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  • How can I get the name of the namespace from a SOAP message?

    - by olly
    Hi I have a SOAP message (see below). Using Xpath, how can I extract the name of the namespace from this message? In other words, is there an Xpath routine that will return the text "validateNewOrder"? Any suggestions or help would be invaluable. I have been searching everywhere but not found an solution. It is driving me crazy... Thanks! <?xml version='1.0' encoding='UTF-8'?> <SOAP-ENV:Envelope xmlns:SOAP-ENV="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/envelope/" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema"> <SOAP-ENV:Body> <ns1:validateNewOrder xmlns:ns1="http://sire.rabobank.nl/" SOAP-ENV:encodingStyle="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/encoding/"> <sireheader xmlns="http://sire.rabobank.nl/"> <sender> <compid>TEST</compid> </sender> </sireheader> <order xmlns="http://sire.rabobank.nl/"> <account>123456789</account> </order> </ns1:validateNewOrder> </SOAP-ENV:Body> </SOAP-ENV:Envelope>

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  • PHP DOMDocument getElementsByTagname??

    - by FFish
    This is driving me bonkers... I just want to add another img node. $xml = <<<XML <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <gallery> <album tnPath="tn/" lgPath="imm/" fsPath="iml/" > <img src="004.jpg" caption="4th caption" /> <img src="005.jpg" caption="5th caption" /> <img src="006.jpg" caption="6th caption" /> </album> </gallery> XML; $xmlDoc = new DOMDocument(); $xmlDoc->loadXML($xml); $album = $xmlDoc->getElementsByTagname('album')[0]; // Parse error: syntax error, unexpected '[' in /Applications/XAMPP/xamppfiles/htdocs/admin/tests/DOMDoc.php on line 17 $album = $xmlDoc->getElementsByTagname('album'); // Fatal error: Call to undefined method DOMNodeList::appendChild() in /Applications/XAMPP/xamppfiles/htdocs/admin/tests/DOMDoc.php on line 19 $newImg = $xmlDoc->createElement("img"); $album->appendChild($newImg); print $xmlDoc->saveXML(); Error:

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  • Facebook Open Graph - post to all approved users feeds.

    - by simnom
    Hi, I'm struggling to get to grips with posting a feed item to all the members of an approved application. Within the application settings for the user it is stating that the application has permission to post to the wall but I can only achieve this if that user is currently logged in to facebook. Obviously I would like this to function so that any items I uploaded are posted to all the members of the application at any one time. I am using the Facebook PHP SDK from http://github.com/facebook/php-sdk/ and currrently my code is as follows: require 'src/facebook.php'; //Generates access token for this transaction $accessToken = file_get_contents("https://graph.facebook.com/oauth/access_token?type=client_cred&client_id=MyAppId&client_secret=MySecret"); //Gets the full user details as an object $contents = json_decode(file_get_contents("https://graph.facebook.com/SomeUserId?scope=publish_stream&" . $accessToken)); print_r($contents); if ($facebook->api('/' . $contents->id . '/feed', 'POST', array( 'title' => 'New and Improved, etc - 12/03/2010', 'link' => 'http://www.ib3.co.uk/news/2010/03/12/new-and-improved--etc', 'picture' => 'http://www.ib3.co.uk/userfiles/image/etc-booking.jpg', 'scope' => 'publish_stream' ) )==TRUE) { echo "message posted"; } else { echo "message failed"; } The output from $contents shows the expected user details but nothing relating to the permissions for my application. Am I missing a trick here? Then using the $facebook-api() function I am receiving a #200 - Permissions error. The application does not have permission to perform this action. This is driving me a little potty as I suspect I'm missing something straightforward with the authorisation but what? Many thanks in advance for an assistance offered.

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  • Attention JavaScript gurus: Need a hand with setInterval()

    - by alex
    I am trying to make a non interactive display for a real estate shop window. It's been a while since I've played with setInterval(). The first time my script steps through, it is fine. But when it tries to get the next property via getNextProperty(), it starts to go haywire. If you have Firebug, or an equivalent output of console.log(), you'll see it is calling things it shouldn't! Now there is a fair bit of JavaScript, so I'll feel better linking to it than posting it all. Store Display Offending JavaScript It is worth mentioning all my DOM/AJAX is done with jQuery. I've tried as best to make sure clearInterval() is working, and it seems to not run any code below it. The setInterval() is used to preload the next image, and then display it in the gallery. When the interval detects we are at the last image ((nextListItem.length === 0)), it is meant to clear that interval and start over with a new property. It has been driving me nuts for a while now, so anyone able to help me? It is probably something really obvious! Many thanks!

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  • Opaque tenant identification with SQL Server & NHibernate

    - by Anton Gogolev
    Howdy! We're developing a nowadays-fashionable multi-tenanted SaaS app (shared database, shared schema), and there's one thing I don't like about it: public class Domain : BusinessObject { public virtual long TenantID { get; set; } public virtual string Name { get; set; } } The TenantID is driving me nuts, as it has to be accounted for almost everywhere, and it's a hassle from security standpoint: what happens if a malicious API user changes TenantID to some other value and will mix things up. What I want to do is to get rid of this TenantID in our domain objects altogether, and to have either NHibernate or SQL Server deal with it. From what I've already read on the Internets, this can be done with CONTEXT_INFO (here's a NHibernatebased implementation), NHibernate filters, SQL Views and with combination thereof. Now, my requirements are as follows: Remove any mentions of TenantID from domain objects ...but have SQL Server insert it where appropriate (I guess this is achieved with default constraints) ...and obviously provide support for filtering based on this criteria, so that customers will never see each other's data If possible, avoid SQL Server views. Have a solution which plays nicely with NHibernate, SQL Servers' MARS and general nature of SaaS apps being highly concurrent What are your thoughts on that?

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  • Korn shell wraparound

    - by allenratcliff
    Okay, I'm sure this is simple but it is driving me nuts. I recently went to work on a program where I've had to step back in time a bit and use Redhat 9. When I'm typing on the command line from a standard xterm running Korn shell, when I reach the end of the line the screen slides to the right (cutting off the left side of my command) instead of wrapping the text around to a new line. This makes things difficult for me because I can't easily copy and paste from the previous command straight from the command line. I have to look at the history and paste the command from there. In case you're wondering, I do a lot of command-line awk scripts that cause the line to get quite long. Is there a way to force the command line to wrap instead of shifting visibility to the right side of the command I'm typing? I've poured through man page options with no luck. I'm running XFree86 4.2.99.903(174) and KSH 5.2.14. Thanks.

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  • Singleton Pattern combine with a Decorator

    - by Mike
    Attached is a classic Decorator pattern. My question is how would you modify the below code so that you can wrap zero or one of each topping on to the Pizza Right now I can have a Pepporini - Sausage -- Pepporini -- Pizza class driving the total cost up to $10, charging twice for Pepporini. I don't think I want to use the Chain of Responsibility pattern as order does not matter and not all toppings are used? Thank you namespace PizzaDecorator { public interface IPizza { double CalculateCost(); } public class Pizza: IPizza { public Pizza() { } public double CalculateCost() { return 8.00; } } public abstract class Topping : IPizza { protected IPizza _pizzaItem; public Topping(IPizza pizzaItem) { this._pizzaItem = pizzaItem; } public abstract double CalculateCost(); } public class Pepporini : Topping { public Pepporini(IPizza pizzaItem) : base(pizzaItem) { } public override double CalculateCost() { return this._pizzaItem.CalculateCost() + 0.50; } } public class Sausage : Topping { public Sausage(IPizza pizzaItem) : base(pizzaItem) { } public override double CalculateCost() { return this._pizzaItem.CalculateCost() + 1.00; } } public class Onions : Topping { public Onions(IPizza pizzaItem) : base(pizzaItem) { } public override double CalculateCost() { return this._pizzaItem.CalculateCost() + .25; } } }

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  • SharePoint randomly replacing file names in web parts?

    - by nvuono
    Ok SharePoint is driving me crazy and I need to see if anyone has encountered a similar problem or knows of a solution: I have a content editor webpart with some HTML including links to PDF files that I've modified slightly to append an employee number querystring ie: <a href="http://moss.company.com/group/home/EPermits /Blank%20Form%20Templates/_blank_breach_permit.pdf?empNum=">New Breach Permit</a> And SharePoint seems to randomly replace the filename with aab04168 or some other similar characters: <a href="http://moss.company.com/group/home/EPermits /Blank%20Form%20Templates/aab04168?empNum=">New Breach Permit</a> After this happened a few times with no explanation I tried changing the content editor webpart to look directly at a documentLinks.html file located in the Shared Documents folder of the SharePoint site and guess what... SharePoint edited that document and replaced my filenames with random characters in there too! Figuring that filenames beginning with an underscore could be triggering some internal SharePoint procedures I've renamed all the files to remove the starting underscore--unfortunately the problem isn't immediately reproducible and I'm waiting right now to see if I run into any more trouble. edit: the underscore in the filename didn't help... my documentLinks.html wound up getting modified and all the hrefs were replaced with random characters again. Now I'm setting the hrefs in javascript with the filename text concatenated together from multiple strings. linkEle.href = ".../EPermits/Blank%20Form%20Templates/blank" + "_Chemical_Usage.pdf?empNum=" + empNumber;

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  • IE8 claims my page has an error, firefox doesn't, and I can't find any error. Help!

    - by Bears will eat you
    This is something of a follow-up question to my question here. You can find the HTML source in a text file here. When I load that page in IE8, I get the "Done, but with errors on page." message in my status bar. The detail view shows Expected identifier sms Line: 147 Code: 0 Char: 67 and I see absolutely no problems anywhere near there. In IE8, the page is still behaving erratically w/r/t the randomly losing focus as mentioned in my other question. When I load the same exact page in Firefox (using Firebug) the console shows no errors and the page works perfectly. Any thoughts on what's going on here? This is driving me nuts and making me want to give up on even trying to write an IE friendly page. Edit: Thanks for all the comments! This page is written as a JSP, so I edit in Eclipse. I found an Eclipse warning about the onblur event for the username field. I switched it from onblur="alert(document.activeElement + ' class:' + document.activeElement.class)" to onblur="alert(document.activeElement)" and that made the bizarre IE page error vanish. I had been trying to give more info (namely, its CSS class) about specifically which element is stealing focus - to my own detriment, apparently, since Javascript was interpreting the '.class' part in the Java(script) sense. And, no, the page doesn't validate. But the errors were mostly/all ones that just didn't make sense, such as Line 14, Column 41: Attribute "LANGUAGE" is not a valid attribute. Did you mean "language"? to which I say, WTF?! But I'm still stuck trying to figure out why, as I enter text in the username & password fields, focus randomly switches to a div (working on figuring out which div currently). Edit 2: It's the div between the two "global nav" comments, at the very top of the body. Still no idea why it's happening, though.

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  • Drupal-- How to place an image in Panels 3 panels and mini-panels, w/o views or nodes?

    - by msumme
    Is it possible, through any modular functionality, to insert an image into a (mini-)panel, either through token replacement, or through an upload dialog, or through a file selection menu? Do I have to use views? Do I have to create nodes? Would the best way be to make a panel node, and then embed it in a mini-node, if I want a block-like panel that can be placed on multiple pages? I want to build a site with images in a particular layout as a small block, and make it very easy for my client to change those images in the future. I can think of some other ways to make this work, but it's driving me crazy that there seems to be no way to simply PUT an image in a mini-panel without having to upload it and hard-code an image tag. And since my client knows no HTML, coding it this way makes it un-helpful for him. And this mini-panel block is going to be used on a number of pages, and needs to be easily modified. I have been googling for about 45 minutes, and come up with nothing useful. EDIT: OR EVEN just put ONLY one image from an image field w/ multiple values in a panel region on a panel node?

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  • Pecking order of pigeons?

    - by sc_ray
    I was going though problems on graph theory posted by Prof. Ericksson from my alma-mater and came across this rather unique question about pigeons and their innate tendency to form pecking orders. The question goes as follows: Whenever groups of pigeons gather, they instinctively establish a pecking order. For any pair of pigeons, one pigeon always pecks the other, driving it away from food or potential mates. The same pair of pigeons always chooses the same pecking order, even after years of separation, no matter what other pigeons are around. Surprisingly, the overall pecking order can contain cycles—for example, pigeon A pecks pigeon B, which pecks pigeon C, which pecks pigeon A. Prove that any finite set of pigeons can be arranged in a row from left to right so that every pigeon pecks the pigeon immediately to its left. Since this is a question on Graph theory, the first things that crossed my mind that is this just asking for a topological sort of a graphs of relationships(relationships being the pecking order). What made this a little more complex was the fact that there can be cyclic relationships between the pigeons. If we have a cyclic dependency as follows: A-B-C-A where A pecks on B,B pecks on C and C goes back and pecks on A If we represent it in the way suggested by the problem, we have something as follows: C B A But the above given row ordering does not factor in the pecking order between C and A. I had another idea of solving it by mathematical induction where the base case is for two pigeons arranged according to their pecking order, assuming the pecking order arrangement is valid for n pigeons and then proving it to be true for n+1 pigeons. I am not sure if I am going down the wrong track here. Some insights into how I should be analyzing this problem will be helpful. Thanks

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  • GridView will not update underlying data source

    - by John Christensen
    So I'm been pounding on this problem all day. I've got a LinqDataSource that points to my model and a GridView that consumes it. When I attempt to do an update on the GridView, it does not update the underlying data source. I thought it might have to do with the LinqDataSource, so I added a SqlDataSource and the same thing happens. The aspx is as follows (the code-behind page is empty): <asp:SqlDataSource ID="SqlDataSource1" runat="server" ConnectionString="Data Source=devsql32;Initial Catalog=Steam;Persist Security Info=True;" ProviderName="System.Data.SqlClient" SelectCommand="SELECT [LangID], [Code], [Name] FROM [Languages]" UpdateCommand="UPDATE [Languages] SET [Code]=@Code WHERE [LangID]=@LangId"> </asp:SqlDataSource> <asp:GridView ID="_languageGridView" runat="server" AllowPaging="True" AllowSorting="True" AutoGenerateColumns="False" DataKeyNames="LangId" DataSourceID="SqlDataSource1"> <Columns> <asp:CommandField ShowDeleteButton="True" ShowEditButton="True" /> <asp:BoundField DataField="LangId" HeaderText="Id" ReadOnly="True" /> <asp:BoundField DataField="Code" HeaderText="Code" /> <asp:BoundField DataField="Name" HeaderText="Name" /> </Columns> </asp:GridView> <asp:LinqDataSource ID="_languageDataSource" ContextTypeName="GeneseeSurvey.SteamDatabaseDataContext" runat="server" TableName="Languages" EnableInsert="True" EnableUpdate="true" EnableDelete="true"> </asp:LinqDataSource> What in the world am I missing here? This problem is driving me insane.

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  • Experience with Take home Programming Test for Interviews

    - by Alan
    Okay this is not "programming" related per-se, but it is a situation that I believe the SO audience would be more familiar with, than say an ask.yahoo.com audience, so please forgive me. I had a phone screen the other day with a company that I really want to work for. It went pretty well, based on cues from the HR person, such as "Next step we're going to send you a programming test," and "Well, before I get ahead of myself, do you want to continue the interviewing process." and "We'll send out the test later this afternoon. It doesn't sound like you'll have trouble with it, but I want to be honest we do have a high failure rate on it." The questions asked weren't technical, just going down my resume, and talking about the work I've done, and how it relates to the position. Nothing I couldn't talk through. This was last Thursday. It's now Tuesday, and haven't received the test yet. I sent a follow up email yesterday to the lady who interviewed me, but haven't gotten a response. Anyone had a similar experience? Am I reading too much into this? Or was I off the mark by thinking I had moved on to the next step in the interview process. Since this is a company I really want to work for, I'm driving myself insane enumerating all the various what-if scenarios.

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  • iPhone OpenGL ES Texture2D Masking

    - by Robert Neagu
    What's the best choice when trying to mask a texture like ColorSplash or other apps like iSteam, etc? I started learning OPENGL ES like... 4 days ago (I'm a total rookie) and tried the following approach: 1) I created a colored texture2D, a grayscale version of the first texture and a third texture2D called mask 2) I also created a texture2D for the brush... which is grayscale and it's opaque (brush = black = 0,0,0,1 and surroundings = white = 1,1,1,1). My intention was to create an antialiased brush with smooth edges but i'm fine with a normal one right now 3) I searched for masking techniques on the internet and found this tutorial ZeusCMD - Design and Development Tutorials : OpenGL ES Programming Tutorials - Masking about masking. The tutorial tells me to use blending to achieve masking... first draw colored, then mask with glBlendFunc(GL_DST_COLOR, GL_ZERO) and then grayscale with glBlendFunc(GL_ONE, GL_ONE) ... and this gives me something close to what i want... but not exactly what i want. The result is masked but it's somehow overbright-ed 4) For drawing to the mask texture i used an extra frame buffer object (FBO) I'm not really happy with the resulting image (overbright-ed picture) nor with the speed achieved with this method. I think the normal way was to draw directly to the grayscale (overlay) texture2D affecting only it's alpha channel in the places where the brush hits. Is there a fast way to achieve this? I have searched a lot and never got an answer that's clear and understandable. Then, in the main draw loop I could only draw the colored texture and then blend the grayscale ontop with glBlendFunc(GL_SRC_ALPHA, GL_ONE_MINUS_SRC_ALPHA). I just want to learn to use OPENGL ES and it's driving me nuts because i can't get it to work properly. An advice, a link to a tutorial would be much appreciated.

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  • response.redirect to classic asp failing

    - by jeff
    I have the following code pasted below. For some reason, the response.redirect seems to be failing and it is maxing out the cpu on my server and just doesn't do anything. The .net code uploads the file fine, but does not redirect to the asp page to do the processing. I know this is absolute rubbish why would you have .net code redirecting to classic asp, it is a legacy app. I have tried putting false or true etc. at the end of the redirect as I have read other people have had issues with this. Please help as it's driving me insane! It's so strange, it runs locally on my machine but won't run on my server! public void btnUploadTheFile_Click(object Source, EventArgs evArgs) { //need to check that the uploaded file is an xls file. string strFileNameOnServer = "PJI3.txt"; string strBaseLocation = ConfigurationSettings.AppSettings["str_file_location"]; if ("" == strFileNameOnServer) { txtOutput.InnerHtml = "Error - a file name must be specified."; return; } if (null != uplTheFile.PostedFile) { try { uplTheFile.PostedFile.SaveAs(strBaseLocation+strFileNameOnServer); txtOutput.InnerHtml = "File <b>" + strBaseLocation+strFileNameOnServer+"</b> uploaded successfully"; Response.Redirect ("/COBRA/pages/sap_import_pji3_prc.asp"); } catch (Exception e) { txtOutput.InnerHtml = "Error saving <b>" + strBaseLocation+strFileNameOnServer+"</b><br>"+ e.ToString(); } } }

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  • edmx - The operation could not be completed - When adding Inheritance

    - by vdh_ant
    Hey guys I have an edmx model which I have draged 2 tables onto - One called 'File' and the other 'ApplicaitonFile'. These two tables have a 1 to 1 relationship in the database. If I stop here everything works fine. But in my model, I want 'ApplicaitonFile' to inherit from 'File'. So I delete the 1 to 1 relationship then configure 'ApplicaitonFile' from 'File' and then remove the FileId from 'ApplicaitonFile' which was the primary key. (Note I am following the instructions from here). If I leave the model open at this point everything is fine, but as soon as I close it, if I try and reopen it again I get the following error "The operation could not be completed". I have been searching for a solution and found this - http://stackoverflow.com/questions/944050/entity-model-does-not-load but as far as I can tell I don't have a duplicate InheritanceConnectors (although I don't know exactly what I'm looking for but I can't see anything out of the ordinary - like 2 connectors with the same name) and the relationship I originally have is a 1 to 1 not a 1 to 0..1 Any ideas??? this is driving me crazy...

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  • Jetty 7 will not allow me to customize a session cookie path

    - by Bob Obringer
    Using Jetty 7.0.2, I am unable to set a custom session cookie path. I am hosting multiple sites on the same server using apache to proxy requests to the proper context. (replaced http as htp as stackoverflow thinks my multiple links might be spam) <VirtualHost *:80> ServerName context.domain.com ProxyRequests On ProxyPreserveHost Off <Proxy *:80> Order deny,allow Allow from 127.0.0.1 </Proxy> ProxyPass / htp://localhost:8080/context/ ProxyPassReverse / htp://localhost:8080/context/ <Location /> Order allow,deny Allow from all </Location> </VirtualHost> Jetty is running on the same server on port 8080 and my context is available @ /context The user accesses the application @ htp://context.domain.com but jetty is setting the path for the session cookie @ /context. This prevents the browser from accessing the cookie since the the actual path to the context is not being used. I need to override Jetty's default setting to set the cookie for the context, and set the path at the root ( / ). In my Jetty's webdefault.xml I have the following, which is partially working: <context-param> <param-name>org.eclipse.jetty.servlet.SessionCookie</param-name> <param-value>CustomCookieName</param-value> </context-param> <context-param> <param-name>org.eclipse.jetty.servlet.SessionPath</param-name> <param-value>/</param-value> </context-param> The cookie is properly set with a custom name, but it is NOT setting the SessionPath. No matter what I set the value to... it refuses to set a cookie at any path but /context. This has been driving me crazy so any help would be greatly appreciated.

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  • What is the fastest way to do division in C for 8bit MCUs?

    - by Jordan S
    I am working on the firmware for a device that uses an 8bit mcu (8051 architecture). I am using SDCC (Small Device C Compiler). I have a function that I use to set the speed of a stepper motor that my circuit is driving. The speed is set by loading a desired value into the reload register for a timer. I have a variable, MotorSpeed that is in the range of 0 to 1200 which represents pulses per second to the motor. My function to convert MotorSpeed to the correct 16bit reload value is shown below. I know that float point operations are pretty slow and I am wondering if there is a faster way of doing this... void SetSpeed() { float t = MotorSpeed; unsigned int j = 0; t = 1/t ; t = t / 0.000001; j = MaxInt - t; TMR3RL = j; // Set reload register for desired freq return; }

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  • Focus CSS tag in Internet Explorer 8

    - by Sam
    This is driving me nuts. http://www.cssdrive.com/index.php/examples/exampleitem/focus_pseudo_class This is an example of using the hover pseudo-class. Works fine in Chrome and IE. When I save locally it works fine in Chrome but won't work in IE. What am I doing wrong!? <link rel="Stylesheet" href="style.css" /> <form> <p>1) Name:<br /> <input type="text" size="40"></p> <p>2) Email address:<br /> <input type="text" size="40"></p> <p>3) Comments:<br /> <textarea rows="5" name="comments" cols="45" wrap="virtual"></textarea></p> <p><input id="actualsubmit" type="submit" value="Submit"></p> </form> style.css: input:focus, textarea:focus{ background-color: lightyellow; }

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  • Snow Leopard mounted directory changes permissions sporadically

    - by Galen
    I have a smb mounted directory: /Volumes/myshare This was mounted via Finder "Connect to Server..." with smb://myservername/myshare Everything good so far. However, when I try to access the directory via PHP (running under Apache), it fails with permission denied about 10% of the time. By this I mean that repeated accesses to my page sometimes result in a failure. My PHP page looks like: <?php $cmd = "ls -la /Volumes/ 2>&1"; exec($cmd, $execOut, $exitCode); echo "<PRE>EXIT CODE = $exitCode<BR/>"; foreach($execOut as $line) { echo "$line <BR/>"; } echo "</PRE>"; ?> When it succeeds it looks like: EXIT CODE = 0 total 40 drwxrwxrwt@ 4 root admin 136 Jun 14 12:34 . drwxrwxr-t 30 root admin 1088 Jun 4 13:09 .. drwx------ 1 galen staff 16384 Jun 14 09:28 myshare lrwxr-xr-x 1 root admin 1 Jun 11 16:05 galenhd - / When it fails it looks like: EXIT CODE = 1 ls: myshare: Permission denied total 8 drwxrwxrwt@ 4 root admin 136 Jun 14 12:34 . drwxrwxr-t 30 root admin 1088 Jun 4 13:09 .. lrwxr-xr-x 1 root admin 1 Jun 11 16:05 galenhd - / OTHER INFO: I'm working with the PHP (5.3.1), and Apache server that comes out of the box with Snow Leopard. Also, if I write a PHP script that loops and retries the "ls -la.." from the command-line, it doesn't seem to fail. Nothing is changing about the code and/or filesystem between succeeds and fails, so this appears to be a truly intermittent failure. This is driving me crazy. Anyone have any idea what might be going on? Thanks, Galen

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  • temporary tables within stored procedures on slave servers with readonly set

    - by lau
    Hi, We have set up a replication scheme master/slave and we've had problems lately because some users wrote directly on the slave instead of the master, making the whole setup inconsistent. To prevent these problems from happening again, we've decided to remove the insert, delete, update, etc... rights from the users accessing the slave. Problems is that some stored procedure (for reading) require temporary tables. I read that changing the global variable read_only to true would do what I want and allow the stored procedures to work correctly ( http://dev.mysql.com/doc/refman/5.0/en/server-system-variables.html#sysvar_read_only ) but I keep getting the error : The MySQL server is running with the --read-only option so it cannot execute this statement (1290) The stored procedure that I used (for testing purpose) is this one : DELIMITER $$ DROP PROCEDURE IF EXISTS test_readonly $$ CREATE DEFINER=dbuser@% PROCEDURE test_readonly() BEGIN CREATE TEMPORARY TABLE IF NOT EXISTS temp ( BT_INDEX int(11), BT_DESC VARCHAR(10) ); INSERT INTO temp (BT_INDEX, BT_DESC) VALUES (222,'walou'), (111,'bidouille'); DROP TABLE temp; END $$ DELIMITER ; The create temporary table and the drop table work fine with the readonly flag - if I comment the INSERT line, it runs fine- but whenever I want to insert or delete from that temporary table, I get the error message. I use Mysql 5.1.29-rc. My default storage engine is InnoDB. Thanks in advance, this problem is really driving me crazy.

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  • Play Multiple iPod Library Songs On iPhone At The Same Time With Pitch Bending & Other Effects

    - by Dino
    Hi, I have been going at this for the past two weeks and it is driving me crazy. I asked this question a couple of days ago (Extract iPod Library raw PCM samples and play with sound effects) and whilst the answer got me half way there I am still stuck. Basically what I am trying to achieve is load up multiple songs from the iPod library for playback with effects such as pitch bend, eq effects etc... I have gone down the route of AVPlayer and AVAudioPlayer which are too simple. The only framework I've seen that can play audio with these effects is OpenAL. I have tried a few objective c wrappers (Finch and ObjectAL) Finch does not play compressed audio whilst ObjectAL will only convert it for me if I pass in a URL for the file (which is something I cannot do because I only have an incompatible iPod library URL). An example of an app that does what I want beautifilly is Tap DJ. It can load up songs from the iPod library fast (unlike TouchDJ and it plays them with all sorts of effects. Any help would be much appreciated.

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  • Objective C map view delegate viewForAnnotation for MKAnnotation gets just called after click

    - by user1185486
    I have a simple Map view. It has a method -(void)loadAndDisplayPois{ NSLog(@"loadAndDisplayPois"); if(mapView.annotations.count > 0) [mapView removeAnnotations:mapView.annotations]; self.pois = [self loadPoisFromDatabase]; NSLog(@"self.pois.count: %i", self.pois.count); [mapView addAnnotations:self.pois]; NSLog(@"mapView.annotations.count: %i",mapView.annotations.count);} This method gets called, and I am sure that the method gets called because of the Log, after I downloaded data and saved it into the database. The class which handles the download executes after saving the data to the database [self.senderObj performSelector:@selector(loadAndDisplayPois)]; Where senderObj is the MapViewControlller. The count Log from the pois array shows 4 after the first time I clicked. But no Annotations on the view, because viewForAnnotation is not called (one Annotation in the array ( my current position)). After I execute the method again by clicking a TEST button shows everything on the map. The viewForAnnotation method gets called after viewWillAppear and after I clicked the TEST button. It is driving me nuts since 2 days. I cant anymore ...

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  • additive texture combiner

    - by ivicaa
    I have a problem which is driving me crazy. Enironment: IPHONE, OpenGL ES 1.1 Basically I have a simple GL_COMBINE for vertex color and texture color. glColor4f(0.1f, 0.1f, 0.1f, 0); glTexEnvi(GL_TEXTURE_ENV, GL_TEXTURE_ENV_MODE, GL_COMBINE); glTexEnvi(GL_TEXTURE_ENV, GL_COMBINE_RGB, GL_ADD); glTexEnvi(GL_TEXTURE_ENV, GL_SRC0_RGB, GL_PRIMARY_COLOR); glTexEnvi(GL_TEXTURE_ENV, GL_OPERAND0_RGB, GL_SRC_COLOR); glTexEnvi(GL_TEXTURE_ENV, GL_SRC1_RGB, GL_TEXTURE); glTexEnvi(GL_TEXTURE_ENV, GL_OPERAND1_RGB, GL_SRC_COLOR); glTexEnvi(GL_TEXTURE_ENV, GL_COMBINE_ALPHA, GL_ADD); glTexEnvi(GL_TEXTURE_ENV, GL_SRC0_ALPHA, GL_PRIMARY_COLOR); glTexEnvi(GL_TEXTURE_ENV, GL_OPERAND0_ALPHA, GL_SRC_ALPHA); glTexEnvi(GL_TEXTURE_ENV, GL_SRC1_ALPHA, GL_TEXTURE); glTexEnvi(GL_TEXTURE_ENV, GL_OPERAND1_ALPHA, GL_SRC_ALPHA); It should simply do VertexColorRGBA + TextureRGBA. With Alpha everything works fine, but if as soon as I change R,G,B in the glColor4f call, the final alpha is also modified. Does anyone have a hint for this unexpected behavior? Thanks in advance! Ivica

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  • Adobe Air update error "file version doesn't match" but it's the same!...

    - by baroquedub
    I'm using Claus Wahlers' AIR Remote Updater class (codeazur.com.br/lab/airremoteupdater/). All works fine and an update is triggered if the remote version is newer. The newer file is downloaded and the update starts. However I then get "an error has occured" message: "This application cannot be installed because this installer has been mis-configured" (The same file will update without errors when run manually "Would you like to replace the currently installed version?" Choosing 'replace' works fine) I have enabled Air Application Installer logging and I can see that both the app id and the pub id match - this seems to be a common reason for this problem (forums.adobe.com/thread/243421?tstart=60) The error given in the log file is as follows: AIR file version doesn't match Requested version: ; AIR file version: 1.0.2 But if I unzip the new app file and look at META-INF\AIR\application.xml the version designator shows <version>1.0.2</version> As requested! The log file is also showing me where the newer file is being downloaded and unpacked. If I look at the application.xml file in that directory: Unpackaging to C:\Documents and Settings\myusername\Local Settings\Temp\fla893D.tmp the version designator also shows <version>1.0.2</version> I don't get it?! The log tells me that the requested file version doesn't match but it's exactly the same as what's shown in the version designator of the downloaded update package... This is driving me crazy. Can anyone help?

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