Search Results

Search found 26908 results on 1077 pages for 'asynchronous wcf call'.

Page 356/1077 | < Previous Page | 352 353 354 355 356 357 358 359 360 361 362 363  | Next Page >

  • Run sub on main thread from separate thread [VB.NET|SerialPort]

    - by Steven
    I'm reading data from a serial port, but the DataReceived event of SerialPort is handled on it's own thread. I want to handle this on the main thread, but simply declaring an event and raising it still results in it being processed on the SerialPort thread. I'm assuming I need to declare a delegate I can call, but I don't see how that would work. For example, I want to call Sub HandleDataReceived() on the main thread from the DataReceived thread, having HandleDataReceived() run on the main thread. How would I do this?

    Read the article

  • How to unload JVM from a living process?

    - by Guy
    Hi, I'm working with JNI and trying to unload (destroy) the VM using DestoryJavaVM function (I first call DetachCurrentThread method). It seems like the it has now influence on the VM and it is still up after the call. I read in old Sun posts that DestoryJavaVM had problems in the past (JDK1.1-1.3 in 2001) but I'm using JRE 6 and it probably should work now, right? I need to Load\Unload a VM in the same living process since each loading requires another classes to load. Any ideas how it can be done? Thanks, Guy

    Read the article

  • jQuery: I need something like ':visible' that works even if the parent is display=none

    - by Master Morality
    I have a list where elements are hidden for multiple reasons, each corresponding to a css class i.e: <style> .filteredOut { display: none; } .somethingElse { display : none; } ... </style> I want to apply alternating css classes via .filter(':even').addClass('even') but only to classes that are visible. The problem is that the parent is hidden when this happens so .filter(':visible') returns 0 elements. I need something like .filter(':visibileEventIfParentIsNot') Further more, I'd rather not have to call a function with this in it every time I call a function that changes what's visible in a list. This may be a pipe dream, but is there a way to do this ala live() or something similar? I'm open to off the wall ideas.

    Read the article

  • How do I post to a webservice and display the returned Response in MVC3 Razor Application?

    - by DavieDave
    I have need to call a webservice from an HTML helper extension I created (combinbation of Action and Image) and placed in the view as follows @Html.ActionImage("CallService", new { number = ViewBag.number, code = ViewBag.code, account = ViewBag.account, amount = ViewBag.amount }, "~/Content/sb_200x61.png", "Start the Process") I am making the action call and it calls the service and returns a string of the html response, but it doesn't look right. I am using the typical HttpWebRequest to do the POST Action in C# code. Here is the controller action code: public MvcHtmlString CallService(string number, string code, string account, decimal? amount) { string response = MyService.ServiceLayer.ClassName.callService(number, code, account, Convert.ToDecimal(amount); MvcHtmlString mstring = new MvcHtmlString(response); return mstring; } When it returns the string back it's looking like the all styling and js is removed. It that due to MvcHtmlString? Is there a better way to do this? Redirect somehow ?

    Read the article

  • Function naming: sendCharacter or receiveCharacter?

    - by bobobobo
    I'm trying to name a function that runs when a character is received by the object. For the caller, it should be named sendCharacter, so that it can call: object->sendCharacter( character ) ; That looks nice for the caller.. but for the receiver, it implements a method /// Called when this object is do something /// with a character /// from the caller void sendCharacter( char c ) ; So for the recipient class, it looks like this method will actually send a character out, not receive one. So then, I could call the function receiveCharacter /// Called when this object is do something /// with a character /// from the caller void receiveCharacter( char c ) ; But now the caller does this: object->receiveCharacter( character ) ; Which just looks odd. How can I better name this function?

    Read the article

  • show() doesn't redraw anymore

    - by Abruzzo Forte e Gentile
    Hi All I am working in linux and I don't know why using python and matplotlib commands draws me only once the chart I want. The first time I call show() the plot is drawn, wihtout any problem, but not the second time and the following. I close the window showing the chart between the two calls. Do you know why and hot to fix it? Thanks AFG from numpy import * from pylab import * data = array( [ 1,2,3,4,5] ) plot(data) [<matplotlib.lines.Line2D object at 0x90c98ac>] show() # this call shows me a plot #..now I close the window... data = array( [ 1,2,3,4,5,6] ) plot(data) [<matplotlib.lines.Line2D object at 0x92dafec>] show() # this one doesn't shows me anything

    Read the article

  • iPhone:(Three20)Unselect (Unhiglight) TTTabItem dynamically?

    - by user187532
    Hello friends, I have four TabBarItem (TTTabItem) in a TabBar (TTTabBar). In one case, i want to remove the TabBarItem selection from any of the four TabBarItems (TTTabItem) . i.e., the complete TabBar will not show any TabBarItems selected. Can i achieve it? I tried the following, [_tabBar1 setSelectedTabItem:nil]; But it is crashing. Could someone guide me to resolve this? I need help urgently. (OR) If we clicked on one TabBarItem(TTTabItem), then again clicking on same TabBarItem(TTTabItem) will not call/execute anything right. Can i make it always clicking on a TabBarItem, should call "(void)tabBar: (UITabBar *)tabBar didSelectItem:(UITabBarItem *)item" (or) any other relevant system functions? I need your helps urgently, could someone guide me for my issue? Thank you.

    Read the article

  • how to return value through php function when called through the anchor tag in html

    - by sumit
    Look at my code below <a href="https://secure.gate2shop.com/ppp/purchase.do?merchant_id=234555454545433&merchant_site_id=54443¤cy=USD&total_amount=39.99&item_name_1=IncidentSupportTier1&item_amount_1=39.99&item_quantity_1=1&checksum=**call php function to get the checksum value**&time_stamp=2010-06-14.14:34:33&version=3.0.0" onmouseover="document.myform.sub_but.src='checkout02.jpg'" onmouseout="document.myform.sub_but.src='butup.gif'" onclick="return val_form_this_page()"> <img src="http://www.techvedic.com/gifs/checkout02.jpg" width="143" height="39" border="0" alt="Submit this form" name="sub_but" /> On button click the href link will open. But before opening the link I need to calculate the cheksum. I know how to calculate it in PHP script. But please tell me how can I call the PHP function which will return the checksum value. Don’t worry about the code in PHP script.

    Read the article

  • Windows batch file: Pipe destroys my return code

    - by murxx
    Hi, is it possible to return the errorlevel also if I pipe the output of a script into a logfile: test1.bat: call test2.bat 2>&1 | tee log.txt echo ERRORLEVEL: %ERRORLEVEL% test2.bat: exit /B 1 Output when calling test1.bat: ERRORLEVEL: 0 The errorlevel is always 0. The problem is, I want to call another script inside my script where the output should be redirected synchronously with the output shown in the command line, therefore a simple is not enough for me. I tried several ideas, but result is that the pipe always seems to destroy the given error-level... :( Can you give me any further suggestions? Thanks in advance... :)

    Read the article

  • Secure C# Assemblies from unauthorized Callers

    - by Creepy Gnome
    Is there any way to secure your assembly down to the class/property & class/method level to prevent the using/calling of them from another assembly that isn't signed by our company? I would like to do this without any requirements on strong naming (like using StrongNameIdentityPermission) and stick with how an assembly is signed. I really do not want to resort to using the InternalsVisibleTo attribute as that is not maintainable in a ever changing software ecosystem. For example: Scenario One Foo.dll is signed by my company and Bar.dll is not signed at all. Foo has Class A Bar has Class B Class A has public method GetSomething() Class B tries to call Foo.A.GetSomething() and is rejected Rejected can be an exception or being ignored in someway Scenario Two Foo.dll is signed by my company and Moo.dll is also signed by my company. Foo has Class A Moo has Class C Class A has public method GetSomething() Class C tries to call Foo.A.GetSomething() and is not rejected

    Read the article

  • Adding a method to a function object at runtime

    - by Carson Myers
    I read a question earlier asking if there was a times method in Python, that would allow a function to be called n times in a row. Everyone suggested for _ in range(n): foo() but I wanted to try and code a different solution using a function decorator. Here's what I have: def times(self, n, *args, **kwargs): for _ in range(n): self.__call__(*args, **kwargs) import new def repeatable(func): func.times = new.instancemethod(times, func, func.__class__) @repeatable def threeArgs(one, two, three): print one, two, three threeArgs.times(7, "one", two="rawr", three="foo") When I run the program, I get the following exception: Traceback (most recent call last): File "", line 244, in run_nodebug File "C:\py\repeatable.py", line 24, in threeArgs.times(7, "one", two="rawr", three="foo") AttributeError: 'NoneType' object has no attribute 'times' So I suppose the decorator didn't work? How can I fix this?

    Read the article

  • Android bug with buttons and editText

    - by khatereh
    I have some android code (textView, editText, button) and I add all strings in string.xml. I call these data in this way: Button vibro; setVibro((Button) findViewById(R.id.vibro)); vibro.setText(getString(R.string.vibro_button)); vibro = (Button)findViewById(R.id.vibro); and also I create set and get method for it. This is one part of my main.xml: android:id="@+id/editme" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:text="@string/username" / <Button android:id="@+id/buttons" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:text="@string/bfirst" /> and this is one part of my string.xml: Register The problem is that I see the buttons and edit text and everything in all my pages. I am sure that I call them in a correct way. But what can cause a problem?

    Read the article

  • 2 compareTo method overriden in the same class definition, how could I force to use the second?

    - by jayjaypg22
    I want to sort a list List<Blabla> donnees by a criterion on one of its field. My problem is that compareTo is already overriden for this Class. So I've got something like : Blabla { public int compareTo(Object other) { ... } public int compareTo(Blabla other) { ... } } In a business layer class I call : Business { method (){ Collections.sort(List<Blabla > donnees); } } But this call N°1 compareTo method with object parameter. How could I sort my list with the N°2 method?

    Read the article

  • Disposing a Bitmap through its Finalizer

    - by devoured elysium
    I have a complex program in which I have to first create, then use wrappers around bitmaps and send them across a lot of different classes. The problem in the end is deciding which classes should dispose the bitmaps. Most of the time the end classes don't know if they can indeed dispose the bitmap as the same bitmap can be used in several places. Also, I can't just copy the bitmaps because this is a kind of resource intensive algorithm and doing it would be dead slow. I looked up on reflector for Image/Bitmap's implementations and they seem to use the Dispose Pattern. So, even if I don't call Dispose(), the CLR will eventually call it some other time. Is it too bad if I just let the bitmaps be as they are, and let the finalizer take care of them?

    Read the article

  • calling java class file through windows service in .net

    - by Kaumadee Wijewantha
    i have creared windows service from C# for calling java class file. i have used bat file to call this java file in C#. the task of the java class is create output file. but the when stated the service output file wasnt created. java class is worked perfeclty with out servise when it invoke from bat file. (but may task manger shows instantiates of command prompt.) is it possible to call java class through bat file in windws servise?

    Read the article

  • Emailing Service: To or Bcc?

    - by Shelakel
    I'm busy coding a reusable e-mail service for my company. The e-mail service will be doing quite a few things via injection through the strategy pattern (such as handling e-mail send rate throttling, switching between Smtp and AmazonSES or Google AppEngine for e-mail clients when daily quotas are exceeded, send statistics tracking (mostly because it is neccessary in order to stay within quotas) to name a few). Because e-mail sending will need to be throttled and other limitations exist (ex. max recipient quota on AmazonSES limiting recipients to 50 per send), the e-mails typically need to be broken up. From your experience, would it be better to send bulk (multiple recipients per e-mail) or a single e-mail per recipient? The implications of the above would be to send to a 1000 recipients, with a limit of 50 per send, you would send 20 e-mails using BCC in a newsletter scenario. When sending an e-mail per recipient, it would send 1000 e-mails. E-mail sending is asynchronous (due to inherit latency when sending, it's typically only possible to send 5 e-mails per second unless you are using multiple client asynchronously). Edit Just for full disclosure, this service won't be used by or sold to spammers and will as far as possible automatically comply with national and international laws. Closed< Thanks for all the valuable feedback. The concerns regarding compliance towards laws, user experience (generic vs. personalized unsubscribe) and spam regulation via ISP blacklisting does make To the preferred and possibly the only choice when sending system generated e-mails to recipients.

    Read the article

  • How to avoid recursion in Java SecurityManager checkConnect?

    - by Zilupe
    I'm trying to take control of a Java code base that does lots of un-documented things. I'm using a custom SecurityManager to check permission requests. Specifically, my code is checking SocketPermission checks -- checkConnect. checkConnect is called when the application tries to resolve a host name to IP address and to connect to a specific IP address. The problem is that I don't know how to properly call host name resolution (InetAddress.getAddressByName) without falling into infinite recursion, because normally checkConnect is called even when I resolve the name from inside the SecurityManager.checkConnect. I have read on the web that I have to call the address resolution from a doPrivileged block, but no idea how. P.S. Is this possible without writing any policy files?

    Read the article

  • Thread Code...anything wrong with this, must use java 1.4

    - by bmw0128
    I have a servlet automatically firing up when the app server starts, and in its init(), I'm making another thread: init(){ new FooThread() } in FooThread(), i want to periodically check the status of a DB value, then depending on the value, make a web service call. When these two tasks complete, I want the thread to sleep to wait a certain period then repeat. This cycle would just continue forever. FooThread: public class FooThread implements Runnable{ Thread t; FooThread(){ t = new Thread(this, "BBSThread"); logger.info("*** about to start " + t.getName()); t.start(); logger.info("*** started: " + t); } public void run() { try{ while(true){ //do the db check, then conditionally do the web services call logger.info("*** calling sleep() ***"); Thread.sleep(50000); logger.info("*** now awake ***"); } } catch (InterruptedException e) { System.out.println("*** FooThread interrupted"); } } }

    Read the article

  • Does Core Data automatically validate new values when they are set?

    - by mystify
    In this question, someone asked how to write a validation method for Core Data. I did that, and it looks cool. But one thing doesn't happen: The validation. I can easily set any "bad" value and this method doesn't get called automatically. What's the concept behind this? Must I always first call the validation method before setting any value? So would I write setter methods which call the appropriate validation method first? And if yes, what's the point of following a strict convention in how to write the validation method signature? I guess there's also some automatic way of validation, then. How to activate this?

    Read the article

  • resort on a std::vector vs std::insert

    - by Abruzzo Forte e Gentile
    I have a sorted std::vector of relative small size ( from 5 to 20 elements ). I used std::vector since the data is continuous so I have speed because of cache. On a specific point I need to remove an element from this vector. I have now a doubt: which is the fastest way to remove this value between the 2 options below? setting that element to 0 and call sort to reorder: this has complexity but elements are on the same cache line. call erase that will copy ( or memcpy who knows?? ) all elements after it of 1 place ( I need to investigate the behind scense of erase ). Do you know which one is faster? I think that the same approach could be thought about inserting a new element without hitting the max capacity of the vector. Regards AFG

    Read the article

  • C++ Scoping and ambiguity in constructor overloads

    - by loarabia
    I've tried the following code snippet in 3 different compilers (G++, clang++, CL.exe) and they all report to me that they cannot disambiguate the overloaded constructors. Now, I know how I could modify the call to the constructor to make it pick one or the other (either make explicit that the second argument is a unsigned literal value or explicitly cast it). However, I'm curious why the compiler would be attempting to choose between constructors in the first place given that one of the constructors is private and the call to the constructor is happening in the main function which should be outside the class's scope. Can anyone enlighten me? class Test { private: Test(unsigned int a, unsigned int *b) { } public: Test(unsigned int a, unsigned int b) { } }; int main() { Test t1 = Test(1,0); // compiler is confused }

    Read the article

  • naming a method - using set() when *not* setting a property?

    - by user151841
    Is setX() method name appropriate for only for setting class property X? For instance, I have a class where the output is a string of an html table. Before you can you can call getTable, you have to call setTable(), which just looks at a other properties and decides how to construct the table. It doesn't actually directly set any class property -- only causes the property to be set. When it's called, the class will construct strHtmlTable, but you can't specify it. So, calling it setTable breaks the convention of get and set being interfaces for class properties. Is there another naming convention for this kind of method? Edit: in this particular class, there are at least two ( and in total 8 optional ) other methods that must be called before the class knows everything it needs to to construct the table. I chose to have the data set as separate methods rather than clutter up the __construct() with 8 optional parameters which I'll never remember the order of.

    Read the article

  • Popup control from dll in web page

    - by Argons
    I'm developing a kind of framework that will work in web and win, so I have this interface: public interface IViewsManager { ... void ShowMessage(); ... } And I have the implementation for win that call a popup control from another dll. My problem is when I try to implement it for web enviroment, I have to call a popup control from another dll, and I would like to show the popup and the web page disables with a gray layer, and I don't know how to do it. Please, any help will be appreciated. Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • CakePHP: How do I change page title from helper?

    - by Zeta Two
    Hello! I'm using a helper for static pages to add a part to the title on every page. Currently I have the following code at the top of every static page: <?php $this->set('title_for_layout', $title->output('Nyheter')); ?> The purpose of $title-output is to append " :: MY WEB SITE NAME". This works fine, but for simplicity I would rather just call: $title->title('Nyheter'); At the top of every page to set the title. The problem is that I can't call $this-set() from within the helper. Is there a way to something like this or am I completely on the wrong path here?

    Read the article

  • accessing my public methods from within my namespace

    - by Derek Adair
    I am in the process of making my own namespace in JavaScript... (function(window){ (function(){ var myNamespace = { somePublicMethod: function(){ }, anotherPublicMethod: function(){ } } return (window.myNamespace = window.my = myNamespace) }()); })(window); I'm new to these kinds of advanced JavaScript techniques and i'm trying to figure out the best way to call public methods from within my namespace. It appears that within my public methods this is being set to myNamespace. Should I call public methods like... AnotherPublicMethod: function(){ this.somePublicMethod() } or... AnotherPublicMethod: function(){ my.somePublicMethod(); } is there any difference?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 352 353 354 355 356 357 358 359 360 361 362 363  | Next Page >