Search Results

Search found 1563 results on 63 pages for 'nick johnson'.

Page 35/63 | < Previous Page | 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42  | Next Page >

• ASP.NET: images broken when combining URL Rewriting, asp:ImageButton and html base tag

  - by Nick G

  Hi, I'm using URL Rewriting under ASP.NET 4 (using ISAPI_Rewrite) and I'm finding that that some of my images are not loading as .NET does not seem to understand I'm using an html BASE tag (pretty standard and essential when doing URL Rewriting): eg in my development environment I have: <base href='http://localhost/venuefinder/Website/'></base> and on my pages I have: <asp:ImageButton runat="server" ImageUrl="~/images/button.gif" /> On the home page of the site (http://localhost/venuefinder/Website/) this works fine, however on a page that uses URL rewriting, the image does not work: /venuefinder/Website/venues/ashton_gate_stadium/V18639/ ..as the browser is trying to load: http://localhost/images/buttons/search-button.gif instead of: http://localhost/venuefinder/Website/venues/images/buttons/search-button.gif This is happening because .NET is rendering the button as: src="../../../images/buttons/search-button.gif" ...which is incorrect. Is there any way I can correct this problem so that .NET renders the correct src attribute for the image? (without all the ../../../ etc)

  Read the article

• CoffeeScript on Windows?

  - by Nick Perkins

  How can I try CoffeeScript on Windows? The installation instructions are only for *nix: http://jashkenas.github.com/coffee-script/#installation EDIT: I don't think I need node.js -- I am just writing javascript for web pages, (using some jQuery, etc)...So all I really want is simple way to write CoffeeScript and "compile" it down to JavaScript. Isn't there a Ruby program that would do it? Or even better, a windows exe? (i dont use ASP.NET either...i use Python/Django) FINAL EDIT: Thanks for the help -- In the end I installed VirtualBox and created a virtual Linux machine which I now use to program coffeescript with node.js. (It was surprisingly easy to start using VirtualBox -- easier than doing the Cygwin thing). I run jEdit (for which you can get a CoffeeScript syntax highlighter) and I put the corresponding js file side-by-side with the coffeescript file. When I compile the coffeescript to js, the editor automatically re-loads the new javascript, which allows me to check that it has compiled the way I expect (which is a good thing while learning the coffeescript syntax).

  Read the article

• UISearchDisplayController not working when created in code??

  - by Nick Bedford

  I'm working on a tab bar application and one of the tabs has a UISearchDisplayController hooked up to a UISearchBar. It's all connected up in the NIB and is working. When I tap the search bar, the Scope and Cancel buttons fly in etc, and the search delegate updates the results table correctly. However, I'm trying to implement the same code in the viewDidLoad message instead of the NIB, however when I delete the search display controller from the NIB and uncomment my code to create the same controller in the function, it doesn't work. It's as if there's some fundamental connection not being made so that all my search delegate functionality isn't being called. Here's my working NIB version of the Search Display Controller. It's hooked up to the search bar, the UINavigationController subclass (MASearchController) and the root view of that is hooked up as the searchContentsController. Now this is what you would expect to do in code to create the same, right? What I'm doing is leaving the UISearchBar in the NIB to eliminate one piece of the puzzle at a time in code. // [MASearchController viewDidLoad] UISearchDisplayController *searchController = [[[UISearchDisplayController alloc] initWithSearchBar:searchBar contentsController:[[self viewControllers] objectAtIndex:0]] autorelease]; [searchController setDelegate:self]; [searchController setSearchResultsDelegate:self]; [searchController setSearchResultsDataSource:self]; I've checked all objects at run time and they all check out. Essentially I've deleted the search display controller from the NIB and then put in the code to create it in the viewDidLoad message. Why would this not work? The search keyboard comes up but none of my search and button animation functionality work???

  Read the article

• Using Google Visualization in GWT 2.0

  - by nick

  I'm working on learning GWT (total newb) and have a question regarding the Visualiztion API provided by Google. This page: http://code.google.com/p/gwt-google-apis/wiki/VisualizationGettingStarted Describes getting started with a pie chart (which is what I need). However I'm trying to do this in a composite UI using UiBinder. To that end I don't know how to handle the callback correctly that is shown: public class SimpleViz implements EntryPoint { public void onModuleLoad() { // Create a callback to be called when the visualization API // has been loaded. Runnable onLoadCallback = new Runnable() { public void run() { Panel panel = RootPanel.get(); // Create a pie chart visualization. PieChart pie = new PieChart(createTable(), createOptions()); pie.addSelectHandler(createSelectHandler(pie)); panel.add(pie); } }; // Load the visualization api, passing the onLoadCallback to be called // when loading is done. VisualizationUtils.loadVisualizationApi(onLoadCallback, PieChart.PACKAGE); } My First assumption is this would go in the UiBinder constructor, correct? Yet this assumes that I want to place the element in the RootLayoutPanel, and I don't. I can't see an elegant and obvious way of placing it in the binder. I submit that even this guess may be wrong. Any ideas from the experts?

  Read the article

• ValidateCredentials() returns FALSE on First Call but TRUE on Subsequent Calls

  - by Nick Gotch

  I'm using the following code to authenticate users on my web service: using (PrincipalContext context = new PrincipalContext(ContextType.Domain, domain)) { return context.ValidateCredentials(userName, password); } The obstacle I'm running into is that the first call to ValidateCredentials() is returning false but subsequent calls return true. I placed a breakpoint at this line and in the Intermediate window I see the same results: first call returns false, second returns true, even though nothing was changed (by me) between calls. The 'domain' is String.Empty but I've also tried it with the actual domain name and get the same results. I'm not that versed in network administration so any help would be appreciated,

  Read the article

• InstallUtil Publishing WMI Schema to 64 Bit Directory Instead of 32 Bit Directory

  - by Nick

  This is similar to this question, but it doesn't look like a good solution was ever determined, so I'm opening a new one with clarified details. We wrote a .NET service, which among other things, publishes some of the class hierarchy using WMI. On a 64-Bit machine, we are running the 32-bit version of InstallUtil to install the service. It installs successfully, but when the service runs, we receive the following error message when publishing a WMI class using Instrumentation.Publish() DirectoryNotFoundException - (Could not find a part of the path 'C:\Windows\system32\WBEM\Framework\root\MyNamespace\MyService'.) However, this directory does exist in the C:\Windows\syswow64 directory. If we manually copy that directory structure to the system32 directory, then everything works. However, we are looking for automated solution, because we have this packaged up in an MSI which we distribute onto many servers. We have tried running the 64-Bit version of InstallUtil, to see if that would work, however... and this is the really weird part... it gives us an error on install that says Installing WMI Schema: Started An exception occurred during the Install phase. System.IO.DirectoryNotFoundException: Could not find a part of the path 'C:\Windows\system32\WBEM\Framework\root\MyNamespace\MyService.mof'. It looks as if somehow, the WMI installer flipped around. Has anyone else experienced this, or know of a work around?

  Read the article

• Violating 1st normal form, is it okay for my purpose?

  - by Nick

  So I'm making a running log, and I have the workouts stored as entries in a table. For each workout, the user can add intervals (which consist of a time and a distance), so I have an array like this: [workout] => [description] => [comments] => ... [intervals] => [0] => [distance] => 200m [time] => 32 [1] => [distance] => 400m [time] => 65 ... I'm really tempted to throw the "intervals" array into serialize() or json_encode() and put it in an "intervals" field in my table, however this violates the principles of good database design (which, incidentally, I know hardly anything about). Is there any disadvantage to doing this? I never plan on querying my table based on the contents of "intervals". Creating a separate table just for intervals seems like a lot of unnecessary complexity, so if anyone with more experience has had a situation like this, what route did you take and how did it work out?

  Read the article

• How to use bean in JSP?

  - by Nick

  How to use bean in JSP with only <jsp:useBean>, not MVC? Assume you have a grade.txt file which contains following data: Tom 90 Jerry 70 Katy 80 John 60 It asks you to create a bean named grade.java, a JSP page named graderesult.jsp, and a html page named gradecheck.html. gradecheck.html provides a input textbox and a button submit, once you submit the name of the student, the graderesult.jsp will communicates with bean to show the name and the score corresponding to the person.

  Read the article

• Launching a Youtube video with Dashcode

  - by Nick

  Hi! I've run into an issue and have been unable to find documentation to answer my question. I was hoping someone could help... Basically, I'm making a iPhone Web App which has a button which needs to link to a Youtube video. I'd like to press the button and have the video load in the Youtube app on the iPhone. I cannot figure out how to do this. Help please?! Thanks

  Read the article

• How do I get a list of child elements from XDocument object?

  - by Nick

  Hello.. I am trying to get all of the "video" elements and their attributes from an XML file that looks like this: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <videos> <video title="video1" path="videos\video1.wma"/> <video title="video2" path="videos\video2.wma"/> <video title="video3" path="videos\video3.wma"/> </videos> The following will only select the root node and all of the children. I would like to get all of the 'video' elements into the IEnumerable. Can someone tell me what I'm doing wrong? IEnumerable<XElement> elements = from xml in _xdoc.Descendants("videos") select xml; The above returns a collection with a length == 1. It contains the root element and all the children.

  Read the article

• CSS background image being downloaded more than once

  - by Nick Clarke

  I noticed in my current project that Firefox (3.5.4) downloads the background image (set in CSS) for my divs more than once. I've checked with both firebug and wireshark and it really does appear that it does not wait for the first request to finish and then simply use the cached version. Wireshark also confirms that Chrome and IE8 do as expected and only request the image once. Any ideas what might be causing this? Here is a small test: Sample Page or <html> <head> <style> #one { height: 300px; width:100%; background: #FFF url('random.jpg'); } #two { height: 300px; width:100%; background: #FFF url('random.jpg'); } #three { height: 300px; width:100%; background: #FFF url('random.jpg'); } </style> </head> <body> <div id="one"></div> <div id="two"></div> <div id="three"></div> </body> EDIT I opened up a bug request as I could not find one already on bugzilla, but it turns out to be an old bug with 3.5. https://bugzilla.mozilla.org/show_bug.cgi?id=497665

  Read the article

• Why am I losing sessions when running in StateServer mode?

  - by Nick Allen - Tungle139

  I have checked the servers (Win Server 2003) application event logs for the following problem http://support.microsoft.com/kb/308097 which doesn't show up. It just appears that sessions drop randomly for random users It's a single server setup, no web farms and no load balancing Even though the issue I point to above doesn't occur in the logs, is it worth increasing the stateNetworkTimeout attribute anyway? The configuration at the moment is simply <sessionState mode="StateServer" cookieless="false" stateConnectionString="tcpip=localhost:42424" timeout="60"/>

  Read the article

• Getting rid of the Expires node in the WS security header

  - by Nick

  From the snippet below, how do i get rid of the <wsu:Expires> tag? I want to either get rid of it or pass it in as a empty element. It is a read only property in objClient.RequestSoapContext.Security.Timestamp.Expires. Any help is appreciated. <wsse:Security soap:mustUnderstand="1"> <wsu:Timestamp wsu:Id="Timestamp-26d09d54-10ef-4141-aa2c-11c75ed8172b"> <wsu:Created>2010-03-08T15:32:16Z</wsu:Created> <wsu:Expires>2010-03-08T15:37:16Z</wsu:Expires> </wsu:Timestamp> <wsse:UsernameToken xmlns:wsu="http://docs.oasis-open.org/wss/2004/01/oasis-200401-wss-wssecurity-utility-1.0.xsd" wsu:Id="SecurityToken-7c9b80ec-98e9-4e41-af2e-ad37070cbdd3"> <wsse:Username>bubba</wsse:Username> <wsse:Password Type="http://docs.oasis-open.org/wss/2004/01/oasis-200401-wss-username-token-profile-1.0#PasswordDigest">dsfdfsdfsfs+-dasdf=</wsse:Password> <wsse:Nonce>QQ3C4HUfO2CyGx7HrjzMzg==</wsse:Nonce> <wsu:Created>2010-03-08T15:32:16Z</wsu:Created> </wsse:UsernameToken> </wsse:Security>

  Read the article

• Data sharing amongst JPA Entities

  - by Nick

  Setup: I have a simple web app that has a handfull of forms, each on a separate page. These forms represent patient data. There is a one-to-one relationship between patient and all these forms/entities. Each form maps directly to a db table and a JPA entity, maybe not the best architecture but it works and is simple. Question: If form/entity A and form/entity B share a common chunk of data (one of more fields), what is the best way to handle that in JPA. I.E. - If the data gets inserted via form A, I need it to show up in form B as existing data and vice versa. In other words its logical for both entities to contain that data. I believe I will have to move the common data into its own entity and define the relationships that way, but I have tried many different ways and none gets me all the way, at least with basic JPA. Can this be done through pure JPA relationships or will I have to write a bunch of code to make this happen manually. Not looking for code specifically, just the correct way to model this data. Thanks.

  Read the article

• How to tell what name RIA Services/EF Model uses for Associations?

  - by Nick Gotch

  Hi, I'm working on a C#.NET 3.5 WCF RIA Services app and having an issue with my Entity Framework model. My entity Foo is mapped to a DB table and has a primary key called FooId. My Bar is mapped to a DB view. I've selectively designed this view to generate a composite key in the EF using two of the columns (by making sure they were non-nullable and the others are all nullable. This was done using NULLIF and ISNULL in the view design.) I'm able to add this view to the model with no problem but I keep running into an issue when I try to map an association between the two. Foo should contain many Bars but I keep getting the following error when I add the association: Unable to retrieve AssociationType for association 'FK_Bar_Foo' According to this page, it looks like this might work if I can properly name the association (since RIA Services looks for specific names.) I've tried several variants of names that match the pattern of other associations with no success. Does anyone know if there's a place I can look to find out what name it's looking for? Thanks,

  Read the article

• Jersey, Apache HTTPD, and javax.annotation.security usage

  - by Nick Klauer

  So I'm having a heck of a time trying to piece together what I think is a pretty simple implementation. This is very similar to another StackOverflow question only I can't leverage Tomcat to handle role based authentication. I have an Apache httpd server in front of my app that handles authentication and then passes LDAP roles to a Jersey service through Headers. I've created a servlet filter to parse the header and tease out the roles the request came from, which works fine globally to the app, but isn't fine-grained enough to dictate what an Admin could do that a User could not. I'm thinking I could use the javax.annotation.security annotations that JAX-RS supports, but I don't know how to take what I've parsed out using a servlet filter to set or instantiate the SecurityContext necessary for the roles @RolesAllowed.

  Read the article

• Securely store a password in program code?

  - by Nick

  My application makes use of the RijndaelManaged class to encrypt data. As a part of this encryption, I use a SecureString object loaded with a password which get's get converted to a byte array and loaded into the RajindaelManaged object's Key at runtime. The question I have is the storage of this SecureString. A user entered password can be entered at run-time, and that can be "securely" loaded into a SecureString object, but if no user entered password is given, then I need to default to something. So ultimately the quesiton comes down to: If I have to have some known string or byte array to load into a SecureString object each time my application runs, how do I do that? The "encrypted" data ultimately gets decrypted by another application, so even if no user entered password is specified, I still need the data to be encrypted while it goes from one app to another. This means I can't have the default password be random, because the other app wouldn't be able to properly decrypt it. One possible solution I'm thinking is to create a dll which only spits out a single passphrase, then I use that passphrase and run it through a couple of different hashing/reorganizing functions at runtime before I ultimately feed it into the secureString object. Would this be secure enough?

  Read the article

• Accessing UI thread of a form?

  - by Nick Brooks

  I'm using C# and I'm making an application where a lot of UI loading must be done in background. Is it possible to do it unsafely and ignore InvalidOperationExceptions? The only way I found it to put try...catch statements around every single line of code but this will take ages as there is too much code.

  Read the article

• Graph limitations - Should I use Decorator?

  - by Nick Wiggill

  I have a functional AdjacencyListGraph class that adheres to a defined interface GraphStructure. In order to layer limitations on this (eg. acyclic, non-null, unique vertex data etc.), I can see two possible routes, each making use of the GraphStructure interface: Create a single class ("ControlledGraph") that has a set of bitflags specifying various possible limitations. Handle all limitations in this class. Update the class if new limitation requirements become apparent. Use the decorator pattern (DI, essentially) to create a separate class implementation for each individual limitation that a client class may wish to use. The benefit here is that we are adhering to the Single Responsibility Principle. I would lean toward the latter, but by Jove!, I hate the decorator Pattern. It is the epitome of clutter, IMO. Truthfully it all depends on how many decorators might be applied in the worst case -- in mine so far, the count is seven (the number of discrete limitations I've recognised at this stage). The other problem with decorator is that I'm going to have to do interface method wrapping in every... single... decorator class. Bah. Which would you go for, if either? Or, if you can suggest some more elegant solution, that would be welcome. EDIT: It occurs to me that using the proposed ControlledGraph class with the strategy pattern may help here... some sort of template method / functors setup, with individual bits applying separate controls in the various graph-canonical interface methods. Or am I losing the plot?

  Read the article

• Validate Linq2Sql before SubmitChanges()

  - by Nick Gotch

  Can anyone tell me if/how you can validate the changes in a data context in Linq2Sql before calling SubmitChanges(). The situation I have is that I create a context, perform multiple operations and add many inserts alongside other processing tasks and then rollback if the submit fails. What I'd prefer to do is make some kind of "Validate()" call after certain tasks are done so that I can handle it before submitting the entire job.

  Read the article

• Window deactivation message?

  - by Nick Brooks

  What is the opposite of WM_ACTIVATE (Window deactivation message)?

  Read the article

• How do you set the name attribute of a TextBox control in a .Net 3.5 project?

  - by Nick Allen - Tungle139

  Self explanatory really

  Read the article

• Using an ODBC application with a JDBC driver

  - by Nick Retallack

  My company uses Vertica. We have Python applications that connect to it with pyodbc. I do most of my development on a Mac (Snow Leopard) and unfortunately Vertica has not released ODBC drivers for Mac. They do have JDBC drivers though. I don't think developing in Jython is a good compromise. Is there any way to use JDBC drivers with an ODBC application? Some kind of ODBC connector?

  Read the article

• What is best strategy to handle exceptions & errors in Rails?

  - by Nick Gorbikoff

  Hello. I was wondering if people would share their best practices / strategies on handling exceptions & errors. Now I'm not asking when to throw an exception ( it has been throroughly answered here: SO: When to throw and Exception) . And I'm not using this for my application flow - but there are legitimate exceptions that happen all the time. For example the most popular one would be ActiveRecordNotFound. What would be the best way to handle it? The DRY way? Right now I'm doing a lot of checking within my controller so if Post.find(5) returns Nil - I check for that and throw a flash message. However while this is very granular - it's a bit cumbersome in a sense that I need to check for exceptions like that in every controller, while most of them are essentially the same and have to do with record not found or related records not found - such as either Post.find(5) not found or if you are trying to display comments related to post that doesn't exist, that would throw an exception (something like Post.find(5).comments[0].created_at) I know you can do something like this in ApplicationController and overwrite it later in a particular controller/method to get more granular support, however would that be a proper way to do it? class ApplicationController < ActionController::Base rescue_from ActiveRecord::RecordInvalid do |exception| render :action => (exception.record.new_record? ? :new : :edit) end end

  Read the article

• Time zone for Force.com API fiscal date literals?

  - by Nick

  I have a question about fiscal date literals in the Force.com API (http://www.salesforce.com/us/developer/docs/api/Content/sforce_api_calls_soql_select_dateformats.htm): For which time zone are date ranges calculated? For example, suppose we execute the query: SELECT Id FROM Opportunity WHERE CloseDate = THIS_FISCAL_QUARTER where, according to our company's fiscal settings, THIS_FISCAL_QUARTER runs from Jan 1 to Mar 31. Does the range for THIS_FISCAL_QUARTER use... the user's time zone? For example, if the user's time zone is GMT-8, THIS_FISCAL_QUARTER = Jan 1 00:00 GMT-8 to Mar 31 23:59 GMT-8 (or Jan 1 08:00 UTC to Mar 31 07:59 UTC) the company's default time zone (according to the company profile)? For example, if the company's default time zone is GMT-8, THIS_FISCAL_QUARTER = Jan 1 00:00 GMT-8 to Mar 31 23:59 GMT-8 (or Jan 1 08:00 UTC to Mar 31 07:59 UTC) UTC? THIS_FISCAL_QUARTER = Jan 1 00:00 UTC to Mar 31 23:59 UTC something else?

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42  | Next Page >