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  • Understanding CLR 2.0 Memory Model

    - by Eloff
    Joe Duffy, gives 6 rules that describe the CLR 2.0+ memory model (it's actual implementation, not any ECMA standard) I'm writing down my attempt at figuring this out, mostly as a way of rubber ducking, but if I make a mistake in my logic, at least someone here will be able to catch it before it causes me grief. Rule 1: Data dependence among loads and stores is never violated. Rule 2: All stores have release semantics, i.e. no load or store may move after one. Rule 3: All volatile loads are acquire, i.e. no load or store may move before one. Rule 4: No loads and stores may ever cross a full-barrier (e.g. Thread.MemoryBarrier, lock acquire, Interlocked.Exchange, Interlocked.CompareExchange, etc.). Rule 5: Loads and stores to the heap may never be introduced. Rule 6: Loads and stores may only be deleted when coalescing adjacent loads and stores from/to the same location. I'm attempting to understand these rules. x = y y = 0 // Cannot move before the previous line according to Rule 1. x = y z = 0 // equates to this sequence of loads and stores before possible re-ordering load y store x load 0 store z Looking at this, it appears that the load 0 can be moved up to before load y, but the stores may not be re-ordered at all. Therefore, if a thread sees z == 0, then it also will see x == y. If y was volatile, then load 0 could not move before load y, otherwise it may. Volatile stores don't seem to have any special properties, no stores can be re-ordered with respect to each other (which is a very strong guarantee!) Full barriers are like a line in the sand which loads and stores can not be moved over. No idea what rule 5 means. I guess rule 6 means if you do: x = y x = z Then it is possible for the CLR to delete both the load to y and the first store to x. x = y z = y // equates to this sequence of loads and stores before possible re-ordering load y store x load y store z // could be re-ordered like this load y load y store x store z // rule 6 applied means this is possible? load y store x // but don't pop y from stack (or first duplicate item on top of stack) store z What if y was volatile? I don't see anything in the rules that prohibits the above optimization from being carried out. This does not violate double-checked locking, because the lock() between the two identical conditions prevents the loads from being moved into adjacent positions, and according to rule 6, that's the only time they can be eliminated. So I think I understand all but rule 5, here. Anyone want to enlighten me (or correct me or add something to any of the above?)

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  • bin_at in dlmalloc

    - by chunhui
    In glibc malloc.c or dlmalloc It said "repositioning tricks"As in blew, and use this trick in bin_at. bins is a array,the space is allocated when av(struct malloc_state) is allocated.doesn't it? the sizeof(bin[i]) is less then sizeof(struct malloc_chunk*)? Who can describe this trick for me? I can't understand the bin_at macro.why they get the bins address use this method?how it works? Very thanks,and sorry for my poor English. /* To simplify use in double-linked lists, each bin header acts as a malloc_chunk. This avoids special-casing for headers. But to conserve space and improve locality, we allocate only the fd/bk pointers of bins, and then use repositioning tricks to treat these as the fields of a malloc_chunk*. */ typedef struct malloc_chunk* mbinptr; /* addressing -- note that bin_at(0) does not exist */ #define bin_at(m, i) \ (mbinptr) (((char *) &((m)->bins[((i) - 1) * 2])) \ - offsetof (struct malloc_chunk, fd)) The malloc_chunk struct like this: struct malloc_chunk { INTERNAL_SIZE_T prev_size; /* Size of previous chunk (if free). */ INTERNAL_SIZE_T size; /* Size in bytes, including overhead. */ struct malloc_chunk* fd; /* double links -- used only if free. */ struct malloc_chunk* bk; /* Only used for large blocks: pointer to next larger size. */ struct malloc_chunk* fd_nextsize; /* double links -- used only if free. */ struct malloc_chunk* bk_nextsize; }; And the bin type like this: typedef struct malloc_chunk* mbinptr; struct malloc_state { /* Serialize access. */ mutex_t mutex; /* Flags (formerly in max_fast). */ int flags; #if THREAD_STATS /* Statistics for locking. Only used if THREAD_STATS is defined. */ long stat_lock_direct, stat_lock_loop, stat_lock_wait; #endif /* Fastbins */ mfastbinptr fastbinsY[NFASTBINS]; /* Base of the topmost chunk -- not otherwise kept in a bin */ mchunkptr top; /* The remainder from the most recent split of a small request */ mchunkptr last_remainder; /* Normal bins packed as described above */ mchunkptr bins[NBINS * 2 - 2]; /* Bitmap of bins */ unsigned int binmap[BINMAPSIZE]; /* Linked list */ struct malloc_state *next; #ifdef PER_THREAD /* Linked list for free arenas. */ struct malloc_state *next_free; #endif /* Memory allocated from the system in this arena. */ INTERNAL_SIZE_T system_mem; INTERNAL_SIZE_T max_system_mem; };

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  • How to move a google doc into a folder using Zend Gdata

    - by Andre
    Hi Guys I am really struggling with moving a document from my root folder to another folder using zend gdata here is how i am trying to do it, but its not working. $service = Zend_Gdata_Docs::AUTH_SERVICE_NAME; $client = Zend_Gdata_ClientLogin::getHttpClient($gUser, $gPass, $service); $link = "https://docs.google.com/feeds/documents/private/full/spreadsheet:0AUFNVEpLOVg2U0E"; // Not real id for privacy purposes $docs = new Zend_GData_Docs($client); // Attach a category object of folder to this entry // I have tried many variations of this including attaching label categories $cat = new Zend_Gdata_App_Extension_Category('My Folder Name','http://schemas.google.com/docs/2007#folder'); $entry = $docs->getDocumentListEntry($link); $entry->setCategory(array($cat)); $return = $docs->updateEntry($entry,$entry->getEditLink()->href); When I run this I get No errors, but nothing seems to change, and the return data does not contain the new category. EDIT: Ok I realised that its not the category but the link that decides which "collection" (folder) a resource belongs too. https://developers.google.com/google-apps/documents-list/#managing_collections_and_their_contents says that each resource has as et of parent links, so I tried changing my code to do set link instead of set category, but this did not work. $folder = "https://docs.google.com/feeds/documents/private/full/folder%3A0wSFA2WHc"; $rel = "http://schemas.google.com/docs/2007#parent"; $linkObj = new Zend_Gdata_App_Extension_Link($folder,$rel,'application/atom+xml', NULL,'Folder Name'); $links = $entry->getLink(); array_push($links,$linkObj); $entry->setLink($links); $return = $docs->updateEntry($entry,$entry->getEditLink()->href); EDIT: SOLVED [nearly] OK Here is how to move/copy, sort of, from one folder to another: simpler than initially thought, but problem is it creates a reference and NOT a move! It now in both places at the same time.... // Folder you wnat to move too $folder = "https://docs.google.com/feeds/folders/private/full/folder%asdsad"; $data = $docs->insertDocument($entry, $folder); // Entry is the entry you want moved using insert automatically assigns link & category for you...

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  • Silverlight with MVVM Inheritance: ModelView and View matching the Model

    - by moonground.de
    Hello Stackoverflowers! :) Today I have a special question on Silverlight (4 RC) MVVM and inheritance concepts and looking for a best practice solution... I think that i understand the basic idea and concepts behind MVVM. My Model doesn't know anything about the ViewModel as the ViewModel itself doesn't know about the View. The ViewModel knows the Model and the Views know the ViewModels. Imagine the following basic (example) scenario (I'm trying to keep anything short and simple): My Model contains a ProductBase class with a few basic properties, a SimpleProduct : ProductBase adding a few more Properties and ExtendedProduct : ProductBase adding another properties. According to this Model I have several ViewModels, most essential SimpleProductViewModel : ViewModelBase and ExtendedProductViewModel : ViewModelBase. Last but not least, according Views SimpleProductView and ExtendedProductView. In future, I might add many product types (and matching Views + VMs). 1. How do i know which ViewModel to create when receiving a Model collection? After calling my data provider method, it will finally end up having a List<ProductBase>. It containts, for example, one SimpleProduct and two ExtendedProducts. How can I transform the results to an ObservableCollection<ViewModelBase> having the proper ViewModel types (one SimpleProductViewModel and two ExtendedProductViewModels) in it? I might check for Model type and construct the ViewModel accordingly, i.e. foreach(ProductBase currentProductBase in resultList) if (currentProductBase is SimpleProduct) viewModels.Add( new SimpleProductViewModel((SimpleProduct)currentProductBase)); else if (currentProductBase is ExtendedProduct) viewModels.Add( new ExtendedProductViewModels((ExtendedProduct)currentProductBase)); ... } ...but I consider this very bad practice as this code doesn't follow the object oriented design. The other way round, providing abstract Factory methods would reduce the code to: foreach(ProductBase currentProductBase in resultList) viewModels.Add(currentProductBase.CreateViewModel()) and would be perfectly extensible but since the Model doesn't know the ViewModels, that's not possible. I might bring interfaces into game here, but I haven't seen such approach proven yet. 2. How do i know which View to display when selecting a ViewModel? This is pretty the same problem, but on a higher level. Ended up finally having the desired ObservableCollection<ViewModelBase> collection would require the main view to choose a matching View for the ViewModel. In WPF, there is a DataTemplate concept which can supply a View upon a defined DataType. Unfortunately, this doesn't work in Silverlight and the only replacement I've found was the ResourceSelector of the SLExtensions toolkit which is buggy and not satisfying. Beside that, all problems from Question 1 apply as well. Do you have some hints or even a solution for the problems I describe, which you hopefully can understand from my explanation? Thank you in advance! Thomas

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  • ASP.NET 2.0 files work in one folder, but NOT in another

    - by Steve
    I am about to leap of a building. I have created an app for a client and all the files are in a folder on their D drive. Now it is time to go production, so I copied all my files and folders to their excisting classic asp folder on the same drive. BUT NOTHING WORKS. The only difference I can see is that DEV does not require HTTPS like the production site. I also made sure all the permissions are the same on both folder. I made sure that the GAC has read rights using the aspnet_regiis tool. I am at the end of my debug knowlegde, could someone please help me out. Here are the error messages I get from the application event log. Failed to initialize the AppDomain:/LM/W3SVC/3/Root Exception: System.Configuration.ConfigurationErrorsException Message: Exception of type 'System.Configuration.ConfigurationErrorsException' was thrown. StackTrace: at System.Web.Configuration.ErrorRuntimeConfig.ErrorConfigRecord.System.Configuration.Internal.IInternalConfigRecord.GetLkgSection(String configKey) at System.Web.Configuration.RuntimeConfigLKG.GetSectionObject(String sectionName) at System.Web.Configuration.RuntimeConfig.GetSection(String sectionName, Type type, ResultsIndex index) at System.Web.Configuration.RuntimeConfig.get_HostingEnvironment() at System.Web.Hosting.HostingEnvironment.StartMonitoringForIdleTimeout() at System.Web.Hosting.HostingEnvironment.Initialize(ApplicationManager appManager, IApplicationHost appHost, IConfigMapPathFactory configMapPathFactory, HostingEnvironmentParameters hostingParameters) at System.Web.Hosting.HostingEnvironment.Initialize(ApplicationManager appManager, IApplicationHost appHost, IConfigMapPathFactory configMapPathFactory, HostingEnvironmentParameters hostingParameters) at System.Web.Hosting.ApplicationManager.CreateAppDomainWithHostingEnvironment(String appId, IApplicationHost appHost, HostingEnvironmentParameters hostingParameters) at System.Web.Hosting.ApplicationManager.CreateAppDomainWithHostingEnvironmentAndReportErrors(String appId, IApplicationHost appHost, HostingEnvironmentParameters hostingParameters) For more information, see Help and Support Center at http://go.microsoft.com/fwlink/events.asp. ------------------------ Failed to execute the request because the ASP.NET process identity does not have read permissions to the global assembly cache. Error: 0x80131902 For more information, see Help and Support Center at http://go.microsoft.com/fwlink/events.asp. ------------------------- aspnet_wp.exe (PID: 4568) stopped unexpectedly. For more information, see Help and Support Center at http://go.microsoft.com/fwlink/events.asp. Here is the web error message: Server Application Unavailable The web application you are attempting to access on this web server is currently unavailable. Please hit the "Refresh" button in your web browser to retry your request. Administrator Note: An error message detailing the cause of this specific request failure can be found in the application event log of the web server. Please review this log entry to discover what caused this error to occur. Thank you for your help, Steve

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  • string categorization strategies

    - by Andrew Heath
    I'm the one-man dev team on a fledgling military history website. One aspect of the site is a catalog of ~1,200 individual battles, including the nations & formations (regiments, divisions, etc) which took part. The formation information (as well as the other battle info) was manually imported from a series of books by a 10-man volunteer team. The formations were listed in groups with varying formatting and abbreviation patterns. At the time I set up the data collection forms I couldn't think of a good way to process that data... and elected to store it all as strings in the MySQL database and sort it out later. Well, "later" - as it tends to happen - has arrived. :-) Each battle has 2+ records in the database - one for each nation that participated. Each record has a formations text string listing the formations present as the volunteer chose to add them. Some real examples: 39th Grenadier Rgmt, 26th Volksgrenadier Division 2nd Luftwaffe Field Division, 246th Infantry Division 247th Rifle Division, 255th Tank Brigade 2nd Luftwaffe Field Division, SS Cavalry Division 28th Tank Brigade, 158th Rifle Division, 135th Rifle Division, 81st Tank Brigade, 242nd Tank Brigade 78th Infantry Division 3rd Kure Special Naval Landing Force, Tulagi Seaplane Base personnel 1st Battalion 505th Infantry Regiment The ultimate goal is for each individual force to have an ID, so that its participation can be traced throughout the battle database. Formation hierarchy, such as the final item above 1st Battalion (of the) 505th Infantry Regiment also needs to be preserved. In that case, 1st Battalion and 505th Infantry Regiment would be split, but 1st Battalion would be flagged as belonging to the 505th. In database terms, I think I want to pull the formation field out of the current battle info table and create three new tables: FORMATION [id] [name] FORMATION_HIERARCHY [id] [parent] [child] FORMATION_BATTLE [f_id] [battle_id] It's simple to explain, but complicated to enact. What I'm looking for from the SO community is just some tips on how best to tackle this problem. Ideally there's some sort of method to solving this that I'm not aware of. However, as a last resort, I could always code a classification framework and call my volunteers back to sort through 2,500+ records...

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  • Why does the rename() syscall prohibit moving a directory that I can't write to a different director

    - by Daniel Papasian
    I am trying to understand why this design decision was made with the rename() syscall in 4.2BSD. There's nothing I'm trying to solve here, just understand the rationale for the behavior itself. 4.2BSD saw the introduction of the rename() syscall for the purpose of allowing atomic renames/moves of files. From 4.3BSD-Reno/src/sys/ufs/ufs_vnops.c: /* * If ".." must be changed (ie the directory gets a new * parent) then the source directory must not be in the * directory heirarchy above the target, as this would * orphan everything below the source directory. Also * the user must have write permission in the source so * as to be able to change "..". We must repeat the call * to namei, as the parent directory is unlocked by the * call to checkpath(). */ if (oldparent != dp->i_number) newparent = dp->i_number; if (doingdirectory && newparent) { VOP_LOCK(fndp->ni_vp); error = ufs_access(fndp->ni_vp, VWRITE, tndp->ni_cred); VOP_UNLOCK(fndp->ni_vp); So clearly this check was added intentionally. My question is - why? Is this behavior supposed to be intuitive? The effect of this is that one cannot move a directory (located in a directory that one can write) that one cannot write to another directory that one can write to atomically. You can, however, create a new directory, move the links over (assuming one has read access to the directory), and then remove one's write bit on the directory. You just can't do so atomically. % cd /tmp % mkdir stackoverflow-question % cd stackoverflow-question % mkdir directory-1 % mkdir directory-2 % mkdir directory-1/directory-i-cant-write % echo "foo" > directory-1/directory-i-cant-write/contents % chmod 000 directory-1/directory-i-cant-write/contents % chmod 000 directory-1/directory-i-cant-write % mv directory-1/directory-i-cant-write directory-2 mv: rename directory-1/directory-i-cant-write to directory-2/directory-i-cant-write: Permission denied We now have a directory I can't write with contents I can't read that I can't move atomically. I can, however, achieve the same effect non-atomically by changing permissions, making the new directory, using ln to create the new links, and changing permissions. (Left as an exercise to the reader) . and .. are special cased already, so I don't particularly buy that it is intuitive that if I can't write a directory I can't "change .." which is what the source suggests. Is there any reason for this besides it being the perceived correct behavior by the author of the code? Is there anything bad that can happen if we let people atomically move directories (that they can't write) between directories that they can write?

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  • Show loading image when pdf rendering

    - by Pankaj
    I am displaying pdf on my page like this <object data="/Customer/GetPricedMaterialPDF?projID=<%= ViewData["ProjectID"]%>" type="application/pdf" width="960" height="900" style="margin-top: -33px;"> <p> It appears you don't have a PDF plugin for this browser. No biggie... you can <a href="/Customer/GetPricedMaterialPDF?projID=<%= ViewData["ProjectID"]%>">click here to download the PDF file. </a> </p> </object> and Controller function are public FileStreamResult GetPricedMaterialPDF(string projID) { System.IO.Stream fileStream = GeneratePDF(projID); HttpContext.Response.AddHeader("content-disposition", "attachment; filename=form.pdf"); return new FileStreamResult(fileStream, "application/pdf"); } private System.IO.Stream GeneratePDF(string projID) { //create your pdf and put it into the stream... pdf variable below //comes from a class I use to write content to PDF files System.IO.MemoryStream ms = new System.IO.MemoryStream(); Project proj = GetProject(projID); List<File> ff = proj.GetFiles(Project_Thin.Folders.IntegrationFiles, true); string fileName = string.Empty; if (ff != null && ff.Count > 0 && ff.Where(p => p.AccessToUserID == CurrentCustomer.CustomerID).Count() > 0) { ff = ff.Where(p => p.AccessToUserID == CurrentCustomer.CustomerID).ToList(); foreach (var item in ff) { fileName = item.FileName; } byte[] bArr = new byte[] { }; bArr = GetJDLFile(fileName); ms.Write(bArr, 0, bArr.Length); ms.Position = 0; } return ms; } Now my problem is function on controller taking 10 to 20 second to process pdf, data="/Customer/GetPricedMaterialPDF?projID=<%= ViewData["ProjectID"]%>" at that time my page shows blank, which i don't want. i want to show loading image at that time. How can i do this...

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  • How does NameScope in WPF works ?

    - by Nicolas Dorier
    I'm having a strange behavior with NameScopes in WPF, I have created a CustomControl called FadingPopup which is a child class of Window with nothing special inside. <Window.Resources> <local:FadingPopup> <Button Name="prec" Content="ahah"></Button> <Button Content="{Binding ElementName=prec, Path=Content}"></Button> </local:FadingPopup> </Window.Resources> In this snippet, the binding doesn't work (always empty). If I move these buttons from the resources to the content of the window like this : <Window ...> <Button Name="prec" Content="ahah"></Button> <Button Content="{Binding ElementName=prec, Path=Content}"></Button> </Window> The binding works as expected. Now, I have tried a mix between these two snippets : <Window...> <Window.Resources> <local:FadingPopup> <Button Name="prec" Content="Haha"></Button> </local:FadingPopup> </Window.Resources> <Button Content="{Binding ElementName=prec, Path=Content}"></Button> </Window> It works as well. Apparently, if the button prec is in the resources it registers itself in the NameScope of the Window. BUT, it seems that the Binding tries to resolve ElementName with the NameScope of the FadingPopup (which is null), thus the binding doesn't work... My first snipped works well if I specify a NameScope in my class FadingPopup : static FadingPopup() { NameScope.NameScopeProperty.OverrideMetadata(typeof(FadingPopup), new PropertyMetadata(new NameScope())); } But I don't like this solution because I don't understand why, in the first snippet, prec is registered in the NameScope of Window, but ElementName is resolved with the NameScope of FadingGroup (which is null by default)... Does someone can explain to me what is going on ? Why my first snippet doesn't work, if I don't specify a default NameScope for FadingGroup ?

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  • How can I capture the keystroke that triggers "CellEndEdit" on a DataGridView in C#?

    - by Andy Stampor
    I have a DataGridView that is set to EditOnF2. I do some special processing of data in the CellEndEdit eventhandler that sets the value of the cell. I still want the functionality of the EditOnKeystrokeOrF2 of reverting to the original value when the Esc key is pressed. Unfortunately, at the CellEndEdit eventhandler, I don't see a way to tell what caused the CellEndEdit event to be fired. I only want to change the value of the cell if the Esc key is not pressed. How can I tell if it was or not? Edit: It is worth noting that the KeyDown event does not get fired when the cell is being edited, nor for the final ending keystroke. Edit2: I have tried the KeyPreview suggestion, but the form still does not capture the Escape key being pressed. Edit3: I've been experimenting with trying to get this working. I originally posted some of the following as a separate post, but feel it might be more relevant to include it here. I have a cell in a DataGridView that is now set to EditProgrammatically. To capture the keystroke that starts an edit, I am setting the cell.Value equal to the keystroke. However, this ruins the "Escape" functionality of the cell - when you press escape, instead of reverting to the original value, it reverts to the keystroke that I programmatically inserted into the cell. I believe that if I could set the "EditedFormattedValue" on a cell, this would be where I want to put my keystroke value, however this appears to be read only. How can I accomplish what I am attempting? An example to clarify: If the cell has a value of "54.3" in it, and I press the "9" key, it begins editing the cell and places a "9" there. If I hit Escape, instead of reverting to "54.3" it reverts to "9". What I want is for it to return to its original value of "54.3". So, I am trying to tackle this issue from both the beginning and the end. I think the real problem is that I am overwriting the original value and have no way to determine if I should revert it or not. Edit4: It looks like CellValidating might be worth using, but I am seeing strange behavior when I experiment with it. In a new project, I create the DataGridView and register for the various events and see that CellValidating is fired before the CellEndEdit. However, in my project where I am trying to get this to work, CellEndEdit is firing BEFORE CellValidating. Any ideas on what the difference might be?

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  • How to load a springframework ApplicationContext from Jython

    - by staticman
    I have a class that loads a springframework application context like so: package com.offlinesupport; import org.springframework.context.ApplicationContext; import org.springframework.context.support.ClassPathXmlApplicationContext; public class OfflineScriptSupport { private static ApplicationContext appCtx; public static final void initialize() { appCtx = new ClassPathXmlApplicationContext( new String[] { "mycontext.spring.xml" } ); } public static final ApplicationContext getApplicationContext() { return appCtx; } public static final void main( String[] args ) { System.out.println( "Starting..." ); initialize(); System.out.println( "loaded" ); } } The class OfflineScriptSupport, and the file mycontext.spring.xml are each deployed into separate jars (along with other classes and resources in their respective modules). Lets say the jar files are OfflineScriptSupport.jar and *MyContext.jar". mycontext.spring.xml is put at the root of the jar. In a Jython script (*myscript.jy"), I try to call the initialize method to create the application context: from com.offlinesupport import OfflineScriptSupport OfflineScriptSupport.initialize(); I execute the Jython script with the following command (from Linux): jython -Dpython.path=spring.jar:OfflineScriptSupport.jar:MyContext.jar myscript.jy The Springframework application context cannot find the mycontext.spring.xml file. It displays the following error: java.io.FileNotFoundException: class path resource [mycontext.spring.xml] cannot be opened because it does not exist at org.springframework.core.io.ClassPathResource.getInputStream(ClassPathResource.java:137) at org.springframework.beans.factory.xml.XmlBeanDefinitionReader.loadBeanDefinitions(XmlBeanDefinitionReader.java:167) at org.springframework.beans.factory.xml.XmlBeanDefinitionReader.loadBeanDefinitions(XmlBeanDefinitionReader.java:148) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.AbstractBeanDefinitionReader.loadBeanDefinitions(AbstractBeanDefinitionReader.java:126) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.AbstractBeanDefinitionReader.loadBeanDefinitions(AbstractBeanDefinitionReader.java:142) at org.springframework.context.support.AbstractXmlApplicationContext.loadBeanDefinitions(AbstractXmlApplicationContext.java:113) at org.springframework.context.support.AbstractXmlApplicationContext.loadBeanDefinitions(AbstractXmlApplicationContext.java:81) at org.springframework.context.support.AbstractRefreshableApplicationContext.refreshBeanFactory(AbstractRefreshableApplicationContext.java:89) at org.springframework.context.support.AbstractApplicationContext.refresh(AbstractApplicationContext.java:269) at org.springframework.context.support.ClassPathXmlApplicationContext.<init>(ClassPathXmlApplicationContext.java:87) at org.springframework.context.support.ClassPathXmlApplicationContext.<init>(ClassPathXmlApplicationContext.java:72) at com.offlinesupport.OfflineScriptSupport.initialize(OfflineScriptSupport.java:27) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke0(Native Method) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(NativeMethodAccessorImpl.java:39) at sun.reflect.DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.java:25) at java.lang.reflect.Method.invoke(Method.java:597) If I run the jar directly from Java (using the main entry point in OfflineScriptSupport) it works and there is no error thrown. Is there something special about the way Jython handles classpaths making the Springframework's ClassPathXmlApplicationContext not work (i.e. not be able to find resource files in the classpath)?

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  • How to combine designable components with dependency injection

    - by Wim Coenen
    When creating a designable .NET component, you are required to provide a default constructor. From the IComponent documentation: To be a component, a class must implement the IComponent interface and provide a basic constructor that requires no parameters or a single parameter of type IContainer. This makes it impossible to do dependency injection via constructor arguments. (Extra constructors could be provided, but the designer would ignore them.) Some alternatives we're considering: Service Locator Don't use dependency injection, instead use the service locator pattern to acquire dependencies. This seems to be what IComponent.Site.GetService is for. I guess we could create a reusable ISite implementation (ConfigurableServiceLocator?) which can be configured with the necessary dependencies. But how does this work in a designer context? Dependency Injection via properties Inject dependencies via properties. Provide default instances if they are necessary to show the component in a designer. Document which properties need to be injected. Inject dependencies with an Initialize method This is much like injection via properties but it keeps the list of dependencies that need to be injected in one place. This way the list of required dependencies is documented implicitly, and the compiler will assists you with errors when the list changes. Any idea what the best practice is here? How do you do it? edit: I have removed "(e.g. a WinForms UserControl)" since I intended the question to be about components in general. Components are all about inversion of control (see section 8.3.1 of the UMLv2 specification) so I don't think that "you shouldn't inject any services" is a good answer. edit 2: It took some playing with WPF and the MVVM pattern to finally "get" Mark's answer. I see now that visual controls are indeed a special case. As for using non-visual components on designer surfaces, I think the .NET component model is fundamentally incompatible with dependency injection. It appears to be designed around the service locator pattern instead. Maybe this will start to change with the infrastructure that was added in .NET 4.0 in the System.ComponentModel.Composition namespace.

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  • ASP.NET MVC Page - Viewstate for Confirm email field is getting erased on Registration Page if valid

    - by Rita
    Hi I have a Registaration page with the following fields Email, Confirm Email, Password and Confrim Password. On Register Button click and post the model to the server, the Model validates and if that Email is already Registered, it displays the Validation Error Message "User already Exists. Please Login or Register with a different email ID". While we are displaying this validation error message, I am loosing the value of "Confirm Email" field. So that the user has to reenter again and I want to avoid this. Here I don't have confirm_Email field in my Model. Is there something special that has to be done to remain Confirm Email value on the Page even in case of Validation failure? Appreciate your responses. Here is my Code: <% using (Html.BeginForm()) {%> <%= Html.ValidationSummary(false) %> <fieldset> <div class="cssform"> <p> <%= Html.LabelFor(model => model.Email)%><em>*</em> <%= Html.TextBoxFor(model => model.Email, new { @class = "required email" })%> <%= Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.Email)%> </p> <p> <%= Html.Label("Confirm email")%><em>*</em> <%= Html.TextBox("confirm_email")%> <%= Html.ValidationMessage("confirm_email") %> </p> <p> <%= Html.Label("Password")%><em>*</em> <%= Html.Password("Password", null, new { @class = "required" })%> <%= Html.ValidationMessage("Password")%><br /> (Note: Password should be minimum 6 characters) </p> <p> <%= Html.Label("Confirm Password")%><em>*</em> <%= Html.Password("confirm_password")%> <%= Html.ValidationMessage("confirm_password") %> </p><hr /> <p>Note: Confirmation email will be sent to the email address listed above.</p> </fieldset> <% } %>

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  • Where can I find information on the Get, Set and Address methods for multidimensional System.Array i

    - by Rob Smallshire
    System.Array serves as the base class for all arrays in the Common Language Runtime (CLR). According to this article, For each concrete array type, [the] runtime adds three special methods: Get/Set/Address. and indeed if I disassemble this C# code, int[,] x = new int[1024,1024]; x[0,0] = 1; x[1,1] = 2; x[2,2] = 3; Console.WriteLine(x[0,0]); Console.WriteLine(x[1,1]); Console.WriteLine(x[2,2]); into CIL I get, IL_0000: ldc.i4 0x400 IL_0005: ldc.i4 0x400 IL_000a: newobj instance void int32[0...,0...]::.ctor(int32, int32) IL_000f: stloc.0 IL_0010: ldloc.0 IL_0011: ldc.i4.0 IL_0012: ldc.i4.0 IL_0013: ldc.i4.1 IL_0014: call instance void int32[0...,0...]::Set(int32, int32, int32) IL_0019: ldloc.0 IL_001a: ldc.i4.1 IL_001b: ldc.i4.1 IL_001c: ldc.i4.2 IL_001d: call instance void int32[0...,0...]::Set(int32, int32, int32) IL_0022: ldloc.0 IL_0023: ldc.i4.2 IL_0024: ldc.i4.2 IL_0025: ldc.i4.3 IL_0026: call instance void int32[0...,0...]::Set(int32, int32, int32) IL_002b: ldloc.0 IL_002c: ldc.i4.0 IL_002d: ldc.i4.0 IL_002e: call instance int32 int32[0...,0...]::Get(int32, int32) IL_0033: call void [mscorlib]System.Console::WriteLine(int32) IL_0038: ldloc.0 IL_0039: ldc.i4.1 IL_003a: ldc.i4.1 IL_003b: call instance int32 int32[0...,0...]::Get(int32, int32) IL_0040: call void [mscorlib]System.Console::WriteLine(int32) IL_0045: ldloc.0 IL_0046: ldc.i4.2 IL_0047: ldc.i4.2 IL_0048: call instance int32 int32[0...,0...]::Get(int32, int32) IL_004d: call void [mscorlib]System.Console::WriteLine(int32) where the calls to the aforementioned Get and Set methods can be clearly seen. It seems the arity of these methods is related to the dimensionality of the array, which is presumably why they are created by the runtime and are not pre-declared. I couldn't locate any information about these methods on MSDN and their simple names makes them resistant to Googling. I'm writing a compiler for a language which supports multidimensional arrays, so I'd like to find some official documentation about these methods, under what conditions I can expect them to exist and what I can expect their signatures to be. In particular, I'd like to know whether its possible to get a MethodInfo object for Get or Set for use with Reflection.Emit without having to create an instance of the array with correct type and dimensionality on which to reflect, as is done in the linked example.

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  • Impersonation on Windows 2000 to Windows XP Leaves Connections Open

    - by Tallek
    I'm running on a Windows 2000 Pro SP4 box (off domain) and trying to impersonate a local user on a Windows XP box (on domain). I'm using code very similar to the WindowsImpersonationContextFacade in the question posted here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/879704/how-can-i-temporarily-impersonate-a-user-to-open-a-file. I am using impersonation to remotely start and stop windows services as well as access network shares (for some automated integration tests). To get this working, i had to use LOGON32_PROVIDER_DEFAULT and LOGON32_LOGON_NEW_CREDENTIALS when calling LogonUser. Everything worked beautifully ( Windows XP on domain to Windows XP on domain, Windows XP on domain to Windows Server 2003 off domain, and even Windows XP on domain to Windows 2000 off domain). The one issue was running on Windows 2000 Pro SP4 off the domain and trying to impersonate a local user on a Windows XP box running on the domain. To get the Windows 2000 piece working, i had to use LOGON32_PROVIDER_WINNT50 and LOGON32_LOGON_NEW_CREDENTIALS when calling LogonUser. This seemed to get me 95% of the way there, i could now impersonate the local user on the XP box and start/stop services as well as access a network share using the impersonated credentials. I'm running in to one problem though, calling Undo impersonation and closing the token handle seems to leave the connection to the remote box open. After about 10 or so impersonation calls, further impersonation attempts will fail with an error saying something about too many connections are currently open. If i look at the Computer Management - System Tools - Shared Folders - Sessions on my remote Windows XP box, i can see about 10 sessions open to the Windows 2000 box. I can manually close these (i think they may eventually close themselves, but not very quickly) and then impersonation begins working again few more times. This open session issue doesn't seem to be a problem in any of my other test scenarios, just when running locally on a Windows 2000 box. Any ideas? Edit 1: After some more testing and trying out many different things, this seems to be an issue with open sessions not being reused. On Windows 2000 only, every call to LogonUser to get a token and then using that token to impersonate seems to result in a new session being created. I'm guessing Windows XP & Windows Server 2003 are reusing open sessions since i don't seem to be having any issues with them. If I call LogonUser once, then cache the token, I seem to be able to make as many calls to impersonate as I need using the cached token without running in to the "too many connections" issue. This seems like an ugly work around though since i can't call CloseHandle() on my token every time i perform impersonation. Anybody have any thoughts or ideas, or am i stuck with this ugly hack? Thanks

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  • Share a "deep link" from a Windows 8/WinRT application

    - by Dave Parker
    I have searched using many different terms and phrases, and waded through many pages of results, but I have (remarkably) not seen anyone else addressing, even asking, about, this issue. So here goes... Ultimate Goal: Allow a user viewing a content-based page (may contain both text and images) within a Windows Store app to share that content with someone else. Description I am working on taking a fair amount of content and making it available for browsing/navigating as a Windows 8/WinRT/Windows Store (we need a consistent name here) application. One of the desired features is to take advantage of the Share Charm, such that someone viewing a page could share that page with someone else. The ideal behavior is for the application to implement the Share Source contract which would share an email message that contained some explanatory text, a link to get the app from the Windows Store, and a "deep link" into the shared page in the application. Solutions Considered We had originally looked at just generating a PDF representation of the page, but there are very few external libraries that would work under WinRT, and having to include externally licensed code would be problematic as well. Writing our own PDF generation code would out of scope. We have also considered generating a Word document or PowerPoint slide using OpenXML, but again, we run up against the limitaions of WinRT. In this case, it is highly unlikely the OpenXML SDK is useable in a WinRT application. Another thought was to pre-generate all of the pages as .pdf files, store them as resources, and when the Share Charm is invoked, share the .pdf file associated with the current page. The problem here is the application will have at least 150 content pages, and depending on how we break the content down, up to over 600. This would likely cause serious bloat. Where We Are At Thus we have come to sharing URIs. From what I can tell, though, the "deep linking" feature is only intended for use on Secondary Tiles tied to your application. Another avenue I considered was registering a protocol like, "my-special-app:" with the OS and having it fire up the application but that would require HKCR registry access, which is outside the WinRT sandbox. If it matters, we are leaning towards an HTML/JS application, rather than XAML/C#, because the converted content will all be in HTML and the WebView control in WinRT is fairly limited. This decision is not yet final, though. Conclusion So, is this possible, and if so, how would it be done or where can I find documentation on it? Thanks, Dave Parker

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  • WTF is wtf? (in WebKit code base)

    - by Motti
    I downloaded Chromium's code base and ran across the WTF namespace. namespace WTF { /* * C++'s idea of a reinterpret_cast lacks sufficient cojones. */ template<typename TO, typename FROM> TO bitwise_cast(FROM in) { COMPILE_ASSERT(sizeof(TO) == sizeof(FROM), WTF_wtf_reinterpret_cast_sizeof_types_is_equal); union { FROM from; TO to; } u; u.from = in; return u.to; } } // namespace WTF Does this mean what I think it means? Could be so, the bitwise_cast implementation specified here will not compile if either TO or FROM is not a POD and is not (AFAIK) more powerful than C++ built in reinterpret_cast. The only point of light I see here is the nobody seems to be using bitwise_cast in the Chromium project. I see there's some legalese so I'll put in the little letters to keep out of trouble. /* * Copyright (C) 2008 Apple Inc. All Rights Reserved. * * Redistribution and use in source and binary forms, with or without * modification, are permitted provided that the following conditions * are met: * 1. Redistributions of source code must retain the above copyright * notice, this list of conditions and the following disclaimer. * 2. Redistributions in binary form must reproduce the above copyright * notice, this list of conditions and the following disclaimer in the * documentation and/or other materials provided with the distribution. * * THIS SOFTWARE IS PROVIDED BY APPLE INC. ``AS IS'' AND ANY * EXPRESS OR IMPLIED WARRANTIES, INCLUDING, BUT NOT LIMITED TO, THE * IMPLIED WARRANTIES OF MERCHANTABILITY AND FITNESS FOR A PARTICULAR * PURPOSE ARE DISCLAIMED. IN NO EVENT SHALL APPLE INC. OR * CONTRIBUTORS BE LIABLE FOR ANY DIRECT, INDIRECT, INCIDENTAL, SPECIAL, * EXEMPLARY, OR CONSEQUENTIAL DAMAGES (INCLUDING, BUT NOT LIMITED TO, * PROCUREMENT OF SUBSTITUTE GOODS OR SERVICES; LOSS OF USE, DATA, OR * PROFITS; OR BUSINESS INTERRUPTION) HOWEVER CAUSED AND ON ANY THEORY * OF LIABILITY, WHETHER IN CONTRACT, STRICT LIABILITY, OR TORT * (INCLUDING NEGLIGENCE OR OTHERWISE) ARISING IN ANY WAY OUT OF THE USE * OF THIS SOFTWARE, EVEN IF ADVISED OF THE POSSIBILITY OF SUCH DAMAGE. */

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  • Is there a standard way to encode a .NET string into javascript string for use in MS AJAX?

    - by Rich Andrews
    I'm trying to pass the output of a SQL Server exception to the client using the RegisterStartUpScript method of the MS ScriptManager. This works fine for some errors but when the exception contains single quotes the alert fails. I dont want to only escape single quotes though - Is there a standard function i can call to escape any special chars for use in Javascript? string scriptstring = "alert('" + ex.Message + "');"; ScriptManager.RegisterStartupScript(this, this.GetType(), "Alert", scriptstring , true); Thanks tpeczek, the code almost worked for me :) but with a slight amendment (the escaping of single quotes) it works a treat. I've included my amended version here... public class JSEncode { /// <summary> /// Encodes a string to be represented as a string literal. The format /// is essentially a JSON string. /// /// The string returned includes outer quotes /// Example Output: "Hello \"Rick\"!\r\nRock on" /// </summary> /// <param name="s"></param> /// <returns></returns> public static string EncodeJsString(string s) { StringBuilder sb = new StringBuilder(); sb.Append("\""); foreach (char c in s) { switch (c) { case '\'': sb.Append("\\\'"); break; case '\"': sb.Append("\\\""); break; case '\\': sb.Append("\\\\"); break; case '\b': sb.Append("\\b"); break; case '\f': sb.Append("\\f"); break; case '\n': sb.Append("\\n"); break; case '\r': sb.Append("\\r"); break; case '\t': sb.Append("\\t"); break; default: int i = (int)c; if (i < 32 || i > 127) { sb.AppendFormat("\\u{0:X04}", i); } else { sb.Append(c); } break; } } sb.Append("\""); return sb.ToString(); } } As mentioned below - original source: here

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  • Algorithm for finding symmetries of a tree

    - by Paxinum
    I have n sectors, enumerated 0 to n-1 counterclockwise. The boundaries between these sectors are infinite branches (n of them). The sectors live in the complex plane, and for n even, sector 0 and n/2 are bisected by the real axis, and the sectors are evenly spaced. These branches meet at certain points, called junctions. Each junction is adjacent to a subset of the sectors (at least 3 of them). Specifying the junctions, (in pre-fix order, lets say, starting from junction adjacent to sector 0 and 1), and the distance between the junctions, uniquely describes the tree. Now, given such a representation, how can I see if it is symmetric wrt the real axis? For example, n=6, the tree (0,1,5)(1,2,4,5)(2,3,4) have three junctions on the real line, so it is symmetric wrt the real axis. If the distances between (015) and (1245) is equal to distance from (1245) to (234), this is also symmetric wrt the imaginary axis. The tree (0,1,5)(1,2,5)(2,4,5)(2,3,4) have 4 junctions, and this is never symmetric wrt either imaginary or real axis, but it has 180 degrees rotation symmetry if the distance between the first two and the last two junctions in the representation are equal. Edit: This is actually for my research. I have posted the question at mathoverflow as well, but my days in competition programming tells me that this is more like an IOI task. Code in mathematica would be excellent, but java, python, or any other language readable by a human suffices. Here are some examples (pretend the double edges are single and we have a tree) http://www2.math.su.se/~per/files.php?file=contr_ex_1.pdf http://www2.math.su.se/~per/files.php?file=contr_ex_2.pdf http://www2.math.su.se/~per/files.php?file=contr_ex_5.pdf Example 1 is described as (0,1,4)(1,2,4)(2,3,4)(0,4,5) with distances (2,1,3). Example 2 is described as (0,1,4)(1,2,4)(2,3,4)(0,4,5) with distances (2,1,1). Example 5 is described as (0,1,4,5)(1,2,3,4) with distances (2). So, given the description/representation, I want to find some algorithm to decide if it is symmetric wrt real, imaginary, and rotation 180 degrees. The last example have 180 degree symmetry. (These symmetries corresponds to special kinds of potential in the Schroedinger equation, which has nice properties in quantum mechanics.)

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  • Passing a parameter in the header (XML RPC)

    - by fudgey
    I'm trying to set up a server status for the MMORPG Champions Online. I got some basic information from the web master and this is all he told me: XML-RPC call to server: http://www.champions-online.com/xmlrpc.php function name: wgsLauncher.getServerStatus Parameter (language): en-US Now, I found a nice example to start with here, and I ended up with this code: <?php ini_set('display_errors', 1); error_reporting(E_ALL); # Using the XML-RPC extension to format the XML package $request = xmlrpc_encode_request("wgsLauncher.getServerStatus", "<param><value><string>en-US</string></value></param>", null ); # Using the cURL extension to send it off, # first creating a custom header block $header[] = "Host: http://www.champions-online.com:80/"; $header[] = "Content-type: text/xml"; $header[] = "Content-length: ".strlen($request) . "\r\n"; $header[] = $request; $ch = curl_init(); curl_setopt( $ch, CURLOPT_URL, "http://www.champions-online.com/xmlrpc.php"); # URL to post to curl_setopt( $ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, 1 ); # return into a variable curl_setopt( $ch, CURLOPT_HTTPHEADER, $header ); # custom headers, see above curl_setopt( $ch, CURLOPT_CUSTOMREQUEST, 'POST' ); # This POST is special, and uses its specified Content-type $result = curl_exec( $ch ); # run! curl_close($ch); echo $result; ?> But I'm getting a "400 Bad Request" error. I'm new to XML RPC and I barely know php, so I'm at a loss. The examples from the php site show how to use an array as a parameter, but nothing else. I obtained the parameter string <param><value><string>en-US</string></value></param> from this XMLRPC Debugger (very nice btw). I entered the parameter I needed in the "payload" box and this was the output. So, I would appreciate any help on how to pass this parameter to the header. Note: My host supports xmlrpc but it seems the function "xmlrpc_client" doesn't exist. Update: The web master replied with this information, but it's still not working... it's getting to the point I may just scrape the status off the page. $request = xmlrpc_encode_request("wgsLauncher.getServerStatus", "en-US" );

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  • Realtime Twitter Replies?

    - by ejunker
    I have created Twitter bots for many geographic locations. I want to allow users to @-reply to the Twitter bot with commands and then have the bot respond with the results. I would like to have the bot reply to the user as quickly as possible (realtime). Apparently, Twitter used to have an XMPP/Jabber interface that would provide this type of realtime feed of replies but it was shut down. As I see it my options are to use one of the following: REST API This would involve polling every X minutes for each bot. The problem with this is that it is not realtime and each Twitter account would have to be polled. Search API The search API does allow specifying a "-to" parameter in the search and replies to all bots could be aggregated in a search such as "-to bot1 OR -to bot2...". Though if you have hundreds of bots then the search string would get very long and probably exceed the maximum length of a GET request. Streaming API The streaming API looks very promising as it provides realtime results. The API allows you to specify a follow and track parameters. follow is not useful as the bot does not know who will be sending it commands. track allows you to specify keywords to track. This could possibly work by creating a daemon process that connects to the Streaming API and tracks all references to the bot's names. Once again since there are lots of bots to track the length and complexity of the query may be an issue. Another idea would be to track a special hashtag such as #botcommand and then a user could send a command using this syntax @bot1 weather #botcommand. Then by using the Streaming API to track all references to #botcommand would give you a realtime stream of all the commands. Further parsing could then be done to determine which bot to send the command to. Third-party service Are there any third-party companies that have access to the Twitter firehouse and offer realtime data? I haven't investigated these, but here are a few that I have found: Gnip Tweet.IM excla.im TwitterSpy - seems to use polling, not realtime I'm leaning towards using the Streaming API. Is there a better way to get near realtime @-replies for many (hundreds) of Twitter accounts?

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  • Container item implementation

    - by onurozcelik
    Hi, I am working in Train Traffic Controller software project. My responsibility in this project is to develop the visual railroad GUI. We are implementing the project with Qt. By now I am using QGraphicsLinearLayout to hold my items. I am using the layout because I do not want to calculate coordinates of each item. So far I wrote item classes to add the layout. For instance SwitchItem class symbolizes railroad switch in real world. Each item class is responsible for its own painting and events. So far so good. Now I need a composite item that can contain two or more item. This class is going to be responsible for painting the items contained in it. I need this class because I have to put two or more items inside same layout cell. If I don' t put them in same cell I can' t use layout. See the image below. BlockSegmentItem and SignalItem inside same cell. Here is my compositeitem implementation. #include "compositeitem.h" CompositeItem::CompositeItem(QString id,QList<FieldItem *> _children) { children = _children; } CompositeItem::~CompositeItem() { } QRectF CompositeItem::boundingRect() const { FieldItem *child; QRectF rect(0,0,0,0); foreach(child,children) { rect = rect.united(child->boundingRect()); } return rect; } void CompositeItem::paint(QPainter *painter, const QStyleOptionGraphicsItem *option, QWidget *widget ) { FieldItem *child; foreach(child,children) { child->paint(painter,option,widget); } } QSizeF CompositeItem::sizeHint(Qt::SizeHint which, const QSizeF &constraint) const { QSizeF itsSize(0,0); FieldItem *child; foreach(child,children) { // if its size empty set first child size to itsSize if(itsSize.isEmpty()) itsSize = child->sizeHint(Qt::PreferredSize); else { QSizeF childSize = child->sizeHint(Qt::PreferredSize); if(itsSize.width() < childSize.width()) itsSize.setWidth(childSize.width()); itsSize.setHeight(itsSize.height() + childSize.height()); } } return itsSize; } void CompositeItem::contextMenuEvent(QGraphicsSceneContextMenuEvent *event) { qDebug()<<"Test"; } This code works good with painting but when it comes to item events it is problematic. QGraphicsScene treats the composite item like a single item which is right for layout but not for events. Because each item has its own event implementation.(e.g. SignalItem has its special context menu event.) I have to handle item events seperately. Also I need a composite item implementation for the layout. How can I overcome this dilemma?

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  • How can I make the C# compiler infer these type parameters automatically?

    - by John Feminella
    I have some code that looks like the following. First I have some domain classes and some special comparators for them. public class Fruit { public int Calories { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } } public class FruitEqualityComparer : IEqualityComparer<Fruit> { // ... } public class BasketEqualityComparer : IEqualityComparer<IEnumerable<Fruit>> { // ... } Next, I have a helper class called ConstraintChecker. It has a simple BaseEquals method that makes sure some simple base cases are considered: public static class ConstraintChecker { public static bool BaseEquals(T lhs, T rhs) { bool sameObject = l == r; bool leftNull = l == null; bool rightNull = r == null; return sameObject && !leftNull && !rightNull; } There's also a SemanticEquals method which is just a BaseEquals check and a comparator function that you specify. public static bool SemanticEquals<T>(T lhs, T rhs, Func<T, T, bool> f) { return BaseEquals(lhs, rhs) && f(lhs, rhs); } And finally there's a SemanticSequenceEquals method which accepts two IEnumerable<T> instances to compare, and an IEqualityComparer instance that will get called on each pair of elements in the list via Enumerable.SequenceEquals. public static bool SemanticSequenceEquals<T, U, V>(U lhs, U rhs, V comparator) where U : IEnumerable<T> where V : IEqualityComparer<T> { return SemanticEquals(lhs, rhs, (l, r) => lhs.SequenceEqual(rhs, comparator)); } } // end of ConstraintChecker The point of SemanticSequenceEquals is that you don't have to define two comparators whenever you want to compare both IEnumerable<T> and T instances; now you can just specify an IEqualityComparer<T> and it will also handle lists when you invoke SemanticSequenceEquals. So I could get rid of the BasketEqualityComparer class, which would be nice. But there's a problem. The C# compiler can't figure out the types involved when you invoke SemanticSequenceEquals: return ConstraintChecker.SemanticSequenceEquals(lhs, rhs, new FruitEqualityComparer()); If I specify them explicitly, it works: return ConstraintChecker.SemanticSequenceEquals< Fruit, IEnumerable<Fruit>, IEqualityComparer<Fruit> > (lhs, rhs, new FruitEqualityComparer()); What can I change here so that I don't have to write the type parameters explicitly?

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  • windows phone deserialization json

    - by user2042227
    I have a weird issue. so I am making a few calls in my app to a webservice, which replies with data. However I am using a token based login system, so the first time the user enters the app I get a token from the webservice to login for that specific user and that token returns only that users details. The problem I am having is when the user changes I need to make the calls again, to get the new user's details, but using visual studio's breakpoint debugging, it shows the new user's token making the call however the problem is when the json is getting deserialized, it is as if it still reads the old data and deserializes that, when I exit my app with the new user it works fine, so its as if it is reading cached values, but I have no idea how to clear it? I am sure the new calls are being made and the problem lies with the deserializing, but I have tried clearing the values before deserializing them again, however nothing works. am I missing something with the json deserializer, how van I clear its cached values? here I make the call and set it not to cache so it makes a new call everytime: client.Headers[HttpRequestHeader.CacheControl] = "no-cache"; var token_details = await client.DownloadStringTaskAsync(uri); and here I deserialize the result, it is at this section the old data gets shown, so the raw json being shown inside "token_details" is correct, only once I deserialize the token_details, it shows the wrong data. deserialized = JsonConvert.DeserializeObject(token_details); and the class I am deserializing into is a simple class nothing special happening here, I have even tried making the constructor so that it clears the values each time it gets called. public class test { public string status { get; set; } public string name{ get; set; } public string birthday{ get; set; } public string errorDes{ get; set; } public test() { status = ""; name= ""; birthday= ""; errorDes= ""; } } uri's before making the calls: {https://whatever.co.za/token/?code=BEBCg==&id=WP7&junk=121edcd5-ad4d-4185-bef0-22a4d27f2d0c} - old call "UBCg==" - old reply {https://whatever.co.za/token/?code=ABCg==&id=WP7&junk=56cc2285-a5b8-401e-be21-fec8259de6dd} - new call "UBCg==" - new response which is the same response as old call as you can see i did attach a new GUID everytime i make the call, but then the new uri is read before making the downloadstringtaskasync method call, but it returns with the old data

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  • QValidator for hex input

    - by Evan Teran
    I have a Qt widget which should only accept a hex string as input. It is very simple to restrict the input characters to [0-9A-Fa-f], but I would like to have it display with a delimiter between "bytes" so for example if the delimiter is a space, and the user types 0011223344 I would like the line edit to display 00 11 22 33 44 Now if the user presses the backspace key 3 times, then I want it to display 00 11 22 3. I almost have what i want, so far there is only one subtle bug involving using the delete key to remove a delimiter. Does anyone have a better way to implement this validator? Here's my code so far: class HexStringValidator : public QValidator { public: HexStringValidator(QObject * parent) : QValidator(parent) {} public: virtual void fixup(QString &input) const { QString temp; int index = 0; // every 2 digits insert a space if they didn't explicitly type one Q_FOREACH(QChar ch, input) { if(std::isxdigit(ch.toAscii())) { if(index != 0 && (index & 1) == 0) { temp += ' '; } temp += ch.toUpper(); ++index; } } input = temp; } virtual State validate(QString &input, int &pos) const { if(!input.isEmpty()) { // TODO: can we detect if the char which was JUST deleted // (if any was deleted) was a space? and special case this? // as to not have the bug in this case? const int char_pos = pos - input.left(pos).count(' '); int chars = 0; fixup(input); pos = 0; while(chars != char_pos) { if(input[pos] != ' ') { ++chars; } ++pos; } // favor the right side of a space if(input[pos] == ' ') { ++pos; } } return QValidator::Acceptable; } }; For now this code is functional enough, but I'd love to have it work 100% as expected. Obviously the ideal would be the just separate the display of the hex string from the actual characters stored in the QLineEdit's internal buffer but I have no idea where to start with that and I imagine is a non-trivial undertaking. In essence, I would like to have a Validator which conforms to this regex: "[0-9A-Fa-f]( [0-9A-Fa-f])*" but I don't want the user to ever have to type a space as delimiter. Likewise, when editing what they types, the spaces should be managed implicitly.

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