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  • Using C# to HttpPost data to a web page

    - by druffmuff
    I want to log in into a website using C# code. Here's the html code of the example form: <form action="http://www.site.com/login.php" method="post" name="login" id="login"> <table border="0" cellpadding="2" cellspacing="0"> <tbody> <tr><td><b>User:</b></td><td colspan=\"2\"><b>Password:</b></td></tr> <tr> <td><input class="inputbg" name="user" type="text"></td> <td><input class="inputbg" name="password" type="password"></td> <td><input type="submit" name="user_control" value="Submit" class="buttonbg"></td> </tr> </tbody></table> </form> This is what I have tried so far with unsuccessful results: HttpWebRequest request = (HttpWebRequest)WebRequest.Create("http://www.site.com/login.php"); request.Method = "POST"; using (StreamWriter writer = new StreamWriter(request.GetRequestStream(), Encoding.ASCII)) { writer.Write("user=user&password=pass&user_control=Eingabe"); } HttpWebResponse response = (HttpWebResponse)request.GetResponse(); using (StreamReader reader = new StreamReader(response.GetResponseStream())) { stream = new StreamWriter("login.html"); stream.Write(reader.ReadToEnd()); stream.Close(); } Any Ideas, why this is failing?

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  • Dependency injection in constructors

    - by andre
    Hello everyone. I'm starting a new project and setting up the base to work on. A few questions have risen and I'll probably be asking quite a few in here, hopefully I'll find some answers. First step is to handle dependencies for objects. I've decided to go with the dependency injection design pattern, to which I'm somewhat new, to handle all of this for the application. When actually coding it I came across a problem. If a class has multiple dependencies and you want to pass on multiple dependencies via the constructor (so that they cannot be changed after you instantiate the object). How do you do it without passing an array of dependencies, using call_user_func_array(), eval() or Reflection? This is what i'm looking for: <?php class DI { public function getClass($classname) { if(!$this->pool[$classname]) { # Load dependencies $deps = $this->loadDependencies($classname); # Here is where the magic should happen $instance = new $classname($dep1, $dep2, $dep3); # Add to pool $this->pool[$classname] = $instance; return $instance; } else { return $this->pool[$classname]; } } } Again, I would like to avoid the most costly methods to call the class. Any other suggestions?

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  • Run arbitrary subprocesses on Windows and still terminate cleanly?

    - by Weeble
    I have an application A that I would like to be able to invoke arbitrary other processes as specified by a user in a configuration file. Batch script B is one such process a user would like to be invoked by A. B sets up some environment variables, shows some messages and invokes a compiler C to do some work. Does Windows provide a standard way for arbitrary processes to be terminated cleanly? Suppose A is run in a console and receives a CTRL+C. Can it pass this on to B and C? Suppose A runs in a window and the user tries to close the window, can it cancel B and C? TerminateProcess is an option, but not a very good one. If A uses TerminateProcess on B, C keeps running. This could cause nasty problems if C is long-running, since we might start another instance of C to operate on the same files while the first instance of C is still secretly at work. In addition, TerminateProcess doesn't result in a clean exit. GenerateConsoleCtrlEvent sounds nice, and might work when everything's running in a console, but the documentation says that you can only send CTRL+C to your own console, and so wouldn't help if A were running in a window. Is there any equivalent to SIGINT on Windows? I would love to find an article like this one: http://www.cons.org/cracauer/sigint.html for Windows.

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  • Java: which configuration framework to use?

    - by Laimoncijus
    Hi, I need to decide which configuration framework to use. At the moment I am thinking between using properties files and XML files. My configuration needs to have some primitive grouping, e.g. in XML format would be something like: <configuration> <group name="abc"> <param1>value1</param1> <param2>value2</param2> </group> <group name="def"> <param3>value3</param3> <param4>value4</param4> </group> </configuration> or a properties file (something similar to log4j.properties): group.abc.param1 = value1 group.abc.param2 = value2 group.def.param3 = value3 group.def.param4 = value4 I need bi-directional (read and write) configuration library/framework. Nice feature would be - that I could read out somehow different configuration groups as different objects, so I could later pass them to different places, e.g. - reading everything what belongs to group "abc" as one object and "def" as another. If that is not possible I can always split single configuration object into smaller ones myself in the application initialization part of course. Which framework would best fit for me?

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  • C++ converting back and forth from derived and base classes

    - by user127817
    I was wondering if there is a way in C++ to accomplish the following: I have a base class called ResultBase and two class that are Derived from it, Variable and Expression. I have a few methods that do work on vector<ResultBase> . I want to be able to pass in vectors of Variable and Expression into these methods. I can achieve this by creating a vector<ResultBase> and using static_cast to fill it with the members from my vector of Variable/Expression. However, once the vector has run through the methods, I want to be able to get it back as the vector of Result/Expression. I'll know for sure which one I want back. static_cast won't work here as there isn't a method to reconstruct a Variable/Expression from a ResultBase, and more importantly I wouldn't have the original properties of the Variables/Expressions The methods modify some of the properties of the ResultBase and I need those changes to be reflected in the original vectors. (i.e. ResultBase has a property called IsLive, and one of the methods will modify this property. I want this IsLive value to be reflected in the derived class used to create the ResultBase Whats the easiest way to accomplish this?

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  • $HTTP_RAW_POST_DATA and Wordpress media_handle_upload

    - by BaronVonKaneHoffen
    Hi there! So I'm making something for which users need to upload images from a canvas element (on the front end) using Wordpress's in-built Media Upload API. I've successfully uploaded images with the API from a file input in a form: <input type="file" name="async-upload" id="async-upload" size="40" /> ... <?php $new_attach_id = media_handle_upload( 'async-upload', $new_id ); ?> and I've saved images from the canvas using my own script: <script type="text/javascript"> ... var img = canvas.toDataURL("image/png"); ... ajax.send(img ); </script> ... <?php $imageData=$GLOBALS['HTTP_RAW_POST_DATA']; $filteredData=substr($imageData, strpos($imageData, ",")+1); $unencodedData=base64_decode($filteredData); $fp = fopen( 'saved_images/canv_save_test.png', 'wb' ); fwrite( $fp, $unencodedData); ... ?> Problem is, Wordpress's media_handle_upload() only accepts an index to the $_FILES array for the upload. So the question is: How can I pass the image data from HTTP_RAW_POST_DATA to it? Could I make the $_FILES['tmp-name'] point to it somehow? Could I use another script as an intermediate step somehow? Could I unleash the monkeys on the typewriter until they come up with the answer? Any help very very much appreciated! Thanks, Kane

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  • Working With Feeds and Lists

    - by Nathan Campos
    I'm using a ListView component to list up some informations at a RSS feed, but when the user clicks the row, I want to change into a detailed view of that RSS Item, so far I've done this: function parseFeed(feed) { var html = ""; for(var i = 0; i < feed.items.length && i < 5; i++) { var item = feed.items[i]; var title = item.title; html += "\n<li onClick='goDetailed()'>\n"; html += "<h3><a href='#' class='ui-link-inherit'>" + title + "</a></h3>\n"; html += "<p>" + item.description + "</p>\n"; html += "</li>"; } $("#dList").append(html); $("#dList").listview('refresh'); } function goDetailed() { $.mobile.changePage($('#detailedPage')); } One of my problems is that the Back button won't come back(it does nothing). My other question is how I can pass the item.title, item.description, item.link and item.updated of the selected row(feed item) to some <div data-role="content">'s at the detail page.

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  • How safe and reliable are C++ String Literals?

    - by DoctorT
    So, I'm wanting to get a better grasp on how string literals in C++ work. I'm mostly concerned with situations where you're assigning the address of a string literal to a pointer, and passing it around. For example: char* advice = "Don't stick your hands in the toaster."; Now lets say I just pass this string around by copying pointers for the duration of the program. Sure, it's probably not a good idea, but I'm curious what would actually be going on behind the scenes. For another example, let's say we make a function that returns a string literal: char* foo() { // function does does stuff return "Yikes!"; // somebody's feeble attempt at an error message } Now lets say this function is called very often, and the string literal is only used about half the time it's called: // situation #1: it's just randomly called without heed to the return value foo(); // situation #2: the returned string is kept and used for who knows how long char* retVal = foo(); In the first situation, what's actually happening? Is the string just created but not used, and never deallocated? In the second situation, is the string going to be maintained as long as the user finds need for it? What happens when it isn't needed anymore... will that memory be freed up then (assuming nothing points to that space anymore)? Don't get me wrong, I'm not planning on using string literals like this. I'm planning on using a container to keep my strings in check (probably std::string). I'm mostly just wanting to know if these situations could cause problems either for memory management or corrupted data.

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  • How to return ArrayList results from an IntentService

    - by gcl1
    I have an IntentService that loads up an ArrayList with data from a network source (AWS SDB tables). The ArrayList is in a global space -- accessible to both the calling Activity and the IntentService (like this: appState = ((App)getApplicationContext())). When the IntentService is done, it notifies the Activity through a ResultReceiver, and the Activity calls adapter.notifyDataChanged() to update the ListView. This solution works most of the time, ... but it violates the rule that only the UI thread should make changes to data underlying a ListView. So as it is, I sometimes get an error: "The content of the adapter has changed but ListView did not receive a notification." I think this must be a common situation. Please let me know if you have any suggestions or best practices for this problem. Here are three options I'm aware of: Keep the IntentService, and have it store the results in another "working" ArrayList, also in the global space. When the result is ready, the IntentService calls the ResultReceiver (on the UI thread), which can then: a) copy the result to the ArrayList associated with the ListView, and b) call adapter.notifyDataChanged(). CONS: I don't like the idea of putting temp/working data in a global space, and copying the result list seems inefficient. Keep the IntentService, and have it pass the results back through a bundle loaded with a ParcelableArrayList. CONS: I'm not sure if this approach would scale for very large result sets. It also requires copying the result list. Switch to a Service which builds a local copy of the result list. Have the Activity directly access the address space of the Service in order to read the result list. CON: Still requires copying results to the ArrayList associated with the ListView. Thank you.

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  • Parsing custom time format with SimpleDateFormat

    - by ggrigery
    I'm having trouble parsing a date format that I'm getting back from an API and that I have never seen (I believe is a custom format). An example of a date: /Date(1353447000000+0000)/ When I first encountered this format it didn't take me long to see that it was the time in milliseconds with a time zone offset. I'm having trouble extracting this date using SimpleDateFormat though. Here was my first attempt: String weirdDate = "/Date(1353447000000+0000)/"; SimpleDateFormat sdf = new SimpleDateFormat("'/Date('SSSSSSSSSSSSSZ')/'"); Date d1 = sdf.parse(weirdDate); System.out.println(d1.toString()); System.out.println(d1.getTime()); System.out.println(); Date d2 = new Date(Long.parseLong("1353447000000")); System.out.println(d2.toString()); System.out.println(d2.getTime()); And output: Tue Jan 06 22:51:41 EST 1970 532301760 Tue Nov 20 16:30:00 EST 2012 1353447000000 The date (and number of milliseconds parsed) is not even close and I haven't been able to figure out why. After some troubleshooting, I discovered that the way I'm trying to use SDF is clearly flawed. Example: String weirdDate = "1353447000000"; SimpleDateFormat sdf = new SimpleDateFormat("S"); Date d1 = sdf.parse(weirdDate); System.out.println(d1.toString()); System.out.println(d1.getTime()); And output: Wed Jan 07 03:51:41 EST 1970 550301760 I can't say I've ever tried to use SDF in this way to just parse a time in milliseconds because I would normally use Long.parseLong() and just pass it straight into new Date(long) (and in fact the solution I have in place right now is just a regular expression and parsing a long). I'm looking for a cleaner solution that I can easily extract this time in milliseconds with the timezone and quickly parse out into a date without the messy manual handling. Anyone have any ideas or that can spot the errors in my logic above? Help is much appreciated.

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  • Dynamic WCF base addresses in SharePoint

    - by Paul Bevis
    I'm attempting to host a WCF service in SharePoint. I have configured the service to be compatible with ASP.NET to allow me access to HttpContext and session information [AspNetCompatibilityRequirements(RequirementsMode = AspNetCompatibilityRequirementsMode.Required)] public class MISDataService : IMISDataService { ... } And my configuration looks like this <system.serviceModel> <serviceHostingEnvironment aspNetCompatibilityEnabled="true" /> <services> <service name="MISDataService"> <endpoint address="" binding="webHttpBinding" contract="MISDataViews.IMISDataService" /> </service> </services> </system.serviceModel> Whilst this gives me access to the current HTTP context, the serivce is always hosted under the root domain, i.e. http://www.mydomain.com/_layouts/MISDataService.svc. In SharePoint the URL being accessed gives you specific context information about the current site via the SPContext class. So with the service hosted in a virtual directory, I would like it to be available on mulitple addresses e.g. http://www.mydomain.com/_layouts/MISDataService.svc http://www.mydomain.com/sites/site1/_layouts/MISDataService.svc http://www.mydomain.com/sites/site2/_layouts/MISDataService.svc so that the service can figure out what data to return based upon the current context. Is it possible to configure the endpoint address dynamically? Or is the only alternative to host the service in one location and then pass the "context" to it some how?

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  • Having trouble parsing XML with jQuery

    - by Jack
    Hi Guys, I'm trying to parse some XML data using jQuery, and as it stands I have extracted the 'ID' attribute of the required nodes and stored them in an array, and now I want to run a loop for each array member and eventually grab more attributes from the notes specific to each ID. The problem currently is that once I get to the 'for' loop, it isn't looping, and I think I may have written the xml path data incorrectly. It runs once and I recieve the 'alert(arrayIds.length);' only once, and it only loops the correct amount of times if I remove the subsequent xml path code. Here is my function: var arrayIds = new Array(); $(document).ready(function(){ $.ajax({ type: "GET", url: "question.xml", dataType: "xml", success: function(xml) { $(xml).find("C").each(function(){ $("#attr2").append($(this).attr('ID') + "<br />"); arrayIds.push($(this).attr('ID')); }); for (i=0; i<arrayIds.length; i++) { alert(arrayIds.length); $(xml).find("C[ID='arrayIds[i]']").(function(){ // pass values alert('test'); }); } } }); }); Any ideas?

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  • Fun with casting and inheritance

    - by Vaccano
    NOTE: This question is written in a C# like pseudo code, but I am really going to ask which languages have a solution. Please don't get hung up on syntax. Say I have two classes: class AngleLabel: CustomLabel { public bool Bold; // code to allow the label to be on an angle } class Label: CustomLabel { public bool Bold; // Code for a normal label // Maybe has code not in an AngleLabel (align for example). } They both decend from this class: class CustomLabel: Control { protected bool Bold; } The bold field is exposed as public in the descended classes. No interfaces are available on the classes. Now, I have a method that I want to beable to pass in a CustomLabel and set the Bold property. Can this be done without having to 1) find out what the real class of the object is and 2) cast to that object and then 3) make seperate code for each variable of each label type to set bold. Kind of like this: public void SetBold(customLabel: CustomLabel) { AngleLabel angleLabel; NormalLabel normalLabel; if (angleLabel is AngleLabel ) { angleLabel= customLabel as AngleLabel angleLabel.Bold = true; } if (label is Label) { normalLabel = customLabel as Label normalLabel .Bold = true; } } It would be nice to maybe make one cast and and then set bold on one variable. What I was musing about was to make a fourth class that just exposes the bold variable and cast my custom label to that class. Would that work? If so, which languages would it work for? (This example is drawn from an old version of Delphi (Delphi 5)). I don't know if it would work for that language, (I still need to try it out) but I am curious if it would work for C++, C# or Java. If not, any ideas on what would work? (Remember no interfaces are provided and I can not modify the classes.) Any one have a guess?

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  • IOS : BAD ACCESS when trying to add a new Entity object

    - by Maverick447
    So i'm using coredata to model my relationships . This is the model in brief Type A can have one or more types of type B Type B has a inverse relationship of being associated with one of type A Type B can have one or more types of type C Type C has a inverse relationship of being associated with one of type B From a UI standpoint , I have a Navigation controller with controllers that successively sets up the first A object (VC-1) , then another viewcontroller (VC-2) creates a B object ( I pass in the A object to this controller) and the B object is added to the A object . Similarly the same thing happens with B and C . The third Viewcontroller (VC3) first creates a C object and assigns it to the passed B Object . Also between these viewcontrollers the managedObjectCOntext is also passed . SO my use case is such that while viewcontroller (VC-3) is the top controller a button action will keep creating multiple objects of type C and add them to the same type B object that was passed . Also as part of this function I save the managedObject context after saving each type C . e.g. code in viewcontroller 3 - (void) SaveNewTypeC { TypeC *newtypeC = (Question*)[NSEntityDescription insertNewObjectForEntityForName:@"TypeC" inManagedObjectContext:managedObjectContext]; [newtypeC setProp1:] ; [newtypeC setProp2:] .. .. **[typeBObject addTypeCInTypeBObject:newtypeC];** [section setTotalCObjectCount:[ NSNumber numberWithInt:typeCIndex++]]; NSError *error = nil; if (![managedObjectContext save:&error]) { // Handle error NSLog(@"Unresolved error %@, %@, %@", error, [error userInfo],[error localizedDescription]); exit(-1); // Fail } [newtypeC release]; } - (IBAction)selectedNewButton:(id)sender { [self SaveNewTypeC]; [self startRepeatingTimer]; } The BAD ACCESS seems to appear when the bold line above executes Relating to some HashValue . Any clues on resolving this would be helpful .

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  • Copy constructor called even when returning by reference?

    - by Johnyy
    Hi, I am testing the return of local objects by reference. My original test went well but something else happens unexpected. #include <iostream> using namespace std; class MyInt { public: MyInt(int i){ value = new int(i); } ~MyInt(){ delete value; } int getValue(){ return *value; } MyInt(const MyInt &b){ cout<<"Copy"<<endl; } private: int* value; }; MyInt& returnref(){ MyInt a(10); cout<<"Returning from returnref()"<<endl; return a; } int main(){ MyInt a = returnref(); cout<<a.getValue()<<endl; return 0; } My console prints "Returning from ..." then "Copy" then a random value. My understanding of pass by reference is that it does not need to make any copy. Why is it not doing what I expected?

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  • Injecting correct object graph using StructureMap in Queue of different Objects

    - by davy
    I have a queuing service that has to inject a different dependency graph depending on the type of object in the queue. I'm using Structure Map. So, if the object in the queue is TypeA the concrete classes for TypeA are used and if it's TypeB, the concrete classes for TypeB are used. I'd like to avoid code in the queue like: if (typeA) { // setup TypeA graph } else if (typeB) { // setup TypeB graph } Within the graph, I also have a generic classes such as an IReader(ISomething, ISpomethingElse) where IReader is generic but needs to inject the correct ISomething and ISomethingElse for the type. ISomething will also have dependencies and so on. Currently I create a TypeA or TypeB object and inject a generic Processor class using StructureMap into it and then pass a factory manually inject a TypeA or TypeB factory into a method like: Processor.Process(new TypeAFactory) // perhaps I should have an abstract factory... However, because the factory then creates the generic IReader mentioned above, I end up manually injecting all the TypeA or TypeB classes fro there on. I hope enough of this makes sense. I am new to StructureMap and was hoping somebody could point me in the right direction here for a flexible and elegant solution. Thanks

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  • IE8 removes background-color of header row of Asp:Gridview

    - by Hitesh Riziya
    I am using Asp.net 4.0 GridView control to display data from database. I have applied the inbuilt theme to GridView. <asp:GridView ID="gv" runat="server" CellPadding="4" EmptyDataText="No records found." ForeColor="#333333" OnRowCommand="gv_RowCommand" Width="99%" OnPageIndexChanging="gv_PageIndexChanged" PageSize="50" AllowPaging="True" GridLines="None" AutoGenerateColumns="true"> <AlternatingRowStyle BackColor="White" /> <EditRowStyle BackColor="#7C6F57" /> <FooterStyle BackColor="#1C5E55" Font-Bold="True" ForeColor="White" /> <HeaderStyle CssClass="GridHeader" BackColor="#1C5E55" Font-Bold="True" ForeColor="White" HorizontalAlign="Left" /> <PagerStyle BackColor="#666666" ForeColor="White" HorizontalAlign="Center" /> <RowStyle BackColor="#E3EAEB" /> <SelectedRowStyle BackColor="#C5BBAF" Font-Bold="True" ForeColor="#333333" /> <SortedAscendingCellStyle BackColor="#F8FAFA" /> <SortedAscendingHeaderStyle BackColor="#246B61" /> <SortedDescendingCellStyle BackColor="#D4DFE1" /> <SortedDescendingHeaderStyle BackColor="#15524A" /></asp:GridView> I tried setting the CSS forcefully in my Master page .GridHeader { background-color:#1C5E55 !important;} But I am still missing the background-color. I can see the backgroundcolor applied to grid (for less-than 1 sec) while the page loading the js/css content NOTE: I already tried clearing cache of IE, ctrl + F5, shift + reload etc. Here is sample page of my issue. http://vd2.weenggs.com/Items.aspx email: [email protected] pass: test Thanks

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  • iOS - Passing variable to view controller

    - by gj15987
    I have a view with a view controller and when I show this view on screen, I want to be able to pass variables to it from the calling class, so that I can set the values of labels etc. First, I just tried creating a property for one of the labels, and calling that from the calling class. For example: SetTeamsViewController *vc = [[SetTeamsViewController alloc] init]; vc.myLabel.text = self.teamCount; [self presentModalViewController:vc animated:YES]; [vc release]; However, this didn't work. So I tried creating a convenience initializer. SetTeamsViewController *vc = [[SetTeamsViewController alloc] initWithTeamCount:self.teamCount]; And then in the SetTeamsViewController I had - (id)initWithTeamCount:(int)teamCount { self = [super initWithNibName:nil bundle:nil]; if (self) { // Custom initialization self.teamCountLabel.text = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%d",teamCount]; } return self; } However, this didn't work either. It's just loading whatever value I've given the label in the nib file. I've littered the code with NSLog()s and it is passing the correct variable values around, it's just not setting the label. Any help would be greatly appreciated. EDIT: I've just tried setting an instance variable in my designated initializer, and then setting the label in viewDidLoad and that works! Is this the best way to do this? Also, when dismissing this modal view controller, I update the text of a button in the view of the calling ViewController too. However, if I press this button again (to show the modal view again) whilst the other view is animating on screen, the button temporarily has it's original value again (from the nib). Does anyone know why this is?

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  • PHP JQuery: Where to specify uploadify destination folder

    - by Eamonn
    I have an uploadify script running, basic setup. Works fine when I hard code the destination folder for the images into uploadify.php - now I want to make that folder dynamic. How do I do this? I have a PHP variable $uploadify_path which contains the path to the folder I want. I have switched out my hard coded $targetPath = path/to/directory for $targetPath = $uploadify_path in both uploadify.php and check_exists.php, but it does not work. The file upload animation runs, says it is complete, yet the directory remains empty. The file is not hiding out somewhere else either. I see there is an option in the Javascript to specify a folder. I tried this also, but to no avail. If anyone could educate me on how to pass this variable destination to uploadify, I'd be very grateful. I include my current code for checking (basically default): The Javascript <script type="text/javascript"> $(function() { $('#file_upload').uploadify({ 'swf' : 'uploadify/uploadify.swf', 'uploader' : 'uploadify/uploadify.php', // Put your options here }); }); </script> uploadify.php $targetPath = $_SERVER['DOCUMENT_ROOT'] . $uploadify_path; // Relative to the root if (!empty($_FILES)) { $tempFile = $_FILES['Filedata']['tmp_name']; $targetFile = $targetPath . $_FILES['Filedata']['name']; // Validate the file type $fileTypes = array('jpg','jpeg','gif','png'); // File extensions $fileParts = pathinfo($_FILES['Filedata']['name']); if (in_array($fileParts['extension'],$fileTypes)) { move_uploaded_file($tempFile,$targetFile); echo '1'; } else { echo 'Invalid file type.'; } }

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  • JQuery Post caused permission denied warning in IE 6 and IE 7

    - by kwokwai
    Hi all, I am using firefox 3 and IE 6, 7 to test if a simple php web page using JQuery Post to pass some data to and from another server web page. $(document).ready(function(){ $("#data\\[User\\]\\[name\\]").click(function(){ var usr=$("#data\\[User\\]\\[name\\]").val(); if(usr.length >= 4){ $("#username").append('<span id="loaderimg" name="loaderimg"><img align="absmiddle" src="loader.gif"/> Checking data availability,&nbsp;please wait.</span>'); var url = "http://mysite.com/site1/toavail/"+usr; $.post( url, function(data) {alert(data);}); }); }); //--> </script> <table border=0 width="100%"> <tr> <td>Username</td> <td> <div id="username"> <input type="text" name="data[User][name]" id="data[User][name]"> </div> </td> </tr> </table> In Firefox 3, the alert box showed empty message. In IE 6 and IE 7, I got an error message saying "Permssion denied"

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  • Passing Values to Controllers

    - by Dru
    I'm trying to allow users to 'favorite' links (that is, create a new Favorite record with their user_id and the link_id) This is what I have so far.. When I click favorite (as a user), the new record is assigned to the user_id but the link_id field is nil. How can I pass the link_id into my FavoritesController? My View Code Added Link Model Code class FavoritesController < ApplicationController def create @user = User.find(session[:user_id]) @favorite = @user.favorites.create :link_id => params[:id] redirect_to :back end end The Favorite model belongs to :user and :link Note: I've also tried this but when I click 'favorite', there's an error "Couldn't find Link without an ID." Update <%= link_to "Favorite", :controller => :favorites, :action => :create, :link_id => link.id %> with class FavoritesController < ApplicationController def create @user = User.find(session[:user_id]) @favorite = @user.favorites.create :link_id => :params[:link_id] redirect_to :back end end Returns "can't convert Symbol into Integer" app/controllers/favorites_controller.rb:4:in [] app/controllers/favorites_controller.rb:4:in create I've tried forcing it into an Integer several ways with .to_i

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  • Threading calls to web service in a web service - (.net 2.0)

    - by Ryan Ternier
    Got a question regarding best practices for doing parallel web service calls, in a web service. Our portal will get a message, split that message into 2 messages, and then do 2 calls to our broker. These need to be on separate threads to lower the timeout. One solution is to do something similar to (pseudo code): XmlNode DNode = GetaGetDemoNodeSomehow(); XmlNode ENode = GetAGetElNodeSomehow(); XmlNode elResponse; XmlNode demResponse; Thread dThread = new Thread(delegate { //Web Service Call GetDemographics d = new GetDemographics(); demResponse = d.HIALRequest(DNode); }); Thread eThread = new Thread(delegate { //Web Service Call GetEligibility ge = new GetEligibility(); elResponse = ge.HIALRequest(ENode); }); dThread.Start(); eThread.Start(); dThread.Join(); eThread.Join(); //combine the resulting XML and return it. //Maybe throw a bit of logging in to make architecture happy Another option we thought of is to create a worker class, and pass it the service information and have it execute. This would allow us to have a bit more control over what is going on, but could add additional overhead. Another option brought up would be 2 asynchronous calls and manage the returns through a loop. When the calls are completed (success or error) the loop picks it up and ends. The portal service will be called about 50,000 times a day. I don't want to gold plate this sucker. I'm looking for something light weight. The services that are being called on the broker do have time out limits set, and are already heavily logged and audited, so I'm not worried on that part. This is .NET 2.0 , and as much as I would love to upgrade I can't right now. So please leave all the goodies of 2.0 out please.

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  • LLVM: Passing a pointer to a struct, which holds a pointer to a function, to a JIT function

    - by Rusky
    I have an LLVM (version 2.7) module with a function that takes a pointer to a struct. That struct contains a function pointer to a C++ function. The module function is going to be JIT-compiled, and I need to build that struct in C++ using the LLVM API. I can't seem get the pointer to the function as an LLVM value, let alone pass a pointer to the ConstantStruct that I can't build. I'm not sure if I'm even on the track, but this is what I have so far: void print(char*); vector<Constant*> functions; functions.push_back(ConstantExpr::getIntToPtr( ConstantInt::get(Type::getInt32Ty(context), (int)print), /* function pointer type here, FunctionType::get(...) doesn't seem to work */ )); ConstantStruct* struct = cast<ConstantStruct>(ConstantStruct::get( cast<StructType>(m->getTypeByName("printer")), functions )); Function* main = m->getFunction("main"); vector<GenericValue> args; args[0].PointerVal = /* not sure what goes here */ ee->runFunction(main, args);

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  • Associative Array / Object can't be read in functions

    - by Matrym
    At the very beginning of the javascript file, I have: var lbp = {}; lbp.defaults = { minLength: 40 }; I can successfully alert it afterwards, with: alert(lbp.defaults.minLength); But as soon as I put it inside a function, when I alert, I get "Undefined". What gives, and how do I avoid this? Is it absolutely necessary to pass this variable into each function, for example, by doing: function(lbp) { alert(lbp.defaults.minLength); } I would have thought that defining it first, it would attain global scope and not be required to be passed in? Thanks in advance for enlightening me :) ==================================== EDIT: The problem seems like it might be my initialize function is itself defined within lbp. Is there any way to use this function var, and still use lbp vars inside it? lbp.initialize = function() { alert(lbp.defaults.minLength); }; The full bit of code looks like this: <script type="text/javascript"> var lbp = { defaults: { minLength: 40 } }; lbp.initialize = function() { alert(lbp.defaults.minLength); }; window.onload = lbp.initialize; </script>

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  • How do you tell that your unit tests are correct?

    - by Jacob Adams
    I've only done minor unit testing at various points in my career. Whenever I start diving into it again, it always troubles me how to prove that my tests are correct. How can I tell that there isn't a bug in my unit test? Usually I end up running the app, proving it works, then using the unit test as a sort of regression test. What is the recommended approach and/or what is the approach you take to this problem? Edit: I also realize that you could write small, granular unit tests that would be easy to understand. However, if you assume that small, granular code is flawless and bulletproof, you could just write small, granular programs and not need unit testing. Edit2: For the arguments "unit testing is for making sure your changes don't break anything" and "this will only happen if the test has the exact same flaw as the code", what if the test overfits? It's possible to pass both good and bad code with a bad test. My main question is what good is unit testing since if your tests can be flawed you can't really improve your confidence in your code, can't really prove your refactoring worked, and can't really prove that you met the specification?

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