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• Database cache that I'm not aware of?

  - by Martin

  I'm using asp.net mvc, linq2sql, iis7 and sqlserver express 2008. I get these intermittent server errors, primary key conflicts on insertion. I'm using a different setup on my development computer so I can't debug. After a while they go away. Restarting iis helps. I'm getting the feeling there is cache somewhere that I'm not aware of. Can somebody help me sort out these errors? Cannot insert duplicate key row in object 'dbo.EnquiryType' with unique index 'IX_EnquiryType'. Edits regarding Venemos answer Is it possible that another application is also accessing the same database simultaneously? Yes there is, but not this particular table and no inserts or updates. There is one other table with which I experience the same problem but it has to do with a different part of the model. How often an in what context do you create a new DataContext instance? Only once, using the singleton pattern. Are the primary keys generated by the database or by the application? Database. Which version of ASP.NET MVC and which version of .NET are you using? RC2 and 3.5.

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• C# Dataset Dynamically Add DataColumn

  - by Wesley

  I am trying to add a extra column to a dataset after a query has completed. I have a database relationship of the following: Employees / \ Groups EmployeeGroups Empoyees holds all the data for that individual, I'll name the unique key the UserID. Groups holds all the groups that a employee can be a part of, i.e. Super User, Admin, User; etc. I will name the unique key GroupID EmployeeGroups holds all the associations of which groups each employee belongs too. (UserID | GroupID) What I am trying to accomplish is after querying for a all users I want to loop though each user and add what groups that user is a part of by adding a new column to the dataset named 'Groups' which is a string to insert the values of the next query to get all the groups that user is a part of. Then by user of databinding populate a listview with all employees and their group associations My code is as follows; Position 5 is the new column I am trying to add to the dataset. string theQuery = "select UserID, FirstName, LastName, EmployeeID, Active from Employees"; DataSet theEmployeeSet = itsDatabase.runQuery(theQuery); DataColumn theCol = new DataColumn("Groups", typeof(string)); theEmployeeSet.Tables[0].Columns.Add(theCol); foreach (DataRow theRow in theEmployeeSet.Tables[0].Rows) { theRow.ItemArray[5] = "1234"; } At the moment, the code will create the new column but when i assign the data to that column nothing will be assigned, what am I missing? If there is any further explination or information I can provide, please let me know. Thank you all

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• WPF CollectionViewSource Grouping

  - by Miles

  I'm using a Collection View Source to group my data. In my data, I have Property1 and Property2 that I'm needing to group on. The only stipulation is that I don't want sub-groups of another group. So, when I group by these two properties, I don't want to have it so that Property2 because a subgroup of Property1's group. The reason why I'm wanting this is because I'm wanting to have a header that shows the following information: Header: <TextBlock.Text> <MultiBinding StringFormat="Property1: {0}, Property2: {1}"> <Binding Path="Property1"/> <Binding Path="Property2"/> </MultiBinding> </TextBlock.Text> I've tried this with my CollectionViewSource but was not able to "combine" the group and subgroup together: <CollectionViewSource x:Key="myKey" Source="{Binding myDataSource}"> <CollectionViewSource.GroupDescriptions> <PropertyGroupDescription PropertyName="Property1" /> <PropertyGroupDescription PropertyName="Property2" /> </CollectionViewSource.GroupDescriptions> </CollectionViewSource> Is it possible to group two properties together? Something like below? <CollectionViewSource x:Key="myKey" Source="{Binding myDataSource}"> <CollectionViewSource.GroupDescriptions> <PropertyGroupDescription PropertyName="Property1,Property2" /> </CollectionViewSource.GroupDescriptions> </CollectionViewSource>

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• Get part of array string

  - by user1560295

  Hello my output PHP code is : Array ( [country] => BG - Bulgaria ) ... and he comes from here : <?php $ip = $_SERVER['REMOTE_ADDR']; print_r(geoCheckIP($ip)); //Array ( [domain] => dslb-094-219-040-096.pools.arcor-ip.net [country] => DE - Germany [state] => Hessen [town] => Erzhausen ) //Get an array with geoip-infodata function geoCheckIP($ip) { //check, if the provided ip is valid if(!filter_var($ip, FILTER_VALIDATE_IP)) { throw new InvalidArgumentException("IP is not valid"); } //contact ip-server $response=@file_get_contents('http://www.netip.de/search?query='.$ip); if (empty($response)) { throw new InvalidArgumentException("Error contacting Geo-IP-Server"); } //Array containing all regex-patterns necessary to extract ip-geoinfo from page $patterns=array(); $patterns["country"] = '#Country: (.*?)&nbsp;#i'; //Array where results will be stored $ipInfo=array(); //check response from ipserver for above patterns foreach ($patterns as $key => $pattern) { //store the result in array $ipInfo[$key] = preg_match($pattern,$response,$value) && !empty($value[1]) ? $value[1] : ''; } return $ipInfo; } ?> How can I get ONLY the name of the Country like in my case "Bulgaria"? I think it will happen with preg_replace or substr but i dont know what is the better solution now.

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• .next is undefined, jquery plugin problem

  - by ndelangen

  I'm trying to create my own plugin. But I'm having trouble getting things right. It appears when I'm trying to traverse inside .each things go wrong. I'm trying to go to the next item every 6 seconds by fading. jQuery(function($){ $.fn.rotator = function(options){ this.each(function() { var container = $(this); var images = container.children(); //Set the opacity of all images to 0 images.css({opacity: 0.0}); //Get the first image and display it (gets set to full opacity) $('div:first',this).css({opacity: 1.0}).addClass('show'); //Call the rotator function to run the slideshow, 6000 = change to next image after 6 seconds var obj = $(this); setInterval(nextimage(obj),6000); }); }; // rotate function function nextimage(obj) { var container = $(obj); var images = container.children(); //Get the current image var current = (images.hasClass('show')? images.hasClass('show') : images.first()); //Get next image, when it reaches the end, rotate it back to the first image var next = ((current.next().length) ? ((current.next().hasClass('show')) ? images.first() :current.next()) : images.first()); //Set the fade in effect for the next image, the show class has higher z-index next.css({opacity: 0.0}) .addClass('show') .animate({opacity: 1.0}, 1000); //Hide the current image current.animate({opacity: 0.0}, 1000) .removeClass('show'); }; }); $(document).ready(function(){ $("#bg").rotator({ }) }); The error I get is: current.next is not a function Line 35 Line 35 = var next = ((current.next().length) ? ((current.next().hasClass('show')) ? images.first() :current.next()) : images.first()); Can someone tell me what I'm doing wrong?

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• function returns after an XMLHttpRequest

  - by ashays

  Alright, I know questions like this have probably been asked dozens of times, but I can't seem to find a working solution for my project. Recently, while using jQuery for a lot of AJAX calls, I've found myself in a form of callback hell. Whether or not jQuery is too powerful for this project is beyond the scope of this question. So basically here's some code that shows what's going on: function check_form(table) { var file = "/models/"+table+".json"; var errs = {}; var xhr = $.getJSON(file, function(json) { for (key in json) { var k = key; var r = json[k]; $.extend(errs, check_item("#"+k,r)); } }); return errs; } And... as you can probably guess, I get an empty object returned. My original idea was to use some sort of onReadyStateChange idea that would return whenever the readyState had finally hit 4. This causes my application to hang indefinitely, though. I need these errors to decide whether or not the form is allowed to submit or not (as well as to tell the user where the errors are in the application. Any ideas? Edit. It's not the prettiest solution, but I've managed to get it to work. Basically, check_form has the json passed to it from another function, instead of loading it. I was already loading it there, too, so it's probably best that I don't continue to load the same file over and over again anyways. I was just worried about overloading memory. These files aren't absolutely huge, though, so I guess it's probably okay.

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• how to validate the dropdownlist box values on submit

  - by kumar

  Hello friends, I have validate_excpt on Form Before Submit I am doing this.. on the View I have two dropdown listboxes I am using On Submit I need to check.. If I selet ResolutionCode I need to validat ReasonCode Dropdownlist that It should select if not Pelase select ReasonCode I should Dispaly? Do I need to do this on Submit ButtonClick? or Can I do it on Validate_excpt? Can anybody help me out? <label for="ResolutionCode"> Resolution: <span> <%=Html.DropDownListFor(model => model.ResolutionCode, new SelectList(Model.LookupCodes["C_EXCPT_RESL"], "Key", "Value"))%> </span> </label> <label for="ReasonCode"> Reason: <span><%=Html.DropDownListFor(model => model.ReasonCode, new SelectList(Model.LookupCodes["C_EXCPT_RSN"], "Key", "Value"))%></span> </label> function validate_excpt(formData, jqForm, options) { var form = jqForm[0]; return true; } // post-submit callback function showResponse(responseText, statusText, xhr, $form) { if (responseText[0].substring(0, 16) != "System.Exception") { $('#error-msg-ID span:last').html('<strong>Update successful.</strong>'); } else { $('#error-msg-ID span:last').html('<strong>Update failed.</strong> ' + responseText[0].substring(0, 48)); } $('#error-msg-ID').removeClass('hide'); } $('#exc-').ajaxForm({ target: '#error-msg-ID', beforeSubmit: validate_excpt, success: showResponse, dataType: 'json' });

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• Tree deletion with NHibernate

  - by Tigraine

  Hi, I'm struggling with a little problem and starting to arrive at the conclusion it's simply not possible. I have a Table called Group. As with most of these systems Group has a ParentGroup and a Children collection. So the Table Group looks like this: Group -ID (PK) -Name -ParentId (FK) I did my mappings using FNH AutoMappings, but I had to override the defaults for this: p.References(x => x.Parent) .Column("ParentId") .Cascade.All(); p.HasMany(x => x.Children) .KeyColumn("ParentId") .ForeignKeyCascadeOnDelete() .Cascade.AllDeleteOrphan() .Inverse(); Now, the general idea was to be able to delete a node and all of it's children to be deleted too by NH. So deleting the only root node should basically clear the whole table. I tried first with Cascade.AllDeleteOrphan but that works only for deletion of items from the Children collection, not deletion of the parent. Next I tried ForeignKeyCascadeOnDelete so the operation gets delegated to the Database through on delete cascade. But once I do that MSSql2008 does not allow me to create this constraint, failing with : Introducing FOREIGN KEY constraint 'FKBA21C18E87B9D9F7' on table 'Group' may cause cycles or multiple cascade paths. Specify ON DELETE NO ACTION or ON UPDATE NO ACTION, or modify other FOREIGN KEY constraints. Well, and that's it for me. I guess I'll just loop through the children and delete them one by one, thus doing a N+1. If anyone has a suggestion on how do that more elegantly I'd be eager to hear it.

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• DuplicateKeyException in LINQ, but I've set auto increment and auto sync

  - by Fritos

  I'm getting a DuplicateKeyException error in my C# code. I've set Auto Generated = true, and Auto-Sync = OnInsert in my dbml. I'm not even touching the PK field in any manually written code (as seen below [My primary key field is actually called PK]). using (DeviceExerciseDataDataContext context = new DeviceExerciseDataDataContext()) { foreach(Data tgudData in data.Data) { tgd = new tableData(); tgd.FK = key; tgd.Time = tgudData.TimeStamp; tgd.Calories = Convert.ToInt32(tgudData.Calories); tgd.HeartRate = tgudData.AvgHr; tgd.BenchAngle = tgudData.Angle; tgd.WorkoutTarget = 0; tgd.Reps = tgudData.Reps; context.tableDatas.InsertOnSubmit(tgd); } context.SubmitChanges(); } This is the code for the column in the designer (columns are named PK and FK) [global::System.Data.Linq.Mapping.ColumnAttribute(Storage="_PK", AutoSync=AutoSync.OnInsert, DbType="Int NOT NULL", IsPrimaryKey=true, IsDbGenerated=true)] public int PK { get { return this._PK; } set { if ((this._PK != value)) { this.OnPKChanging(value); this.SendPropertyChanging(); this._PK = value; this.SendPropertyChanged("PK"); this.OnPKChanged(); } } } [global::System.Data.Linq.Mapping.ColumnAttribute(Storage="_FK", DbType="Int")] public System.Nullable<int> FK { get { return this._FK; } set { if ((this._FK != value)) { this.OnFKChanging(value); this.SendPropertyChanging(); this._FK = value; this.SendPropertyChanged("FK"); this.OnFKChanged(); } } }

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• What are the best practices for storing PHP session data in a database?

  - by undefined

  I have developed a web application that uses a web server and database hosted by a web host (on the ground) and a server running on Amazon Web Services EC2. Both servers may be used by a user during a session and both will need to know some session information about a user. I don't want to POST the information that is needed by both servers because I dont want it to be visible to browsers / Firebug etc. So I need my session data to persist across servers. And I think that this means that the best option is to store all / some of the data that I need in the database rather than in a session. The easiest thing to do seems to be to keep the sessions but to POST the session_id between servers and use this as the key to lookup the data I need from a 'user_session_data' table in the database. I have looked at Tony Marston's article "Saving PHP Session Data to a database" - should I use this or will a table with the session data that I need and session_id as key suffice? What would be the downside of creating my own table and set of methods for storing the data I need in the database?

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• Linq2Sql: query - subquery optimisation

  - by Budda

  I have the following query: IList<InfrStadium> stadiums = (from sector in DbContext.sectors where sector.Type=typeValue select new InfrStadium(sector.TeamId) ).ToList(); and InfrStadium class constructor: private InfrStadium(int teamId) { IList<Sector> teamSectors = (from sector in DbContext.sectors where sector.TeamId==teamId select sector) .ToList<>(); ... work with data } Current implementation perform 1+n queries, where n - number of records fetched the 1st time. I want to optimize that. And another one I would love to do using 'group' operator in way like this: IList<InfrStadium> stadiums = (from sector in DbContext.sectors group sector by sector.TeamId into team_sectors select new InfrStadium(team_sectors.Key, team_sectors) ).ToList(); with appropriate constructor: private InfrStadium(int iTeamId, IEnumerable<InfrStadiumSector> eSectors) { IList<Sector> teamSectors = eSectors.ToList(); ... work with data } But attempt to launch query causes the following error: Expression of type 'System.Int32' cannot be used for constructor parameter of type 'System.Collections.Generic.IEnumerable`1[InfrStadiumSector]' Question 1: Could you please explain, what is wrong here, I don't understand why 'team_sectors' is applied as 'System.Int32'? I've tried to change query a little (replace IEnumerable with IQueryeable): IList<InfrStadium> stadiums = (from sector in DbContext.sectors group sector by sector.TeamId into team_sectors select new InfrStadium(team_sectors.Key, team_sectors.AsQueryable()) ).ToList(); with appropriate constructor: private InfrStadium(int iTeamId, IQueryeable<InfrStadiumSector> eSectors) { IList<Sector> teamSectors = eSectors.ToList(); ... work with data } In this case I've received another but similar error: Expression of type 'System.Int32' cannot be used for parameter of type 'System.Collections.Generic.IEnumerable1[InfrStadiumSector]' of method 'System.Linq.IQueryable1[InfrStadiumSector] AsQueryableInfrStadiumSector' Question 2: Actually, the same question: can't understand at all what is going on here... P.S. I have another to optimize query idea (describe here: Linq2Sql: query optimisation) but I would love to find a solution with 1 request to DB).

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• How to add an extra plist property using CMake?

  - by Jesse Beder

  I'm trying to add the item <key>UIStatusBarHidden</key><true/> to my plist that's auto-generated by CMake. For certain keys, it appears there are pre-defined ways to add an item; for example: set(MACOSX_BUNDLE_ICON_FILE ${ICON}) But I can't find a way to add an arbitrary property. I tried using the MACOSX_BUNDLE_INFO_PLIST target property as follows: I'd like the resulting plist to be identical to the old one, except with the new property I want, so I just copied the auto-generated plist and set that as my template. But the plist uses some Xcode variables, which also look like ${foo}, and CMake grumbles about this: Syntax error in cmake code when parsing string <string>com.bedaire.${PRODUCT_NAME:identifier}</string> syntax error, unexpected cal_SYMBOL, expecting } (47) Policy CMP0010 is not set: Bad variable reference syntax is an error. Run "cmake --help-policy CMP0010" for policy details. Use the cmake_policy command to set the policy and suppress this warning. This warning is for project developers. Use -Wno-dev to suppress it. In any case, I'm not even sure that this is the right thing to do. I can't find a good example or any good documentation about this. Ideally, I'd just let CMake generate everything as before, and just add a single extra line. What can I do?

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• How to make a self contained jQuery plugin that finds the tallest image height?

  - by Jannis

  I have been trying to make this to be a little jQuery plugin that I can reuse in the future without having to write the following into my actions.js file in full. This works when loaded in the same file where I set the height using my variable tallest. var tallest = null; $('.slideshow img').each(function(index) { if ($(this).height() >= tallest ) { tallest = $(this).height(); } }); $('.slideshow').height(tallest); This works and will cycle through all the items, then set the value of tallest to the greatest height found. The following however does not work: This would be the plugin, loaded from its own file (before the actions.js file that contains the parts using this): (function($){ $.fn.extend({ tallest: function() { var tallest = null; return this.each(function() { if ($(this).height() >= tallest ) { tallest = $(this).height(); } }); } }); })(jQuery); Once loaded I am trying to use it as follows: $('.slideshow img').tallest(); $('.slideshow').height(tallest); However the above two lines return an error of 'tallest is undefined'. How can I make this work? Any ideas would be appreciated. Thinking about this even more the perfect usage of this would be as follows: $('.container').height(tallest('.container item')); But I wouldn't even know where to begin to get this to work in the manner that you pass the object to be measured into the function by adding it into the brackets of the function name. Thanks for reading, Jannis

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• How can I go through a Set in JSP? (Hibernate Associations)

  - by Parris

  Hi All, So I am pretty new to JSP. I have tried this a few ways. Ways that would make sense in PHP or automagicy frameworks... I am probably thinking too much in fact... I have a hibernate one to many association. That is class x has many of class y. In class x's view.jsp. I would like to grab all of class y, where the foreign key of y matches the primary key of x and display them. It seems that hibernate properly puts this stuff into a set. Now, the question is how can I iterate through this set and then output it's contents... I am kind of stumped here. I tried to write a scriptlet, <% java.util.Iterator iter = aBean.getYs().iter(); // aBeans is the bean name // getYs would return the set and iter would return an iterator for the set while(iter.hasNext) { model.X a = new iter.next() %> <h1><%=a.getTitle()%></h1> <% } %> It would seem that that sort of thing should work? Hmmmmmm

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• Slider with buttons. How to improve?

  - by Kalinin

  I need to make slider. I have content (which should shift horizontally) and two buttons - "right" and "left". If you press the button and hold it, the content starts to move (in the appropriate direction). If you not hold the button, then the movement stops. This behavior is copies the behavior of usual window scrollbar. I wrote code: var animateTime = 1, offsetStep = 5; //event handling for buttons "left", "right" $('.bttR, .bttL') .mousedown(function() { scrollContent.data('loop', true).loopingAnimation($(this)); }) .bind("mouseup mouseout", function(){ scrollContent.data('loop', false); }); $.fn.loopingAnimation = function(el){ if(this.data('loop') == true){ var leftOffsetStr; leftOffsetInt = parseInt(this.css('marginLeft').slice(0, -2)); if(el.attr('class') == 'bttR') leftOffsetStr = (leftOffsetInt - offsetStep).toString() + 'px'; else if(el.attr('class') == 'bttL') leftOffsetStr = (leftOffsetInt + offsetStep).toString() + 'px'; this.animate({marginLeft: leftOffsetStr}, animateTime, function(){ $(this).loopingAnimation(el); }) } return this; } But it does have a few things that I do not like: Always call the function animation (loopingAnimation) - I think that this is an extra load (not good). When moving content he "twitches and trembling" - (it's not pretty). How can I solve this problem more elegantly and without the drawbacks of my code?

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• Calling a jQuery method at declaration time, and then onEvent

  - by cesarsalazar

  I've been writing JS (mainly jQuery) for quite a few months now, but today I decided to make my first abstraction as a jQuery method. I already have working code but I feel/know that I'm not doing it the right way, so I come here for some enlightenment. Note: Please do not reply that there's already something out there that does the trick as I already know that. My interest in this matter is rather educational. What my code is intended to do (and does): Limit the characters of a textfield and change the color of the counter when the user is approaching the end. And here's what I have: $(function(){ $('#bio textarea').keyup(function(){ $(this).char_length_validation({ maxlength: 500, warning: 50, validationSelector: '#bio .note' }) }) $('#bio textarea').trigger('keyup'); }) jQuery.fn.char_length_validation = function(opts){ chars_left = opts.maxlength - this.val().length; if(chars_left >= 0){ $(opts.validationSelector + ' .value').text(chars_left); if(chars_left < opts.warning){ $(opts.validationSelector).addClass('invalid'); } else{ $(opts.validationSelector).removeClass('invalid'); } } else{ this.value = this.value.substring(0, opts.maxlength); } } In the HTML: <div id="bio"> <textarea>Some text</textarea> <p class="note> <span class="value">XX</span> <span> characters left</span> </p> </div> Particularly I feel really uncomfortable binding the event each on each keyup instead of binding once and calling a method later. Also, (and hence the title) I need to call the method initially (when the page renders) and then every time the user inputs a character. Thanks in advance for your time :)

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• C# sqlite syntax in ASP.NET?

  - by acidzombie24

  -edit- This is no longer relevant and the question doesnt make sense to me anymore. I think i wanted to know how to create tables or know if the syntax is the same from winform to ASP.NET I am very use to sqlite http://sqlite.phxsoftware.com/ and would like to create a DB in a similar style. How do i do this? it doesnt need to be the same, just similar enough for me to enjoy. An example of the syntax. connection = new SQLiteConnection("Data Source=" + sz +";Version=3"); command = new SQLiteCommand(connection); connection.Open(); command.CommandText = "CREATE TABLE if not exists miscInfo(key TEXT, " + "value TEXT, UNIQUE (key));"; command.ExecuteNonQuery(); The @name is a symbol and command.Parameters.Add("@userDesc", DbType.String).Value = d.userDesc; replaces the symbol with escaped values/texts/blob command.CommandText = "INSERT INTO discData(rootfolderID, time, volumeName, discLabel, " + "userTitle, userDesc) "+ "VALUES(@rootfolderID, @time, @volumeName, @discLabel, " + "@userTitle, @userDesc); " + "SELECT last_insert_rowid() AS RecordID;"; command.Parameters.Add("@rootfolderID", DbType.Int64).Value = d.rootfolderID; command.Parameters.Add("@time", DbType.Int64).Value = d.time; command.Parameters.Add("@volumeName", DbType.String).Value = d.volumeName; command.Parameters.Add("@discLabel", DbType.String).Value = d.discLabel; command.Parameters.Add("@userTitle", DbType.String).Value = d.userTitle; command.Parameters.Add("@userDesc", DbType.String).Value = d.userDesc; d.discID = (long)command.ExecuteScalar();

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• jQuery: bind generated elements

  - by superUntitled

  Hello, thank you for taking time to look at this. I am trying to code my very first jQuery plugin and have run into my first problem. The plugin is called like this <div id="kneel"></div> <script type="text/javascript"> $("#kneel").zod(1, { }); </script> It takes the first option (integer), and returns html content that is dynamically generated by php. The content that is generated needs to be bound by a variety of functions (such as disabling form buttons and click events that return ajax data. The plugin looks like this (I have included the whole plugin in case that matters)... (function( $ ){ $.fn.zod = function(id, options ) { var settings = { 'next_button_text': 'Next', 'submit_button_text': 'Submit' }; return this.each(function() { if ( options ) { $.extend( settings, options ); } // variables var obj = $(this); /* these functions contain html elements that are generated by the get() function below */ // disable some buttons $('div.bario').children('.button').attr('disabled', true); // once an option is selected, enable the button $('input[type="radio"]').live('click', function(e) { $('div.bario').children('.button').attr('disabled', false); }) // when a button is clicked, return some data $('.button').bind('click', function(e) { e.preventDefault(); $.getJSON('/returnSomeData.php, function(data) { $('.text').html('<p>Hello: ' + data + '</p>'); }); // generate content, this is the content that needs binding... $.get('http://example.com/script.php?id='+id, function(data) { $(obj).html(data); }); }); }; })( jQuery ); The problem I am having is that the functions created to run on generated content are not binding to the generated content. How do I bind the content created by the get() function?

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• get_post_meta return empty string

  - by Jean-philippe Emond

  I guest it is a little issues but I running a SQL to get some post id. $result = $wpdb->get_results("SELECT wppm.post_id FROM wp_postmeta wppm INNER JOIN wp_posts wpp ON wppm.post_id=wpp.ID WHERE wppm.meta_key LIKE 'activity'"); (count: 302) After that, I get all id and I run get_post_meta like that: foreach($result as $id){ $activity = get_post_meta($id); var_dump($activity); foreach($activity as $key=>$value){ if(is_array($value) && $key=="age"){ var_dump($value); } } } (var_dump result: string "") samething if I run with: $activity = get_post_meta($id,'activity',true); Where we need to get a result. What is wrong? Thank you for your help!!! [Bonus Question] If the "activity" meta_key as an array Value. and I get directly like: $result = $wpdb->get_results("SELECT wppm.meta_value FROM wp_postmeta wppm INNER JOIN wp_posts wpp ON wppm.post_id=wpp.ID WHERE wppm.meta_key LIKE 'activity'"); How I parse it? Thanks again!

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• Fluent NHibernate AutoMap

  - by Markus

  Hi. I have a qouestion regarding the AutoMap xml generation. I have two classes: public class User { virtual public Guid Id { get; private set; } virtual public String Name { get; set; } virtual public String Email { get; set; } virtual public String Password { get; set; } virtual public IList<OpenID> OpenIDs { get; set; } } public class OpenID { virtual public Guid Id { get; private set; } virtual public String Provider { get; set; } virtual public String Ticket { get; set; } virtual public User User { get; set; } } The generated sequences of xml files are: For User class: <bag name="OpenIDs"> <key> <column name="User_Id" /> </key> <one-to-many class="BL_DAL.Entities.OpenID, BL_DAL, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null" /> </bag> For OpenID class: <many-to-one class="BL_DAL.Entities.User, BL_DAL, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null" name="User"> <column name="User_id" /> </many-to-one> I don't see the inverse=true attribute for the User mapping. Is it a normal behavior, or I made a mistake somewhere?

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• How to map a 0..1 to 1 relationship in Entity Framework 3

  - by sako73

  I have two tables, Users, and Address. A the user table has a field that maps to the primary key of the address table. This field can be null. In plain english, Address exist independent of other objects. A user may be associated with one address. In the database, I have this set up as a foreign key relationship. I am attempting to map this relationship in the Entity Framework. I am getting errors on the following code: <Association Name="fk_UserAddress"> <End Role="User" Type="GenesisEntityModel.Store.User" Multiplicity="1"/> <End Role="Address" Type="GenesisEntityModel.Store.Address" Multiplicity="0..1" /> <ReferentialConstraint> <Principal Role="Address"> <PropertyRef Name="addressId"/> </Principal> <Dependent Role="User"> <PropertyRef Name="addressId"/> </Dependent> </ReferentialConstraint> </Association> It is giving a "The Lower Bound of the multiplicity must be 0" error. I would appreciate it if anyone could explain the error, and the best way to solve it. Thanks for any help.

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• Is there a JavaScript event that fires when a tab index switch is triggered? (TABINDEX does not work for inputs in IFRAME)

  - by treeface

  My specific use case is that I have a WYSIWYG editor which is basically an editable iframe. To the user, however, it looks like a standard-issue textarea. My problem is that I have inputs that sit before and after this editor in the (perceived) tab index and I'd like the user to be able to press tab (or the equivalent on his platform of choice) to get to the WYSIWYG editor when he's in the previous element and shift-tab to get to it when he's in the latter element. I know this can be faked using the key events and checking whether or not the tab key was pressed, but I'm curious if there's a better way. UPDATE. treeface clarified the actual problem in the comments. PROBLEM: In normal case, you can use "TABINDEX" attribute of the <input> element to control that, when tabbing out of "Subject" input field (in an email form), the focus lands on "Body" input field in the e-mail. This is done simply by assigning correctly ordered values to "TABINDEX" attribute of both input fields. The problem is that TABINDEX attribute only orders elements within the same frame. So, if "Body" input field is actually in an internal IFRAME, you can't tab out of "Subject" in the parent frame straight into "Body" in the IFRAME using TABINDEX order.

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• nhibernate mapping: delete collection, insert new collection with old IDs

  - by npeBeg

  my issue lokks similar to this one: (link) but i have one-to-many association: <set name="Fields" cascade="all-delete-orphan" lazy="false" inverse="true"> <key column="[TEMPLATE_ID]"></key> <one-to-many class="MyNamespace.Field, MyLibrary"/> </set> (i also tried to use ) this mapping is for Template object. this one and the Field object has their ID generators set to identity. so when i call session.Update for the Template object it works fine, well, almost: if the Field object has an Id number, UPDATE sql request is called, if the Id is 0, the INSERT is performed. But if i delete a Field object from the collection it has no effect for the Database. I found that if i also call session.Delete for this Field object, everything will be ok, but due to client-server architecture i don't know what to delete. so i decided to delete all the collection elements from the DB and call session.Update with a new collection. and i've got an issue: nhibernate performs the UPDATE operation for the Field objects that has non-zero Id, but they are removed from DB! maybe i should use some other Id generator or smth.. what is the best way to make nhibernate perform "delete all"/"insert all" routine for the collection?

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• How to design data storage for partitioned tagging system?

  - by Morgan Cheng

  How to design data storage for huge tagging system (like digg or delicious)? There is already discussion about it, but it is about centralized database. Since the data is supposed to grow, we'll need to partition the data into multiple shards soon or later. So, the question turns to be: How to design data storage for partitioned tagging system? The tagging system basically has 3 tables: Item (item_id, item_content) Tag (tag_id, tag_title) TagMapping(map_id, tag_id, item_id) That works fine for finding all items for given tag and finding all tags for given item, if the table is stored in one database instance. If we need to partition the data into multiple database instances, it is not that easy. For table Item, we can partition its content with its key item_id. For table Tag, we can partition its content with its key tag_id. For example, we want to partition table Tag into K databases. We can simply choose number (tag_id % K) database to store given tag. But, how to partition table TagMapping? The TagMapping table represents the many-to-many relationship. I can only image to have duplication. That is, same content of TagMappping has two copies. One is partitioned with tag_id and the other is partitioned with item_id. In scenario to find tags for given item, we use partition with tag_id. If scenario to find items for given tag, we use partition with item_id. As a result, there is data redundancy. And, the application level should keep the consistency of all tables. It looks hard. Is there any better solution to solve this many-to-many partition problem?

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• How Optimize sql query make it faster

  - by user502083

  Hello every one : I have a very simple small database, 2 of tables are: Node (Node_ID, Node_name, Node_Date) : Node_ID is primary key Citation (Origin_Id, Target_Id) : PRIMARY KEY (Origin_Id, Target_Id) each is FK in Node Now I write a query that first find all citations that their Origin_Id has a specific date and then I want to know what are the target dates of these records. I'm using sqlite in python the Node table has 3000 record and Citation has 9000 records, and my query is like this in a function: def cited_years_list(self, date): c=self.cur try: c.execute("""select n.Node_Date,count(*) from Node n INNER JOIN (select c.Origin_Id AS Origin_Id, c.Target_Id AS Target_Id, n.Node_Date AS Date from CITATION c INNER JOIN NODE n ON c.Origin_Id=n.Node_Id where CAST(n.Node_Date as INT)={0}) VW ON VW.Target_Id=n.Node_Id GROUP BY n.Node_Date;""".format(date)) cited_years=c.fetchall() self.conn.commit() print('Cited Years are : \n ',str(cited_years)) except Exception as e: print('Cited Years retrival failed ',e) return cited_years Then I call this function for some specific years, But it's crazy slowwwwwwwww :( (around 1 min for a specific year) Although my query works fine, it is slow. would you please give me a suggestion to make it faster? I'd appreciate any idea about optimizing this query :) I also should mention that I have indices on Origin_Id and Target_Id, so the inner join should be pretty fast, but it's not!!!

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