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  • Migrating Windows XP BOOT.INI Settings to Windows 7 Boot-loader

    - by Synetech inc.
    Two months ago my motherboard died, so I bought a used computer that came with Windows 7. I have since installed my old hard-drive, which had Windows XP on it, in this system. What I am trying to do now is to figure out a way to migrate the settings from XP's BOOT.INI into 7's boot-loader. Below is the BOOT.INI I used in XP (I have reduced the strings and updated the disks to point to the new location of the old HD. Oh and I am not clear on the drive letters. In XP, I could boot the recovery console or MS-DOS from a file in C:\ that contains the boot-sector. I am not sure what drive letter it would be called now—I had to manually change all the drive letters of the old partitions in Windows 7 because it auto-assigned them all wrong/differently). [boot loader] timeout=10 default=multi(0)disk(0)rdisk(1)partition(1)\WINDOWS [operating systems] multi(0)disk(0)rdisk(1)partition(1)\WINDOWS="XP" /fastdetect multi(0)disk(0)rdisk(1)partition(1)\WINDOWS="XP (Safe)" /safeboot:network /sos /bootlog /noguiboot C:\CMDCONS\BOOTSECT.DAT="Recovery Console" /cmdcons C:\BOOTSECT.DOS="MS-DOS 7.10" /win95 I have looked around, and have only been able to find some bcdedit commands to add XP to the boot-loader, but none that include information on setting safe-mode for it (or changing any of the XP load options for that matter). Not surprisingly I suppose, I have not found anything on adding the XP recovery console or DOS to the Windows 7 boot-loader. (Yes, I tried EasyBCD, but that did not help; it had no options for XP, and the best I managed was to get a choice of booting 7 or normal-mode XP—choosing XP didn't even give the old XP boot menu.) Can anyone please tell me how to export the entries in XP's boot.ini to 7's boot-loader so that on boot, I can choose to load the following: Windows 7 Windows 7 (Safe-mode) (Windows 7 (The Win7 counterpart of the Recovery Console)) Windows XP Windows XP (Safe-mode) Windows XP (Recovery Console) MS-DOS 7.10

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  • Openfiler iSCSI performance

    - by Justin
    Hoping someone can point me in the right direction with some iSCSI performance issues I'm having. I'm running Openfiler 2.99 on an older ProLiant DL360 G5. Dual Xeon processor, 6GB ECC RAM, Intel Gigabit Server NIC, SAS controller with and 3 10K SAS drives in a RAID 5. When I run a simple write test from the box directly the performance is very good: [root@localhost ~]# dd if=/dev/zero of=tmpfile bs=1M count=1000 1000+0 records in 1000+0 records out 1048576000 bytes (1.0 GB) copied, 4.64468 s, 226 MB/s So I created a LUN, attached it to another box I have running ESXi 5.1 (Core i7 2600k, 16GB RAM, Intel Gigabit Server NIC) and created a new datastore. Once I created the datastore I was able to create and start a VM running CentOS with 2GB of RAM and 16GB of disk space. The OS installed fine and I'm able to use it but when I ran the same test inside the VM I get dramatically different results: [root@localhost ~]# dd if=/dev/zero of=tmpfile bs=1M count=1000 1000+0 records in 1000+0 records out 1048576000 bytes (1.0 GB) copied, 26.8786 s, 39.0 MB/s [root@localhost ~]# Both servers have brand new Intel Server NIC's and I have Jumbo Frames enabled on the switch, the openfiler box as well as the VMKernel adapter on the ESXi box. I can confirm this is set up properly by using the vmkping command from the ESXi host: ~ # vmkping 10.0.0.1 -s 9000 PING 10.0.0.1 (10.0.0.1): 9000 data bytes 9008 bytes from 10.0.0.1: icmp_seq=0 ttl=64 time=0.533 ms 9008 bytes from 10.0.0.1: icmp_seq=1 ttl=64 time=0.736 ms 9008 bytes from 10.0.0.1: icmp_seq=2 ttl=64 time=0.570 ms The only thing I haven't tried as far as networking goes is bonding two interfaces together. I'm open to trying that down the road but for now I am trying to keep things simple. I know this is a pretty modest setup and I'm not expecting top notch performance but I would like to see 90-100MB/s. Any ideas?

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  • Migrating Windows XP BOOT.INI Settings to Windows 7 Boot-loader

    - by Synetech inc.
    Hi, Two months ago my motherboard died, so I bought a used computer that came with Windows 7. I have since installed my old hard-drive, which had Windows XP on it, in this system. What I am trying to do now is to figure out a way to migrate the settings from XP's BOOT.INI into 7's boot-loader. Below is the BOOT.INI I used in XP (I have reduced the strings and updated the disks to point to the new location of the old HD. Oh and I am not clear on the drive letters. In XP, I could boot the recovery console or MS-DOS from a file in C:\ that contains the boot-sector. I am not sure what drive letter it would be called now—I had to manually change all the drive letters of the old partitions in Windows 7 because it auto-assigned them all wrong/differently). [boot loader] timeout=10 default=multi(0)disk(0)rdisk(1)partition(1)\WINDOWS [operating systems] multi(0)disk(0)rdisk(1)partition(1)\WINDOWS="XP" /fastdetect multi(0)disk(0)rdisk(1)partition(1)\WINDOWS="XP (Safe)" /safeboot:network /sos /bootlog /noguiboot C:\CMDCONS\BOOTSECT.DAT="Recovery Console" /cmdcons C:\BOOTSECT.DOS="MS-DOS 7.10" /win95 I have looked around, and have only been able to find some bcdedit commands to add XP to the boot-loader, but none that include information on setting safe-mode for it (or changing any of the XP load options for that matter). Not surprisingly I suppose, I have not found anything on adding the XP recovery console or DOS to the Windows 7 boot-loader. (Yes, I tried EasyBCD, but that did not help; it had no options for XP, and the best I managed was to get a choice of booting 7 or normal-mode XP—choosing XP didn't even give the old XP boot menu.) Can anyone please tell me how to export the entries in XP's boot.ini to 7's boot-loader so that on boot, I can choose to load the following: Windows 7 Windows 7 (Safe-mode) (Windows 7 (The Win7 counterpart of the Recovery Console)) Windows XP Windows XP (Safe-mode) Windows XP (Recovery Console) MS-DOS 7.10

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  • Active Directory FRS problems. 13508 error and other problems

    - by ITPIP
    I have 3 Domain Controllers. We will call them DC1, DC2 and DC3. DC3 and DC2 show Event ID 13508 in their FRS logs with no follow-up event(13509 I think) to say the error had been fixed. DC1's FRS log no matter what you do never shows any events besides FRS service stopped and started. DC1 holds the SYSVOL that needs to be replicated to the other DC's. The other DC's sysvol folders are empty. I have tried the burflag method of fixing this but I haven't had any luck. My procedure for that was to stop all FRS services on all DC's. Then set the burflag on DC1 to D4 and the other two DCs burflag to D2. Started FRS on DC1 and the only event's I see in DC1's FRS event logs are service stopped and service started messages. This fact is leading me to believe that something is wrong on FRS for DC1. I believe there should be events 13553 and 13516 in the FRS event logs after an authoritative sysvol restore. The other two DC's do not have anything in their SYSVOL, otherwise I would have made one of them the authoritative sysvol. DC1 is MS Server 2003 Enterprise Edition SP2 DC2 is MS Server 2003 Standard Edition SP1 DC3 is MS Server 2003 R2 Standard Edition SP2 I did not setup this domain originally but I am now the administrator of it, so I don't have a lot of background on why certain things may have been done in the past. My main goal is to try and fix these issues to get myself better prepared to decommision DC1 and add a DC running Server 2008 to my domain. Thanks.

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  • Linux NIC Bonding Issue (CentOS 4 / RHEL 3)

    - by jinanwow
    I am having an issue with bonding NICs on CentOS 4. It appears the bonding driver does work, but it is stuck in round-robin mode and I am trying to get to active-backup. The current config is: ifcfg-bond0 DEVICE=bond0 IPADDR=192.168.204.18 NETMASK=255.255.255.0 ONBOOT=yes BOOTPROTO=none USERCTL=no TYPE=Bonding BONDING_OPTS="mode=1 miimon=100" ifcfg-eth1 DEVICE=eth1 BOOTPROTO=none ONBOOT=yes TYPE=Ethernet MASTER=bond0 SLAVE=yes ifcfg-eth3 DEVICE=eth3 ONBOOT=yes BOOTPROTO=none TYPE=Ethernet MASTER=bond0 SLAVE=yes cat /proc/net/bonding/bond0 Ethernet Channel Bonding Driver: v2.6.3-rh (June 8, 2005) Bonding Mode: load balancing (round-robin) MII Status: up MII Polling Interval (ms): 0 Up Delay (ms): 0 Down Delay (ms): 0 Slave Interface: eth1 MII Status: up Link Failure Count: 0 Permanent HW addr: 00:17:a4:8f:94:b1 Slave Interface: eth3 MII Status: up Link Failure Count: 0 Permanent HW addr: 00:1b:21:56:b8:69 cat /etc/modprobe.conf alias eth0 tg3 alias eth1 tg3 alias eth3 e1000 alias eth2 e1000 alias bond0 bonding options bond0 mode=1 miimon=100 I have tried moving the bonding information out of the ifcfg-bond0 into the modprobe configuration file. It seems that it is stuck in RR and I am trying to get it into the Active-backup (mode 1) state. Any ideas what would be causing this issue?

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  • Spammer relaying via Postfix mail server

    - by Paddington
    I have a Plesk 9.5 mail server (cm.snowbarre.co.za) on Ubuntu 8.04 LTS which forwards all SMTP traffic to an anti-spam server cacti.snowbarre.co.za. Many times I see the headers on the anti-spam server to contain from addresses not hosted on the mail server and I have checked and confirmed that my server is not an open relay server. How can a spammer be using my server to relay spam traffic? How can I stop this? Open relay test: paddington@paddington-MS-7387:~$ telnet cm 25 Trying 196.201.x.x... Connected to cm. Escape character is '^]'. 220 cm.snowbarre.co.za ESMTP Postfix (Ubuntu) mail from:[email protected] 250 2.1.0 Ok rcpt:[email protected] 221 2.7.0 Error: I can break rules, too. Goodbye. Connection closed by foreign host. paddington@paddington-MS-7387:~$ A typical headers is: *Received from cm.snowbarre.co.za (cm.snowbarre.co.za[196.201.x.x]) by cacti.snowbarre.co.za (Postfix) with ESMTPS id 00B601881AD; Mon, 27 Aug 2012 14:03:29 +0200 (SAST) Received from cm.snowbarre.co.za (localhost [127.0.0.1]) by cm.snowbarre.co.za (Postfix) with ESMTP id 81627367E007; Mon, 27 Aug 2012 14:02:50 +0200 (SAST) Received from User (ml82.128.x.x.multilinksg.com [82.128.x.x]) by cm.snowbarre.co.za (Postfix) with ESMTP; Mon, 27 Aug 2012 14:02:49 +0200 (SAST) Reply-To <[email protected]> From "Ms Nkeuri Aguiyi"<[email protected]> Subject Your Unpaid Fund. Date Mon, 27 Aug 2012 05:03:22 -0700 MIME-Version 1.0 Content-Type text/html; charset="Windows-1251" Content-Transfer-Encoding 7bit X-Priority 3 X-MSMail-Priority Normal X-Mailer Microsoft Outlook Express 6.00.2600.0000 X-MimeOLE Produced By Microsoft MimeOLE V6.00.2600.0000 X-Antivirus avast! (VPS 120821-0, 08/21/2012), Outbound message X-Antivirus-Status Clean Message-Id <[email protected]> To undisclosed-recipients:;*

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  • Paste textbox from Powerpoint to Word as an editable control

    - by George Harris
    I have a Powerpoint 2007 file that contains a number of textboxes and shapes with text on them. I can edit, resize, change the text, etc. in these boxes in Powerpoint. However, if I select an item, copy it, and paste it into a Word 2007 document, I can't edit it. I can resize the entire thing, but it acts more like an image than a text box. I've tried the paste special options and keep source formatting options, but still can't edit it. Is there a way to be able to paste the editable content from Powerpoint and still have it editable in Word? Update I found this question that appears to get to the root of the problem: The MS Office Art graphics engine (aka Escher 2) is new to MS Office 2007 and while fully implemented in Excel and Powerpoint is only partially implemented in Word 2007 for backwards compatibility with the MS Office Drawing/Graphics engine (aka Escher) still available in Word It should work in earlier versions of Word and Word 2010, but not Word 2007. This is quite frustrating as I have to edit the slide in Powerpoint before copying it into Word. While doable, it adds another step, but the problem is that everyone who wants to update the Word document will have to do the same thing, adding complexity and steps for everyone. If I embed the Powerpoint slide in the document, I can edit the controls, but they don't scale the same way and takes a lot of work.

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  • Change OpenVZ route to pass through ip failover

    - by Kevin Campion
    I have one dedicaced server with its own IP and another IP (failover) who refer to the first. I will wish to change the gateway of a Proxmox virtual machine (openvz) who runs on this dedicaced server to go through the failover IP rather than the ip of host main server. Once connected to a virtual machine, when I do a traceroute VE# traceroute www.google.fr traceroute to www.google.fr (209.85.229.104), 30 hops max, 60 byte packets 1 MY_SERVER_NAME.ovh.net (xxx.xxx.xxx.xxx FIRST_IP_MAIN_SERVER) 0.021 ms 0.010 ms 0.009 ms The first line tells me the ip of host main server. I would like that the traceroute display the second IP failover. VE# route Kernel IP routing table Destination Gateway Genmask Flags Metric Ref Use Iface 192.0.2.1 * 255.255.255.255 UH 0 0 0 venet0 default 192.0.2.1 0.0.0.0 UG 0 0 0 venet0 With iptables HOST# iptables -t nat -L Chain POSTROUTING (policy ACCEPT) target prot opt source destination MASQUERADE all -- anywhere anywhere MASQUERADE all -- anywhere anywhere SNAT tcp -- anywhere 10.10.101.2 tcp dpt:www state NEW,RELATED,ESTABLISHED,UNTRACKED to:SECOND_IP_FAILOVER SNAT all -- 10.10.101.2 anywhere to:SECOND_IP_FAILOVER 10.10.101.2 is the virtual machine IP (interface venet0) Any ideas ?

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  • DNS issue on Fedora 12? wget wordpress.org fails where wget www.google.com works

    - by Tom Auger
    I'm administering a Fedora 12 box, but am quite new to networking specifics. Recently one of our WordPress apps hosted on our server has stopped being able to perform its auto-update or auto-download of plugins. Investigating further, I have tried the following: $ wget wordpress.org --2010-12-17 11:26:50-- http://wordpress.org/ Resolving wordpress.org... failed: Temporary failure in name resolution. wget: unable to resolve host address âwordpress.orgâ Whereas: $ wget www.google.com --2010-12-17 11:27:26-- http://www.google.com/ Resolving www.google.com... 74.125.226.82, 74.125.226.84, 74.125.226.80, ... Connecting to www.google.com|74.125.226.82|:80... connected. HTTP request sent, awaiting response... 302 Found Location: http://www.google.ca/ [following] --2010-12-17 11:27:26-- http://www.google.ca/ Resolving www.google.ca... 173.194.32.104 Connecting to www.google.ca|173.194.32.104|:80... connected. HTTP request sent, awaiting response... 200 OK Length: unspecified [text/html] Saving to: âindex.html.4â [ <=> ] 9,079 --.-K/s in 0.02s 2010-12-17 11:27:26 (462 KB/s) - âindex.html.4â Interestingly: $ ping wordpress.org PING wordpress.org (72.233.56.138) 56(84) bytes of data. 64 bytes from wordpress.org (72.233.56.138): icmp_seq=1 ttl=50 time=81.5 ms 64 bytes from wordpress.org (72.233.56.138): icmp_seq=2 ttl=50 time=67.3 ms ^C --- wordpress.org ping statistics --- 2 packets transmitted, 2 received, 0% packet loss, time 1783ms rtt min/avg/max/mdev = 67.361/74.448/81.536/7.092 ms and $ nslookup wordpress.org Server: 192.168.2.1 Address: 192.168.2.1#53 Non-authoritative answer: Name: wordpress.org Address: 72.233.56.138 Name: wordpress.org Address: 72.233.56.139 nscd has been stopped and flushed. iptables appear to be clean. At this point I have exhausted my limited abilities to diagnose the issue. Can anyone suggest a resolution path?

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  • Can't get DNS Alias work on Ubuntu 10.04 with Apache 2

    - by Johnny
    I want to use the DNS Alias to configure one of my domain pointing to a specific directory on the server. Here is what I've done: Change the IP address in domain setting, and it works $ ping www.example.com PING example.com (124.205.62.xxx): 56 data bytes 64 bytes from 124.205.62.xxx: icmp_seq=0 ttl=48 time=53.088 ms 64 bytes from 124.205.62.xxx: icmp_seq=1 ttl=48 time=52.125 ms ^C --- example.com ping statistics --- 2 packets transmitted, 2 packets received, 0.0% packet loss round-trip min/avg/max/stddev = 52.125/52.606/53.088/0.482 ms Add sites-available and sites-enabled $ ls -l /etc/apache2/sites-available/ total 16 -rw-r--r-- 1 root root 948 2010-04-14 03:27 default -rw-r--r-- 1 root root 7467 2010-04-14 03:27 default-ssl -rw-r--r-- 1 root root 365 2010-06-09 18:27 example.com $ ls -l /etc/apache2/sites-enabled/ total 0 lrwxrwxrwx 1 root root 26 2010-06-09 15:46 000-default -> ../sites-available/default lrwxrwxrwx 1 root root 33 2010-06-09 18:17 001-example.com -> ../sites-available/example.com But it doesn't work and when I open the browser for www.example.com, it shows an 111 error: The following error was encountered: Connection to 124.205.62.48 Failed The system returned: (111) Connection refused Here is how example.com's config: $ cat /etc/apache2/sites-enabled/001-example.com <virtualhost *:80> DocumentRoot "/vhosts/example.com/htdocs/" ServerName www.example.com ServerAlias example.com <Location /> Order Deny,Allow Deny from None Allow from all </Location> #Include /etc/phpmyadmin/apache.conf ErrorLog /vhosts/example.com/logs/error.log CustomLog /vhosts/example.com/logs/access.log combined Could you please tell me how to solve this?

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  • Variable TTL inside a LAN

    - by user140783
    I recently discovered that ping my local router, returns different TTL values??. The ping 3 switch must pass through before reaching the router, there may be the problem? 192.168.1.99 is the IP of my router , a Cisco WRT120N Thank you! Respuesta desde 192.168.1.99: bytes=32 tiempo<1m TTL=190 Respuesta desde 192.168.1.99: bytes=32 tiempo=29ms TTL=3 Respuesta desde 192.168.1.99: bytes=32 tiempo<1m TTL=117 Respuesta desde 192.168.1.99: bytes=32 tiempo<1m TTL=131 Respuesta desde 192.168.1.99: bytes=32 tiempo<1m TTL=66 Respuesta desde 192.168.1.99: bytes=32 tiempo<1m TTL=66 Respuesta desde 192.168.1.99: bytes=32 tiempo<1m TTL=66 Respuesta desde 192.168.1.99: bytes=32 tiempo<1m TTL=111 Respuesta desde 192.168.1.99: bytes=32 tiempo<1m TTL=240 Respuesta desde 192.168.1.99: bytes=32 tiempo<1m TTL=66 Respuesta desde 192.168.1.99: bytes=32 tiempo<1m TTL=66 Respuesta desde 192.168.1.99: bytes=32 tiempo<1m TTL=66 Respuesta desde 192.168.1.99: bytes=32 tiempo<1m TTL=51 Respuesta desde 192.168.1.99: bytes=32 tiempo<1m TTL=190 Respuesta desde 192.168.1.99: bytes=32 tiempo<1m TTL=66 Traceroute G:\Documents and Settings\Administrador>tracert 192.168.1.99 Traza a la dirección maxi2011 [192.168.1.99] sobre un máximo de 30 saltos: 1 <1 ms <1 ms <1 ms maxi2011 [192.168.1.99] Traza completa. G:\Documents and Settings\Administradorping 192.168.1.99 Haciendo ping a 192.168.1.99 con 32 bytes de datos: Respuesta desde 192.168.1.99: bytes=32 tiempo<1m TTL=190 Respuesta desde 192.168.1.99: bytes=32 tiempo<1m TTL=190 Respuesta desde 192.168.1.99: bytes=32 tiempo<1m TTL=117 Respuesta desde 192.168.1.99: bytes=32 tiempo<1m TTL=117 Estadísticas de ping para 192.168.1.99: Paquetes: enviados = 4, recibidos = 4, perdidos = 0 (0% perdidos), Tiempos aproximados de ida y vuelta en milisegundos: Mínimo = 0ms, Máximo = 0ms, Media = 0ms G:\Documents and Settings\Administrador

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  • Win 7 firewall won't turn on, nor the McAfee firewall. Hit by "Win 7 Anti-virus 2012" trojan. Removed, but a downed firewall is a lasting legacy

    - by PhxTitan
    I caught the Trojan right away, I think, but both my McAfee & Win 7 (x64) firewalls are not able to be engaged/turned on now. MS Error Code 0x80070424 when attempting to turn on Win 7 firewall. No viruses. Swept it with McAfee AV, Malwarebytes Anti-Malware, Microsoft malware removal tools. Followed Microsoft's three courses of alternative actions they posted for instructions for getting the Win 7 firewall back up and on. Nothing. Same error code. The post just said see MS support if those fixes failed. So I removed McAfee altogether. Still Win 7 (professional version) firewall won't come on; and clean of detectable bugs. And I'm fully updated with MS Windows 7 updates as well, which is no longer automatic, that too a legacy of the trojan bug I think. Any thoughts on how to get the Win 7 firewall operational??? And auto updating reengaged?

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  • Active Directory FRS problems. 13508 error and other problems

    - by user59232
    I have 3 Domain Controllers. We will call them DC1, DC2 and DC3. DC3 and DC2 show Event ID 13508 in their FRS logs with no follow-up event(13509 I think) to say the error had been fixed. DC1's FRS log no matter what you do never shows any events besides FRS service stopped and started. DC1 holds the SYSVOL that needs to be replicated to the other DC's. The other DC's sysvol folders are empty. I have tried the burflag method of fixing this but I haven't had any luck. My procedure for that was to stop all FRS services on all DC's. Then set the burflag on DC1 to D4 and the other two DCs burflag to D2. Started FRS on DC1 and the only event's I see in DC1's FRS event logs are service stopped and service started messages. This fact is leading me to believe that something is wrong on FRS for DC1. I believe there should be events 13553 and 13516 in the FRS event logs after an authoritative sysvol restore. The other two DC's do not have anything in their SYSVOL, otherwise I would have made one of them the authoritative sysvol. DC1 is MS Server 2003 Enterprise Edition SP2 DC2 is MS Server 2003 Standard Edition SP1 DC3 is MS Server 2003 R2 Standard Edition SP2 I did not setup this domain originally but I am now the administrator of it, so I don't have a lot of background on why certain things may have been done in the past. My main goal is to try and fix these issues to get myself better prepared to decommision DC1 and add a DC running Server 2008 to my domain. Thanks.

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  • Exchange 2010: Send emails via STMP with custom From address to outside the domain

    - by marsze
    The requirement(s): (1) Connect to Exchange via STMP and (2) basic authentication and send emails with a (3) custom From address to (4) recipients outside the domain. I was able to get (1) - (3) working. I created a dedicated receive connector for this task and configured it like this: Permissions: ms-Exch-SMTP-Accept-Any-Recipient (for authenticated users) ms-Exch-SMTP-Accept-Authoritative-Domain-Sender (for authenticated users) ms-Exch-SMTP-Accept-Any-Sender (for authenticated users) Authentication: TLS Basic Authentication (without TLS) Exchange Server Authentication However, I'm still struggeling with (4): I can send with "fake" From addresses to recipients inside the domain. Also, I can send with the original From address to recipients outside the domain. Can you tell me what I'm missing, to configure Exchange to send emails with changed From addresses to recipients outside the domain? (Or is this even possible at all?) Thanks. UPDATE I have to correct myself: it seems to be working after all. There must be some issue with the mailbox I used for testing. It turned out it's working with other external mailboxes. However, I still have no idea what was different there... Anyways, you can take this as a documentation on how to configure Exchange in such a way ;)

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  • Virtual Lan on the Cloud -- Help Confirm my understanding?

    - by marfarma
    [Note: Tried to post this over at ServerFault, but I don't have enough 'points' for more than one link. Powers that be, move this question over there.] Please give this a quick read and let me know if I'm missing something before I start trying to make this work. I'm not a systems admin professional, and I'd hate to end up banging my head into the wall if I can avoid it. Goals: Create a 'road-warrior' capable star shaped virtual LAN for consultants who spend the majority of their time on client sites, and who's firm has no physical network or servers. Enable CIFS access to a cloud-server based installation of Alfresco Allow Eventual implementation of some form of single-sign-on ( OpenLDAP server ) access to Alfresco and other server applications implemented in the future Given: All Servers will live in the public internet cloud (Rackspace Cloud Servers) OpenVPN Server will be a Linux disto, probably Ubuntu 9.x, installed on same server as Alfresco (at least to start) Staff will access server applications and resources from client sites, hotels, trains, planes, coffee shops or their homes over various ISP, using their company laptops or personal home desktops. Based on my Research thus far, to accomplish this, I'll need: OpenVPN with Bridging Enabled to create a star shaped "virtual" LAN http://openvpn.net/index.php/open-source/documentation/miscellaneous/76-ethernet-bridging.html A Road Warrior Network Configuration, as described in this Shorewall article (lower down the page) http://www.shorewall.net/OPENVPN.html Configure bridge addressesing (probably DHCP) http://openvpn.net/index.php/open-source/faq.html#bridge-addressing Configure CIFS / Samba to accept VPN IP address http://serverfault.com/questions/137933/howto-access-samba-share-over-vpn-tunnel Set up Client software, with keys configured for access (potentially through a OpenVPN-Sa client portal) http://www.openvpn.net/index.php/access-server/download-openvpn-as/221-installation-overview.html

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  • Is it possible to use OAuth starting from the service provider website?

    - by Brian Armstrong
    I want to let people create apps that use my API and authenticate them with OAuth. Normally this process starts from the consumer service website (say TwitPic) and they request an access token from the service provider (Twitter). The user is then taken to the service provider website where they have to allow/deny access to to the consumer. I'm wondering if it's possible to initiate this process from the service provider website instead. So in this example you would start on Twitter's site, and maybe there is a section marked "do you want to turn on access for TwitPic?". If you click yes, it passes the access token directly to TwitPic which now has access to your account. Basically, fewer steps. I'm looking at the OAuth docs and it looks like the request token is generated on the consumer side and used later to turn it into an access token. So it's not really designed with what I described above in mind, but I thought there might be a way. http://oauth.net/core/1.0/ (Search for "steps") Thanks!

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  • Accessing class member variables inside a BackgroundWorker's DoWork event handler, and other Backgro

    - by Justin
    Question 1 In the DoWork event handler of a BackgroundWorker, is it safe to access (for both reading and writing) member variables of the class that contains the BackgroundWorker? Is it safe to access other variables that are not declared inside the DoWork event handler itself? Obviously DoWork should not be accessing any UI objects of, say, a WinForms application, as the UI should only be updated from the UI thread. But what about accessing other (not UI-related) member variables? The reason why I ask is that I've seen the occasional comment come up while Googling saying that accessing member variables is not allowed. The only example I can find at the moment is a comment on this MSDN page, which says: Note, that the BGW can cause exceptions if it attempts to access or modify class level variables. All data must be passed to it by delegates and events. And also: NEVER. NEVER. Never try to reference variables not declared inside of DoWork. It may seem to work at times, but in reality you are just getting lucky. As far as I know, MSDN itself does not document any restrictions of this kind (although if I'm wrong, I'd appreciate a link). But comments like these do seem to pop up every now and again. (Of course if DoWork does access/modify a member variable that could be accessed/modified by the main thread at the same time, it is necessary to synchronise access to that field, eg by using a locking object. But the above quotes seem to require a blanket ban of accessing member variables, rather than just synchronising access!) Question 2 To make this into a more general question, are there any other (not documented?) restrictions that users of the BackgroundWorker should be aware of, aside from the above? Any "best practices", perhaps?

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  • Problem with Spring security's logout

    - by uther-lightbringer
    Hello, I've got a problem logging out in Spring framework. First when I want j_spring_security_logout to handle it for me i get 404 j_spring_security_logout not found: sample-security.xml: <http> <intercept-url pattern="/messageList.htm*" access="ROLE_USER,ROLE_GUEST" /> <intercept-url pattern="/messagePost.htm*" access="ROLE_USER" /> <intercept-url pattern="/messageDelete.htm*" access="ROLE_ADMIN" /> <form-login login-page="/login.jsp" default-target-url="/messageList.htm" authentication-failure-url="/login.jsp?error=true" /> <logout/> </http> Sample url link to logout in JSP page: <a href="<c:url value="/j_spring_security_logout" />">Logout</a> When i try to use a custom JSP page i.e. I use login form for this purpose then I get better result at least it gets to login page, but another problem is that you dont't get logged off as you can diretcly type url that should be guarded buy you get past it anyway. Slightly modified from previous listings: <http> <intercept-url pattern="/messageList.htm*" access="ROLE_USER,ROLE_GUEST" /> <intercept-url pattern="/messagePost.htm*" access="ROLE_USER" /> <intercept-url pattern="/messageDelete.htm*" access="ROLE_ADMIN" /> <form-login login-page="/login.jsp" default-target-url="/messageList.htm" authentication-failure-url="/login.jsp?error=true" /> <logout logout-success-url="/login.jsp" /> </http> <a href="<c:url value="/login.jsp" />">Logout</a> Thank you for help

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  • Using bitwise operators on > 32 bit integers

    - by dqhendricks
    I am using bitwise operations in order to represent many access control flags within one integer. ADMIN_ACCESS = 1; EDIT_ACCOUNT_ACCESS = 2; EDIT_ORDER_ACCESS = 4; var myAccess = 3; // ie: ( ADMIN_ACCESS | EDIT_ACCOUNT_ACCESS ) if ( myAccess & EDIT_ACCOUNT_ACCESS ) { // check for correct access // allow for editing of account } Most of this is occurring on the PHP side of my project. There is one piece however where Javascript is used to join several access flags using | when saving someone's access level. This works fine to a point. I have found that once an integer (flag) gets too large ( 32bit), it no longer works correctly with bitwise operators in Javascript. For instance: alert( 4294967296 | 1 ); // equals 1, but should equal 4294967297 I am trying to find a workaround for this so that I do not have to limit my number of access control flags to 32. Each access control flag is two times the previous control flag so that each control flag will not interfere with other control flags. dec(4) = bin(100) dec(8) = bin(1000) dec(16) = bin(10000) I have noticed that when adding two of these flags together with a simple +, it seems to come out with the same answer as a bitwise or operation, but am having trouble wrapping my head around whether this is a simple substitution, or if there might be problems with doing this. Can anyone comment on the validity of this workaround? Example: (4294967296 | 262144 | 524288) == (4294967296 + 262144 + 524288)

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  • How do I create a selection list in ASP.NET MVC?

    - by Gary McGill
    I have a database table that records what publications a user is allowed to access. The table is very simple - it simply stores user ID/publication ID pairs: CREATE TABLE UserPublication (UserId INTEGER, PublicationID INTEGER) The presence of a record for a given user & publication means that the user has access; absence of a record implies no access. I want to present my admin users with a simple screen that allows them to configure which publications a user can access. I would like to show one checkbox for each of the possible publications, and check the ones that the user can currently access. The admin user can then check or un-check any number of publications and submit the form. There are various publication types, and I want to group the similarly-typed publications together - so I do need control over how the publications are presented (I don't want to just have a flat list). My view model obviously needs to have a list of all the publications (since I need to display them all regardless of the current selection), and I also need a list of the publications that the user currently has access to. (I'm not sure whether I'd be better off with a single list where each item includes the publication ID and a yes/no field?). But that's as far as I've got. I've really no idea how to go about binding this to some checkboxes. Where do I start?

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  • Ruby on Rails Associations

    - by Eef
    Hey all, I am starting to create my sites in Ruby on Rails these days instead of PHP. I have picked up the language easily but still not 100% confident with associations :) I have this situation: User Model has_and_belongs_to_many :roles Roles Model has_and_belongs_to_many :users Journal Model has_and_belongs_to_many :roles So I have a roles_users table and a journals_roles table I can access the user roles like so: user = User.find(1) User.roles This gives me the roles assigned to the user, I can then access the journal model like so: journals = user.roles.first.journals This gets me the journals associated with the user based on the roles. I want to be able to access the journals like so user.journals In my user model I have tried this: def journals self.roles.collect { |role| role.journals }.flatten end This gets me the journals in a flatten array but unfortunately I am unable to access anything associated with journals in this case, e.g in the journals model it has: has_many :items When I try to access user.journals.items it does not work as it is a flatten array which I am trying to access the has_many association. Is it possible to get the user.journals another way other than the way I have shown above with the collect method? Hope you guys understand what I mean, if not let me know and ill try to explain it better. Cheers Eef

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  • Silverlight ClientAccessPolicy issue...I think

    - by Terrence
    Fisrt of all I have my ClientAccessPolicy.xml file in the root of my website. If I access my website using the public domain name like this: h t t p://www.mydomain.com and then go to the page where my SL control is, I get the spinning % numbers up until about 98%, then it quits and my SL control does not appear on the page. If I access my website using the machine name (website is at datacenter, we have vpn setup) like this: h t t p://machinename and then go to the page where my SL control is everything works fine. this must be a ClientAccess Policy issue don't your think? Or what DO you thnik the issue is? Thanks in advance. Here is the contents of my ClientAccessPolicy.xml file: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <access-policy> <cross-domain-access> <policy> <allow-from http-request-headers="*"> <domain uri="*" /> </allow-from> <grant-to> <resource path="/" include-subpaths="true" /> </grant-to> </policy> </cross-domain-access> </access-policy>

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  • SQLAlchemy & Complex Queries

    - by user356594
    I have to implement ACL for an existing application. So I added the a user, group and groupmembers table to the database. I defined a ManyToMany relationship between user and group via the association table groupmembers. In order to protect some ressources of the app (i..e item) I added a additional association table auth_items which should be used as an association table for the ManyToMany relationship between groups/users and the specific item. item has following columns: user_id -- user table group_id -- group table item_id -- item table at least on of user_id and group_id columns are set. So it's possible to define access for a group or for a user to a specific item. I have used the AssociationProxy to define the relationship between users/groups and items. I now want to display all items which the user has access to and I have a really hard time doing that. Following criteria are used: All items which are owned by the user should be shown (item.owner_id = user.id) All public items should be shown (item.access = public) All items which the user has access to should be shown (auth_item.user_id = user.id) All items which the group of the user has access to should be shown. The first two criteria are quite straightforward, but I have a hard time doing the 3rd one. Here is my approach: clause = and_(item.access == 'public') if user is not None: clause = or_(clause,item.owner == user,item.users.contains(user),item.groups.contains(group for group in user.groups)) The third criteria produces an error. item.groups.contains(group for group in user.groups) I am actually not sure if this is a good approach at all. What is the best approach when filtering manytomany relationships? How I can filter a manytomany relationship based on another list/relationship? Btw I am using the latest sqlalchemy (6.0) and elixir version Thanks for any insights.

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  • Semaphore - What is the use of initial count?

    - by Sandbox
    http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/system.threading.semaphoreslim.aspx To create a semaphore, I need to provide an initial count and maximum count. MSDN states that an initial count is - The initial number of requests for the semaphore that can be granted concurrently. While it states that maximum count is The maximum number of requests for the semaphore that can be granted concurrently. I can understand that the maximum count is the maximum number of threads that can access a resource concurrently. But, what is the use of initial count? If I create a semaphore with an initial count of 0 and a maximum count of 2, none of my threadpool threads are able to access the resource. If I set the initial count as 1 and maximum count as 2 then only thread pool thread can access the resource. It is only when I set both initial count and maximum count as 2, 2 threads are able to access the resource concurrently. So, I am really confused about the significance of initial count? SemaphoreSlim semaphoreSlim = new SemaphoreSlim(0, 2); //all threadpool threads wait SemaphoreSlim semaphoreSlim = new SemaphoreSlim(1, 2);//only one thread has access to the resource at a time SemaphoreSlim semaphoreSlim = new SemaphoreSlim(2, 2);//two threadpool threads can access the resource concurrently

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  • how to get email id from google api response

    - by user1726508
    i am able to get user information from Google API response using oath2 . But i do't know how to get those responses individually . Response i am getting from Google Api: * Access token: ya29.AHES6ZQ3QxKxnfAzpZasdfd23423NuxJs29gMa39MXV551yMmyM5IgA { "id": "112361893525676437860", "name": "Ansuman Singh", "given_name": "Ansuman", "family_name": "Singh", "link": "https://plus.google.com/112361893525676437860", "gender": "male", "birthday": "0000-03-18", "locale": "en" } Original Token: ya29.AHES6ZQ3QxKxnfAzpZu0lYHYu8sdfsdafdgMa39MXV551yMmyM5IgA New Token: ya29.AHES6ZQ3QxKxnfdsfsdaYHYu8TNuxJs29gMa39MXV551yMmyM5IgA But i want only "id" & "name" indiviually to save in my Database table. How can i do this? I got those above response/output By using the below code. public static void main(String[] args) throws IOException { ------------------------- ------------------------- ------------------------- String accessToken = authResponse.accessToken; GoogleAccessProtectedResource access = new GoogleAccessProtectedResource(accessToken, TRANSPORT, JSON_FACTORY, CLIENT_ID, CLIENT_SECRET, authResponse.refreshToken); HttpRequestFactory rf = TRANSPORT.createRequestFactory(access); System.out.println("Access token: " + authResponse.accessToken); String url = "https://www.googleapis.com/oauth2/v1/userinfo?alt=json&access_token=" + authResponse.accessToken; final StringBuffer r = new StringBuffer(); final URL u = new URL(url); final URLConnection uc = u.openConnection(); final int end = 1000; InputStreamReader isr = null; BufferedReader br = null; isr = new InputStreamReader(uc.getInputStream()); br = new BufferedReader(isr); final int chk = 0; while ((url = br.readLine()) != null) { if ((chk >= 0) && ((chk < end))) { r.append(url).append('\n'); } } System.out.print(""); System.out.println(); System.out.print(" "+ r ); //this is printing at once but i want them individually access.refreshToken(); System.out.println("Original Token: " + accessToken + " New Token: " + access.getAccessToken()); }

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