate 3: Methods to set ID? Somehow we would need to allow the Repository to set the ID without allowing the consumer to change it. Any ideas? Is this barking up the wrong tree? Do we send the object to the Repository, save it, throw it away, then create a new object from the loaded version and return that as a new object?

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  • MS Office Excel Ribbon - Cannot change/hide Editing group in Home tab

    - by A9S6
    I have a .net addin for Excel. The addin creates the Ribbon UI for Excel 2007 and re-purposes some existing commands such as Cut, Copy, Paste, Sort etc. For Cut, Copy and Paste I am just overriding their OnAction value to call my own procedure when the buttons are clicked. But for Sort, Sort Asc and Sort Desc commands the case is a little different. When either of the Sort, Sort Asc or Sort Desc buttons are clicked, I want to get notified and then call the default functionality. This was possible in Excel 2003 commandsbars by calling the Execute() method on the CommandBarControl. In Excel 2007, there is a ExecuteMso() method to programmatically click a ribbon element but when the OnAction is overridden, this ExecuteMso() method just executes my own procedure and not the default functionality of that button. So I thought that I will HIDE the Sort buttons in the "Editing" group in Home tab and add my own Sort, Sort Asc and Sort Desc buttons to it. The buttons will call into my procedure first from where I will call the default behavior. Now the problem is that I am unable to change/hide the Editing group (idMso="GroupEditing"). Is this built-in group not editable? I can however HIDE the Clipboard and other groups(but can't add buttons to them). <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8" standalone="yes"?> <customUI xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/office/2006/01/customui"> <ribbon> <tabs> <tab idMso="TabHome"> <group idMso="GroupEditing" visible="false" /> </tab> </tabs> </ribbon> </customUI>

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  • [Adobe Air] Can I catch a mouseUp event of an mx:Window that did not fire hte mouseDown?

    - by Irene
    Hi, In an AIR application, I have one mx:TileList with several images. What I need to do is let the user drag and drop one of the images on the desktop, giving a feeling of a desktop widget. Firstly I tried to implement this using dragStart etc, but in the end I think it is easier to handle mouseDown and mouseUp on the TileList. In general the whole setup works as desired. When a mouseDown is detected on the TileList, I create a transparent mx:Window containing the corresponding image, and call the startMove() on the Window to simulate a dragging behavior. If I release the mouse, the Window stops moving as desired. My problem is that now I want some visual feedback during dragging. It works while the Window is moving, however I can't find a way to stop it when the user releases the mouse. The mouseUp is not fired from the TileList, nor from the s:WindowedApplication. I also tried to add a listener to the Window itself, but still with no luck. Some code: private function onMouseDown(e:MouseEvent):void { trace ("down " + e.target); if (e.target is TileListItemRenderer) { // first create a dragWindow dragWindow.startGlow(); // then show some visual feedback dragWindow.moveWindow(e); // and start dragging } } private function onMouseUp(e:MouseEvent):void { trace("up " + e.target); dragWindow.stopGlow(); // <--------- Not called! } <mx:TileList id="photoTileList" mouseDown="onMouseDown(event)" mouseUp="onMouseUp(event)">

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  • Spring bean initialization in a web app

    - by EugeneP
    We work with a web application and autowire beans using WebApplicationContextUtils in the init method. Could you clarify some details about bean initialization? The question rises from the static factory method. Suppose there's a bean that is created in a static factory method. As we can see, when the web app is deployed, the ContextLoaderListener initializes all the beans present in Spring xml config file. Now happens such a thing. In the static factory method we run a timer that starts ticking. But in reality we wouldn't want it to start ticking unless the bean is injected into a property of the object ! That is question number one - all the beans are automatically initialized on deploy - correct? And after that when we need an injection, it simply feels the link with the address of the object created during initialization, though OBJECT WAS CREATED ON WEB APP DEPLOY, immediately ! (I assume the default singleton-creation Spring behavior) Second question: are all copies of a web app use the same beans, so all beans are WEB-APP wide, every Spring bean is shared between all the copies of this web app running?

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  • URLLoader.load() issue when using the same URLRequest

    - by Rudy
    Hello, I have an issue with my eventListeners with the URLLoader, but this issue happens in IE, not in FF. public function getUploadURL():void { var request:URLRequest = new URLRequest(); request.url = getPath(); request.method = URLRequestMethod.GET; _loader = new URLLoader(); _loader.dataFormat = URLLoaderDataFormat.TEXT; _loader.addEventListener(Event.COMPLETE, getBaseURL); _loader.load(request); } private function getBaseURL(event:Event):void { _loader.removeEventListener(Event.COMPLETE, getBaseURL); } The issue is that my getBaseURL gets executed automatically after I have executed the code at least once, but that is the case only in IE. What happens is I call my getUploadURL, I make sure the server sends an event that will result in an Event.COMPLETE, so the getBaseURL gets executed, and the listener is removed. If I call the getUploadURL method and put the wrong path, I do not get an Event.COMPLETE but some other event, and getBaseURL should not be executed. That is the correct behavior in FireFox. In IE, it looks like the load() method does not actually call the server, it jumps directly to the getBaseURL() for the Event.COMPLETE. I checked the willTrigger() and hasEventListener() on _loader before assigning the new URLLoader, and it turns out the event has been well removed. I hope I make sense, I simplified my code. To sum up quickly: in FireFox it works well, but in IE, the first call will work but the second call won't really call the .load() method; it seems it uses the previously stored result from the first call. I hope someone can please help me, Thank you, Rudy

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  • LINQ Joins - Performance

    - by Meiscooldude
    I am curious on how exactly LINQ (not LINQ to SQL) is performing is joins behind the scenes in relation to how Sql Server performs joins. Sql Server before executing a query, generates an Execution Plan. The Execution Plan is basically an Expression Tree on what it believes is the best way to execute the query. Each node provides information on whether to do a Sort, Scan, Select, Join, ect. On a 'Join' node in our execution plan, we can see three possible algorithms; Hash Join, Merge Join, and Nested Loops Join. Sql Server will choose which algorithm to for each Join operation based on expected number of rows in Inner and Outer tables, what type of join we are doing (some algorithms don't support all types of joins), whether we need data ordered, and probably many other factors. Join Algorithms: Nested Loop Join: Best for small inputs, can be optimized with ordered inner table. Merge Join: Best for medium to large inputs sorted inputs, or an output that needs to be ordered. Hash Join: Best for medium to large inputs, can be parallelized to scale linearly. LINQ Query: DataTable firstTable, secondTable; ... var rows = from firstRow in firstTable.AsEnumerable () join secondRow in secondTable.AsEnumerable () on firstRow.Field<object> (randomObject.Property) equals secondRow.Field<object> (randomObject.Property) select new {firstRow, secondRow}; SQL Query: SELECT * FROM firstTable fT INNER JOIN secondTable sT ON fT.Property = sT.Property Sql Server might use a Nested Loop Join if it knows there are a small number of rows from each table, a merge join if it knows one of the tables has an index, and Hash join if it knows there are a lot of rows on either table and neither has an index. Does Linq choose its algorithm for joins? or does it always use one?

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  • How to sort a list so that managers are always ahead of their subordinates (How do I do a topologica

    - by James Black
    I am working on a project using Groovy, and I would like to take an array of employees, so that no manager follows their subordinates in the array. The reason being that I need to add people to a database and I would prefer not to do it in two passes. So, I basically have: <employees> <employee> <employeeid>12</employeeid> <manager>3</manager> </employee> <employee> <employeeid>1</employeeid> <manager></manager> </employee> <employee> <employeeid>3</employeeid> <manager>1</manager> </employee> </employees> So, it should be sorted as such: employeeid = 1 employeeid = 3 employeeid = 12 The first person should have a null for managers. I am thinking about a binary tree representation, but I expect it will be very unbalanced, and I am not certain the best way to do this using Groovy properly. Is there a way to do this that isn't going to involve using nested loops?

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  • URL equals and checking Internet access

    - by James P.
    On http://java.sun.com/j2se/1.5.0/docs/api/java/net/URL.html it states that: Compares this URL for equality with another object. If the given object is not a URL then this method immediately returns false. Two URL objects are equal if they have the same protocol, reference equivalent hosts, have the same port number on the host, and the same file and fragment of the file. Two hosts are considered equivalent if both host names can be resolved into the same IP addresses; else if either host name can't be resolved, the host names must be equal without regard to case; or both host names equal to null. Since hosts comparison requires name resolution, this operation is a blocking operation. Note: The defined behavior for equals is known to be inconsistent with virtual hosting in HTTP. According to this, equals will only work if name resolution is possible. Since I can't be sure that a computer has internet access at a given time, should I just use Strings to store addresses instead? Also, how do I go about testing if access is available when requested?

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