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  • How do I execute queries upon DB connection in Rails?

    - by sycobuny
    I have certain initializing functions that I use to set up audit logging on the DB server side (ie, not rails) in PostgreSQL. At least one has to be issued (setting the current user) before inserting data into or updating any of the audited tables, or else the whole query will fail spectacularly. I can easily call these every time before running any save operation in the code, but DRY makes me think I should have the code repeated in as few places as possible, particularly since this diverges greatly from the ideal of database agnosticism. Currently I'm attempting to override ActiveRecord::Base.establish_connection in an initializer to set it up so that the queries are run as soon as I connect automatically, but it doesn't behave as I expect it to. Here is the code in the initializer: class ActiveRecord::Base # extend the class methods, not the instance methods class << self alias :old_establish_connection :establish_connection # hide the default def establish_connection(*args) ret = old_establish_connection(*args) # call the default # set up necessary session variables for audit logging # call these after calling default, to make sure conn is established 1st db = self.class.connection db.execute("SELECT SV.set('current_user', 'test@localhost')") db.execute("SELECT SV.set('audit_notes', NULL)") # end "empty variable" err ret # return the default's original value end end end puts "Loaded custom establish_connection into ActiveRecord::Base" sycobuny:~/rails$ ruby script/server = Booting WEBrick = Rails 2.3.5 application starting on http://0.0.0.0:3000 Loaded custom establish_connection into ActiveRecord::Base This doesn't give me any errors, and unfortunately I can't check what the method looks like internally (I was using ActiveRecord::Base.method(:establish_connection), but apparently that creates a new Method object each time it's called, which is seemingly worthless cause I can't check object_id for any worthwhile information and I also can't reverse the compilation). However, the code never seems to get called, because any attempt to run a save or an update on a database object fails as I predicted earlier. If this isn't a proper way to execute code immediately on connection to the database, then what is?

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  • Difference between MVC FilterAttribute and Filter

    - by zaaaaphod
    I'm trying to write my own custom AuthorizationAttribute that uses DI. I'm using the MUNQ IoC provider for it's speed and have decided to use constructor injection on all my classes as opposed to post instatiation property binding (because I prefer it). I'm trying to write a custom IFilterProvider that will use my IoC container to return requests for filters (so that I can map concrete classes using the container). I've come up with the following. public class FilterProvider : IFilterProvider { private readonly IocContainer _container; public FilterProvider(IocContainer container) { _container = container; } public IEnumerable<Filter> GetFilters(ControllerContext controllerContext, ActionDescriptor actionDescriptor) { var x = Enumerable.Union<Object>(_container.ResolveAll<IActionFilter>(), _container.ResolveAll<IAuthorizationFilter>()); foreach (Filter actionFilter in x) yield return new Filter(actionFilter, FilterScope.First, null); } } The above code will fail during the foreach because my objects that implement IAuthorizationFilter are based on FilterAttribute and not Filter My question is, what is the difference between Filter and FilterAttribute? I would have thought that there would have been a common link between them, unless I'm missing something. Another deeper question is, how come there is no IFilterAttributeProvider that would support IEnumerable GetFilters(...) Is there some other way that I should be using to resolve IAuthorizationFilter via my IoC container? Thank you very much for your help. Z

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  • Clear listview content?

    - by Slash
    I have a little problem with listview. How do i clear a listview content, knowing that it has a custom adapter? edit : the custom adapter class extends BaseAdapter, it looks like this : import android.app.Activity; import android.content.Context; import android.view.LayoutInflater; import android.view.View; import android.view.ViewGroup; import android.widget.BaseAdapter; import android.widget.TextView; public class MyAdapter extends BaseAdapter { private Activity activity; private String[] data; private static LayoutInflater inflater=null; public MyAdapter(Activity _a, String[] _str) { activity = _a; data = _str; inflater = (LayoutInflater)activity.getSystemService(Context.LAYOUT_INFLATER_SERVICE); } public static class ViewHolder{ public TextView text; } @Override public int getCount() { return data.length; } @Override public Object getItem(int position) { return position; } @Override public long getItemId(int position) { return position; } @Override public View getView(int position, View view, ViewGroup parent) { View v = view; ViewHolder holder; if(v == null) { v = inflater.inflate(R.layout.rowa, null); holder=new ViewHolder(); holder.text=(TextView)v.findViewById(R.id.dexter); v.setTag(holder); }else{ holder=(ViewHolder)v.getTag(); } holder.text.setText(data[position]); return v; } }

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  • ERB doesnt get executed in javascript scripts

    - by Stefano
    Hi guys I have a select input on my page. this select input displays/hides fields in the form. This all works fine. But the problem is that if i submit the form and lack some necessary fields, it doesnt set the select to the right value afterwards. I just cant get the embedded ruby to work! it keeps escaping the whole thing... here my code: $(document).ready(function() { $("#profile_sex").val('<%= @profile.sex %>') $("#profile_sex").change(function(){ ($(this).val() == "Frau") ? $('#form-female').show() : $('#form-female').hide(); ($(this).val() == "Mann") ? $('#form-male').show() : $('#form-male').hide(); if ($(this).val() == "Paar") { $('#form-female').show(); $('#form-male').show(); } }); }); why doesnt this work??? I dont get any error or anything it just sets the value to "<%= @profile.sex =" I was googling and searching about on stack overflow and railscasts, the rails API, everything. Im seriously confused... thanks for your help.

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  • Inline form editing on client side

    - by bykasif
    I see some web sites use dynamic forms(I am not sure about how to call them!) to edit a group of data. For example: there is a group of data such as name, last name, city, country.etc. when user clicks on EDIT button, instead of doing postback, a form, consisisting of 2 textboxes + 2 comboboxes, dynamically opens to edit,And then when you click on Save button, edit form disappears, and all data updates.. Now, I know what happens over here is using Ajax for server calls and some javascript for dom manipulation.. I even found some jquery plugins for textbox editing.. However, I could not found anything for full implementation of form fields. Therefore I have implemented it on asp.net by jquery ajax calls and dom manipulation manually. here is my process: 1) when Edit button clicked: Make a ajax call to server to retrieve necessary formedit.aspx 2) it returns editable form fields with values assigned. 3) when Save button clicked: make ajax call to server to retrieve formupdateprocess.aspx page. it basically do the database updates and then return necessary DOM snipplet (...) to insert current page.. well it works but MY PROBLEM, is performance.. Result seems slower than samples I see in other sites.:(( IS there anything that I dont know? a better way to implement this??

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  • Using an embedded DB (SQLite / SQL Compact) for Message Passing within an app?

    - by wk1989
    Hello, Just out of curiosity, for applications that have a fairly complicated module tree, would something like sqlite/sql compact edition work well for message passing? So if I have modules containing data such as: \SubsystemA\SubSubSysB\ModuleB\ModuleDataC, \SubSystemB\SubSubSystemC\ModuleA\ModuleDataX Using traditional message passing/routing, you have to go through intermediate modules in order to pass a message to ModuleB to request say ModuleDataC. Instead of doing that, if we we simply store "\SubsystemA\SubSubSysB\ModuleB\ModuleDataC" in a sqlite database, getting that data is as simple as a sql query and needs no routing and passing stuff around. Has anyone done this before? Even if you haven't, do you foresee any issues & performance impact? The only concern I have right now would be the passing of custom types, e.g. if ModuleDataC is a custom data structure or a pointer, I'll need some way of storing the data structure into the DB or storing the pointer into the DB. Thanks, JW EDIT One usage case I haven't thought about is when you want to send a message from ModuleA to ModuleB to get ModuleB to do something rather than just getting/setting data. Is it possible to do this using an embedded DB? I believe callback from the DB would be needed, how feasible is this?

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  • objective C underscore property vs self

    - by user1216838
    I'm was playing around with the standard sample split view that gets created when you select a split view application in Xcode, and after adding a few fields i needed to add a few fields to display them in the detail view. and something interesting happend in the original sample, the master view sets a "detailItem" property in the detail view and the detail view displays it. - (void)setDetailItem:(id) newDetailItem { if (_detailItem != newDetailItem) { _detailItem = newDetailItem; // Update the view. [self configureView]; } i understand what that does and all, so while i was playing around with it. i thought it would be the same if instead of _detailItem i used self.detailItem, since it's a property of the class. however, when i used self.detailItem != newDetailItem i actually got stuck in a loop where this method is constantly called and i cant do anything else in the simulator. my question is, whats the actual difference between the underscore variables(ivar?) and the properties? i read some posts here it seems to be just some objective C convention, but it actually made some difference.

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  • Trying to edit an entity with data from dropdowns in MVC...

    - by user598352
    Hello! I'm having trouble getting my head around sending multiple models to a view in mvc. My problem is the following. Using EF4 I have a table with attributes organised by category. Couldn't post an image :-( [Have a table called attributes (AttributeTitle, AttributeName, CategoryID) connected to a table called Category (CategoryTitle).] What I want to do is be able to edit an attribute entity and have a dropdown of categories to choose from. I tried to make a custom viewmodel public class AttributeViewModel { public AttributeViewModel() { } public Attribute Attribute { get; set; } public IQueryable<Category> AllCategories { get; set; } } But it just ended up being a mess. <div class="editor-field"> <%: Html.DropDownList("Category", new SelectList((IEnumerable)Model.AllCategories, "CategoryID", "CategoryName")) %> </div> I was getting it back to the controller... [HttpPost] public ActionResult Edit(int AttributeID, FormCollection formcollection) { var _attribute = ProfileDB.GetAttribute(AttributeID); int _selcategory = Convert.ToInt32(formcollection["Category"]); _attribute.CategoryID = (int)_selcategory; try { UpdateModel(_attribute); (<---Error here) ProfileDB.SaveChanges(); return RedirectToAction("Index"); } catch (Exception e) { return View(_attribute); } } I've debugged the code and my _attribute looks correct and _attribute.CategoryID = (int)_selcategory updates the model, but then I get the error. Somewhere here I thought that there should be a cleaner way to do this, and that if I could only send two models to the view instead of having to make a custom viewmodel. To sum it up: I want to edit my attribute and have a dropdown of all of the available categories. Any help much appreciated!

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  • WCF publish/subscribe service, and ASP.NET MVC client

    - by d3j4vu
    I managed to develop a custom WCF service, using the publish / subscribe model, and hosted inside a managed windows service. Everything's working. I developed an interface as the service contract implementing a method definition marked as a non-one way operation contract (OperationContract(IsOneWay = false)]. This, to make possible returns an instance of a custom class derived from System.Web.Mvc.ActionResult. In the MVC app, event fires ok. It wraps inside an action method, (just the one defined in the interface), but, and this is my current problem, i believe that something relative to the execution context of the windows service (and the hosted wcf counterpart) blocks the execution of the action method in the MVC app. This is what i have until now (some pieces ripped off just to be more clear): /// Method definition for the contract's service. Maps to a MVC ActionMethod. [OperationContract(IsOneWay = false)] ActionResult Imagen(string data, CustomActionResult result); The class to hold an ActionResult derived class instance: public class ServiceEventArgsMvc : ServiceEventArgs { /// <summary> /// /// </summary> public CustomActionResult Result { get; set; } } And the code in the MVC client app: /// <summary> /// Just a simple class to hold an abstract ActionResult derived class instance. /// </summary> public ActionResult Image(string data, CustomActionResult result) { ViewData["data"] = data; return View(); } Ok. ActionMethod sucessfully executes...but when it's done (and usually expected obtain a reditection to a View named Image, like the action method), the WCF service throws a Timeout exception, making clear that he's still waiting for a response from the MVC client. The response never arrives, so the MVC app never finish his work (redirect to the "Image" view as expected). Any ideas?. Guess i'm missing something very simple, but i don't know what it could be. This is drivin' me nuts.

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  • Google Maps Controls panel size is displayed wrong

    - by Andrea Giachetto
    I have a weird problem with Google Maps Control. I've tested in a blank page my custom maps with custom markers and everything seems to be ok, also with the control panel. When I tried to import all my code in the page I'm working with ( I use a full screen fluid grid system ) the control panel is displayed with strange size. I tried everything for disable/enable the ui of the Google Maps but the problem remain. The code of my maps are exactly the same, both in my blank page and in my site, but in the site the ui control panel is displayed very strange. Here's the code: <div id="map_canvas2" style="height: 580px; width: 100%;"></div> <script> var image = 'path/to/your/image.png'; var mapOptions = { zoom: 17, center: new google.maps.LatLng(45.499290, 12.621510), mapTypeId: google.maps.MapTypeId.ROADMAP, scrollwheel: false } var map = new google.maps.Map(document.getElementById('map_canvas2'), mapOptions); var myPos = new google.maps.LatLng(45.499290,12.621510); var myMarker = new google.maps.Marker({position: myPos, map: map, icon: 'http://www.factory42.it/jtaca/wordpress/wp-content/uploads/2014/06/pin-map.png' }); </script> </div> Here's an img: http://www.factory42.it/jtaca/wordpress/wp-content/uploads/2014/06/img-maps.png

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  • How to replace auto-implemented c# get body at runtime or compile time?

    - by qstarin
    I've been trying to figure this out all night, but I guess my knowledge of the .Net Framework just isn't that deep and the problem doesn't exactly Google well, but if I can get a nod in the right direction I'm sure I can implement it, one way or another. I'd like to be able to declare a property decorated with a custom attribute as such: public MyClass { [ReplaceWithExpressionFrom(typeof(SomeOtherClass))] public virtual bool MyProperty { get; } } public SomeOtherClass : IExpressionHolder<MyClass, bool> { ... } public interface IExpressionHolder<TArg, TResult> { Expression<Func<TArg, TResult>> Expression { get; } } And then somehow - this is the part I'm having trouble figuring - replace the automatically generated implementation of that getter with a piece of custom code, something like: Type expressionHolderType = LookupAttributeCtorArgTypeInDeclarationOfPropertyWereReplacing(); return ReplaceWithExpressionFromAttribute.GetCompiledExpressionFrom(expressionHolderType)(this); The main thing I'm not sure how to do is replace the automatic implementation of the get. The first thing that came to mind was PostSharp, but that's a more complicated dependency than I care for. I'd much prefer a way to code it without using post-processing attached to the build (I think that's the jist of how PostSharp sinks its hooks in anyway). The other part of this I'm not so sure about is how to retrieve the type parameter passed to the particular instantiation of the ReplaceWithExpressionFrom attribute (where it decorates the property whose body I want to replace; in other words, how do I get typeof(SomeOtherClass) where I'm coding the get body replacement). I plan to cache compiled expressions from concrete instances of IExpressionHolder, as I don't want to do that every time the property gets retrieved. I figure this has just got to be possible. At the very least I figure I should be able to search an assembly for any method decorated with the attribute and somehow proxy the class or just replace the IL or .. something? And I'd like to make the integration as smooth as possible, so if this can be done without explicitly calling a registration or initialization method somewhere that'd be super great. Thanks!

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  • How do I efficiently parse a CSV file in Perl?

    - by Mike
    I'm working on a project that involves parsing a large csv formatted file in Perl and am looking to make things more efficient. My approach has been to split() the file by lines first, and then split() each line again by commas to get the fields. But this suboptimal since at least two passes on the data are required. (once to split by lines, then once again for each line). This is a very large file, so cutting processing in half would be a significant improvement to the entire application. My question is, what is the most time efficient means of parsing a large CSV file using only built in tools? note: Each line has a varying number of tokens, so we can't just ignore lines and split by commas only. Also we can assume fields will contain only alphanumeric ascii data (no special characters or other tricks). Also, i don't want to get into parallel processing, although it might work effectively. edit It can only involve built-in tools that ship with Perl 5.8. For bureaucratic reasons, I cannot use any third party modules (even if hosted on cpan) another edit Let's assume that our solution is only allowed to deal with the file data once it is entirely loaded into memory. yet another edit I just grasped how stupid this question is. Sorry for wasting your time. Voting to close.

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  • Running Sitecore Production Site under a Virtual Directory

    - by danswain
    We are using Sitecore 6 on a Windows Server 2003 (32bit) dev machine. I know it's not recommended for the CMS editing site, but we've been told it is possible to get the front-end Sitecore websites to run from within a virtual directory. Here's the issue: we'd like to achieve what the below poor mans diagram shows. We have a website (.net 1.1) /WebSiteRoot (.net 1.1) | | |---- Custom .net 1.1 Web Application | |---- SiteCore frontend WebApplication (.net 2.0) | |---- Custom .net 2.0 WebApplication The Sitecore webApplication would contain the Sitecore pipeline in its web.config and we'd make use of the section to configure the virtual folder to allow for where our Sitecore app sits and point it to the appropriate place in the Content Tree. Is it possible to pull this off? This is just the customer facing website, there will be no CMS editing functionality on these servers, that will be done from a more standard Sitecore install inside the firewall on a different server. The errors we're encountering are centered around loading the the various config files in the App_Config folder. It seems to do a Server.MapPath on "/" initially (which is wrong for us) so we've tried putting absolute paths in the web.config and still no joy (I think there must be some hardcoded piece that looks for the Include directory). Any help would be greatly appreciated. Thanks

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  • SQL Binary Microsoft Access - Combining two tables if specific field values are equal

    - by Jordan
    I am new to Microsoft Access and SQL but have a decent programming background and I believe this problem should be relatively simple. I have two tables that I have imported into Access. I will give you a little context. One table is huge and contains generic, global data. The other table is still big but contains specific, regional data. There is only one common field (or column) between the two tables. Let’s call this common field CF. The other fields in both tables are different. I’ll take you through one iteration of what I need to do. I need to take each CF value in the regional, smaller table and find the common CF value in the larger, global table. After finding the match, I need to take the whole “record” or “row” from the global data and copy it over to the corresponding record in the smaller regional table (This should involve creating the new fields). I need to do this for all CF values in the regional, smaller table. I was recommended to use SQL and a binary search, but I am unfamiliar. Let me know if you have any questions. I appreciate the help!

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  • Dynamically showing TableView or DetailView

    - by Niels
    From my TableView I dynamically want to show either a TableView or a DetailView (new segue), based on the cell's content. I setup two segues from the TableView to different DetailViews and one segue from the TableViewCell to the TableView. I have almost completed the implementation using performSegueWithIdentifier: (see below), but there is one struggling issue remaining: after I call [self dismissModalViewControllerAnimated:YES]; on the DetailView it returns to an empty TableView . I assume because the Storyboard segue from the UITableViewCell is performed. By clicking the back button I return to my original (parent) TableView data. Any suggestions for this work? - (void)prepareForSegue:(UIStoryboardSegue *)segue sender:(id)sender { NSLog(@"%s", __PRETTY_FUNCTION__); NSString *type = [[self.dataController objectInListAtIndex:[self.tableView indexPathForSelectedRow].row] valueForKey:@"cell_type"]; NSLog(@"cell_type: %@", type); if([[segue identifier] isEqualToString:@"DetailSegue"]) { UIViewController *detailViewController = [segue destinationViewController]; detailViewController.game = [self.dataController objectInListAtIndex:[self.tableView indexPathForSelectedRow].row]; } else if ... } else if([[segue identifier] isEqualToString:@"TableViewSegue"]){ if([type isEqualToString:@"TableView"]){ //Create child ViewController, a custom ViewController with custom initWithId:Title: CategoryViewController *categoryViewController = [[segue destinationViewController] initWithId:categoryId Title:categoryTitle]; } } }

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  • How would I compare two Lists(Of <CustomClass>) in VB?

    - by Kumba
    I'm working on implementing the equality operator = for a custom class of mine. The class has one property, Value, which is itself a List(Of OtherClass), where OtherClass is yet another custom class in my project. I've already implemented the IComparer, IComparable, IEqualityComparer, and IEquatable interfaces, the operators =, <>, bool and not, and overriden Equals and GetHashCode for OtherClass. This should give me all the tools I need to compare these objects, and various tests comparing two singular instances of these objects so far checks out. However, I'm not sure how to approach this when they are in a List. I don't care about the list order. Given: Dim x As New List(Of OtherClass) From {New OtherClass("foo"), New OtherClass("bar"), New OtherClass("baz")} Dim y As New List(Of OtherClass) From {New OtherClass("baz"), New OtherClass("foo"), New OtherClass("bar")} Then (x = y).ToString should print out True. I need to compare the same (not distinct) set of objects in this list. The list shouldn't support dupes of OtherClass, but I'll have to figure out how to add that in later as an exception. Not interested in using LINQ. It looks nice, but in the few examples I've played with, adds a performance overhead in that bugs me. Loops are ugly, but they are fast :) A straight code answer is fine, but I'd like to understand the logic needed for such a comparison as well. I'm probably going to have to implement said logic more than a few times down the road.

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  • nullable bool is being passed to the controller null all the time regardless of the value

    - by user1807954
    I'm trying to pass a nullable bool to my controller. But when I pass the bool value from my view to the controller, it's being passed null all the time regardless of the value it has in my view. Here is my view: @model Cars.Models.Car @using (Html.BeginForm("Index", "Home", FormMethod.Post, new { id = "CategoryFormID"})) { <label>Convertible:</label> <input type="checkbox" id="ConvertibleID" name="convertible"/> <button type="submit" name="submit" value="search" id="SubmitID">Search</button> } And my controller: [HttpPost] public ActionResult Index(bool? convertible){ var cars = from d in db.Car select d; if (convertible.HasValue) { cars = cars.Where(x => x.Convertible == convertible); } return View("SearchResult", cars); } I also have other fields such as drop down lists and text fields, but they're being passed flawless. Any help would be really appreciated. Update: Thank you for your fast responds. However, I did try giving it a value="True" as you guys suggested. There is only 2 options now: null and true. But my intention is to use nullable bool to have three options: null (when user doesn't touch the checkbox), true(checked) and false(unchecked). I know it sounds not smart and silly, but I'm just trying to figure out how nullable bool is working, and what is the intention of having such a thing in C# (I'm new with C#). I was wondering if it is possible to do so with just checkbox and without the use of dropdownlist or radio buttons.

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  • Predicate usually used for array/list how about here?

    - by amit kohan
    In following code (Josh Smith's article on MVVM), can somebody give me some insight about return _canExecute == null ? true : _canExecute(parameter); ? it is a normal if/else statement but I'm not getting the last part of it. public class RelayCommand : ICommand { #region Fields readonly Action<object> _execute; readonly Predicate<object> _canExecute; #endregion // Fields #region Constructors public RelayCommand(Action<object> execute) : this(execute, null) { } public RelayCommand(Action<object> execute, Predicate<object> canExecute) { if (execute == null) throw new ArgumentNullException("execute"); _execute = execute; _canExecute = canExecute; } #endregion // Constructors #region ICommand Members [DebuggerStepThrough] public bool CanExecute(object parameter) { return _canExecute == null ? true : _canExecute(parameter); } public event EventHandler CanExecuteChanged { add { CommandManager.RequerySuggested += value; } remove { CommandManager.RequerySuggested -= value; } } public void Execute(object parameter) { _execute(parameter); } #endregion // ICommand Members } Thanks.

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  • iPhone scrolling the view up when keyboard is open

    - by Rob
    I understand that this problem is incredibly common and I have read through quite a few answers but am having trouble understanding how the code works. This works: -(void)textFieldDidBeginEditing:(UITextField *)sender { if ([sender isEqual:txtLeaveAddyLine1]) { //move the main view, so that the keyboard does not hide it. if (self.view.frame.origin.y >= 0) { [self setViewMovedUp:YES]; } } } In this example, txtLeaveAddy is the very first UITextField that is hidden by the keyboard and it works like a charm. As I cycle through the text fields on the screen it scrolls up when the user enters into that txtLeaveAddyLine1 field. However, when I try to add the fields below the txtLeaveAddyLine1 field - nothing happens. For example: -(void)textFieldDidBeginEditing:(UITextField *)sender { if ([sender isEqual:txtLeaveAddyLine1]) { //move the main view, so that the keyboard does not hide it. if (self.view.frame.origin.y >= 0) { [self setViewMovedUp:YES]; } } if ([sender isEqual:txtLeaveAddyLine2]) { //move the main view, so that the keyboard does not hide it. if (self.view.frame.origin.y >= 0) { [self setViewMovedUp:YES]; } } } Am I not using this function correctly?

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  • Grails - ElasticSearch - QueryParsingException[[index] No query registered for [query]]; with elasticSearchHelper; JSON via curl works fine though

    - by v1p
    I have been working on a Grails project, clubbed with ElasticSearch ( v 20.6 ), with a custom build of elasticsearch-grails-plugin(to support geo_point indexing : v.20.6) have been trying to do a filtered Search, while using script_fields (to calculate distance). Following is Closure & the generated JSON from the GXContentBuilder : Closure records = Domain.search(searchType:'dfs_query_and_fetch'){ query { filtered = { query = { if(queryTxt){ query_string(query: queryTxt) }else{ match_all {} } } filter = { geo_distance = { distance = "${userDistance}km" "location"{ lat = latlon[0]?:0.00 lon = latlon[1]?:0.00 } } } } } script_fields = { distance = { script = "doc['location'].arcDistanceInKm($latlon)" } } fields = ["_source"] } GXContentBuilder generated query JSON : { "query": { "filtered": { "query": { "match_all": {} }, "filter": { "geo_distance": { "distance": "5km", "location": { "lat": "37.752258", "lon": "-121.949886" } } } } }, "script_fields": { "distance": { "script": "doc['location'].arcDistanceInKm(37.752258, -121.949886)" } }, "fields": ["_source"] } The JSON query, using curl-way, works perfectly fine. But when I try to execute it from Groovy Code, I mean with this : elasticSearchHelper.withElasticSearch { Client client -> def response = client.search(request).actionGet() } It throws following error : Failed to execute phase [dfs], total failure; shardFailures {[1][index][3]: SearchParseException[[index][3]: from[0],size[60]: Parse Failure [Failed to parse source [{"from":0,"size":60,"query_binary":"eyJxdWVyeSI6eyJmaWx0ZXJlZCI6eyJxdWVyeSI6eyJtYXRjaF9hbGwiOnt9fSwiZmlsdGVyIjp7Imdlb19kaXN0YW5jZSI6eyJkaXN0YW5jZSI6IjVrbSIsImNvbXBhbnkuYWRkcmVzcy5sb2NhdGlvbiI6eyJsYXQiOiIzNy43NTIyNTgiLCJsb24iOiItMTIxLjk0OTg4NiJ9fX19fSwic2NyaXB0X2ZpZWxkcyI6eyJkaXN0YW5jZSI6eyJzY3JpcHQiOiJkb2NbJ2NvbXBhbnkuYWRkcmVzcy5sb2NhdGlvbiddLmFyY0Rpc3RhbmNlSW5LbSgzNy43NTIyNTgsIC0xMjEuOTQ5ODg2KSJ9fSwiZmllbGRzIjpbIl9zb3VyY2UiXX0=","explain":true}]]]; nested: QueryParsingException[[index] No query registered for [query]]; } The above Closure works if I only use filtered = { ... } script_fields = { ... } but it doesn't return the calculated distance. Anyone had any similar problem ? Thanks in advance :) It's possible that I might have been dim to point out the obvious here :P

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  • Selecting More Than 1 Table in A Single Query

    - by Kamran
    I have 5 Tables in MS Access as Logs [Title, ID, Date, Author] Tape [Title, ID, Date, Author] Maps [Title, ID, Date, Author] VCDs [Title, ID, Date, Author] Book [Title, ID, Date, Author] I tried my level best through this code SELECT Logs.[Author], Tape.[Author], Maps.[Author], VCDs.[Author], Book.[Author] FROM Logs , Tape , Maps , VCDs, Book WHERE ((([Author] & " " & [Author] & " " & [Author] & " " & [Author]& " " & [Author]) Like "*" & [Type the Title or Any Part of the Title and Press Ok] & "*")); I want to select all of these fields in a single query. Suppose there is Adam as author of works in all tables. So when i put Adam in search box it should result from all tables. I know this can be done by having single table or renaming fields names but that's not required. Please help.

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  • Dismiss android activity displayed as Popup

    - by Sit
    So i have a service, that starts an activity displayed as a Popup thank's to "android:style/Theme.Dialog" This Activity shows a Listview, with a list of application. On each element of the listview, there is a short description of the application, and two buttons. 1 for launching the application 2 for displaying a toast with more informations. Here is the code in my service : it starts the activity Intent intent = new Intent(this, PopUpActivity.class); intent.addFlags(Intent.FLAG_DEBUG_LOG_RESOLUTION); intent.addFlags(Intent.FLAG_ACTIVITY_NEW_TASK); getApplicationContext().startActivity(intent); this activity uses a custom layout, with a listview, adapted with a custom ArrayAdapter In this adaptater, i've put an action on the start button in order to start the current application Button lanceur = (Button) v.findViewById(R.id.Buttonlancer); lanceur.setOnClickListener(new View.OnClickListener() { public void onClick(View v) { p.start(mcontext); } }); with p.start, i start the application. But now, if i press "back" from the application, i go back to the popup... and i can start another application. I don't want it to be possible. That's why i wish i could dismiss/destroy/finish my PopupActivity, but i can't manage to do it with the code i have.

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  • Why is my content being overwritten instead of replaced in jQuery/Ajax?

    - by Matt Nathanson
    I've got jquery being used in ajax to pass some contents into a database, my problem however has nothing to do with the db.. I have input fields in an id called #clientscontainer. When I click "save" in that container, it automatically refreshes the container correctly ... $('#clientscontainer').html(html); The problem is, a couple of those input fields (such as a description and title), have instances in another div that i want to refresh upon the save click. The other ID is: $('div#' + clientID') When I do $('div#' + clientID').html(html); it refreshes the content from clientscontainer in it instead of just the variables that I want to update. When I try to pass just the variable $(blurb).html(html); it updates the blurb but it ONLY displays that variable in the div# clientID div... whereas I just want to replace it. Here is the AJAX portion of the function ...//variables// dataToLoad = 'clientID=' + clientID + '&changeClient=yes' + '&project=' + descriptionSubTitle + '&campaign=' + descriptionTitle + '&label=' + descriptionLabel + '&descriptionedit=' + description + '&blurbedit=' + blurb; $.ajax({ type: 'post', url: ('/clients/controller.php'), datatype: 'html', data: dataToLoad, success: function(html){ dataToLoad = 'clientID=' + clientID + '&loadclient=yes&isCMS=' + editCMS; $.ajax({ type: 'post', url: '/clients/controller.php', datatype: 'html', data: dataToLoad, async: false, success: function(html){ //$('#clientscontainer').focus(function() {reInitialize()}); //$('#clientscontainer').ajaxComplete(function(){reInitialize()}); $('#clientscontainer').html(html); $('div#' + clientID).each(function(){ $('#editbutton').click(function() {EditEverything()}); } , error: function() { alert('An error occured! 222'); } });}, error: function() { alert('An error occured! 394'); } }); any suggestions?

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  • Why the databinding fails in ListView (WPF) ?

    - by Ashish Ashu
    I have a ListView of which ItemSource is set to my Custom Collection. I have defined a GridView CellTemplate that contains a combo box as below : <ListView MaxWidth="850" Grid.Row="1" SelectedItem="{Binding Path = SelectedCondition}" ItemsSource="{Binding Path = Conditions}" FontWeight="Normal" FontSize="11" Name="listview"> <ListView.View> <GridView> <GridViewColumn Width="175" Header="Type"> <GridViewColumn.CellTemplate> <DataTemplate> <ComboBox Style="{x:Null}" x:Name="TypeCmbox" Height="Auto" Width="150" SelectedValuePath="Key" DisplayMemberPath="Value" SelectedItem="{Binding Path = MyType}" ItemsSource="{Binding Path = MyTypes}" HorizontalAlignment="Center" /> </DataTemplate> </GridViewColumn.CellTemplate> </GridViewColumn> </ListView> My Custom collection is the ObservableCollection. I have a two buttons - Move Up and Move Down on top of the listview control . When user clicks on the Move Up or Move Down button I call MoveUp and MoveDown methods of Observable Collection. But when I Move Up and Move Down the rows then the Selected Index of a combo box is -1. I have ensured that selectedItem is not equal to null when performing Move Up and Move Down commands. Please Help!!

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  • How should I lock the table in this VB6 / Access application?

    - by Brian Hooper
    I'm working on a VB6 application using an Access database. The application writes messages to a log table from time to time. Several instances of the application may be running simultaneously and to distinguish them they each have their own run number. The run number is deduced from the log table thus... Set record_set = New ADODB.Recordset query_string = "SELECT MAX(RUN_NUMBER) + 1 AS NEW_RUN_NUMBER FROM ERROR_LOG" record_set.CursorLocation = adUseClient record_set.Open query_string, database_connection, adOpenStatic, , adCmdText record_set.MoveLast If IsNull(record_set.Fields("NEW_RUN_NUMBER")) Then run_number = 0 Else run_number = record_set.Fields("NEW_RUN_NUMBER") End If command_string = "INSERT INTO ERROR_LOG (RUN_NUMBER, SEVERITY, MESSAGE) " & _ " VALUES (" & Str$(run_number) & ", " & _ " " & Str$(SEVERITY_INFORMATION) & ", " & _ " 'Run Started'); " database_connection.Execute command_string Obviously there is a small gap between the calculation of the run number and the appearance of the new row in the database, and to prevent another instance getting access between the two operations I'd like to lock the table; something along the lines of SET TRANSACTION READ WRITE RESERVING ERROR_LOG FOR PROTECTED WRITE; How should I go about doing this? Would locking the recordset do any good (the row in the record set doesn't match any particular row in the database)?

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