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  • Switch between speakerphone and headset on Android

    - by user210504
    Hi! I wish to know if there is a way, using which we can switch between the speaker and headset dynamically in an android application. I am using this sample code, I found online for my experiments final float frequency = 440; float increment = (float)(2*Math.PI) * frequency / 44100; // angular increment for each sample float angle = 0; AndroidAudioDevice device = new AndroidAudioDevice( ); AudioManager am = (AudioManager)getSystemService(AUDIO_SERVICE); am.setMode(AudioManager.MODE_IN_CALL); float samples[] = new float[1024]; int count = 0; while( count < 10 ) { count++; for( int i = 0; i < samples.length; i++ ) { samples[i] = (float)Math.sin( angle ) ; angle += increment; } device.writeSamples( samples ); } device.stop(); am.setMode(AudioManager.MODE_NORMAL); ---- next class public class AndroidAudioDevice { AudioTrack track; short[] buffer = new short[1024]; public AndroidAudioDevice( ) { int minSize =AudioTrack.getMinBufferSize( 44100, AudioFormat.CHANNEL_CONFIGURATION_MONO, AudioFormat.ENCODING_PCM_16BIT ); track = new AudioTrack( AudioManager.STREAM_VOICE_CALL, 44100, AudioFormat.CHANNEL_CONFIGURATION_MONO, AudioFormat.ENCODING_PCM_16BIT, minSize, AudioTrack.MODE_STREAM); track.play(); } public void writeSamples(float[] samples) { fillBuffer( samples ); track.write( buffer, 0, samples.length ); } private void fillBuffer( float[] samples ) { if( buffer.length < samples.length ) buffer = new short[samples.length]; for( int i = 0; i < samples.length; i++ ) buffer[i] = (short)(samples[i] * Short.MAX_VALUE);; } public void stop() { track.stop(); } } As per my understanding this should play audio on headset, because we have not enabled the speaker phone. However, the audio is playing on the speaker phone. 1 Am I doing something wrong here? 2 What would be a way to switch between internal speaker and speaker phone dynamically for same code peice Any help will be appreciated.

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  • Accessing contents of NativeWindow in a HTML AIR application?

    - by Dan Scotton
    I'm currently building a HTML/JS AIR application. The application needs to display to the user a different 'window' - dependant on whether this is the first time they've launched the application or not. This part is actually fine and I have the code below to do that: if(!startUp()) { // this simply returns a boolean from a local preferences database that gets shipped with the .air // do first time stuff var windowOptions = new air.NativeWindowInitOptions(); windowOptions.systemChrome = 'none'; windowOptions.type = 'lightweight'; windowOptions.transparent = 'true'; windowOptions.resizable = 'false'; var windowBounds = new air.Rectangle(300, 300, 596, 490); var newHtmlLoader = air.HTMLLoader.createRootWindow(true, windowOptions, true, windowBounds); newHtmlLoader.load(new air.URLRequest('cover.html')); } else { // display default window // just set nativeWindow.visible = true (loaded from application.xml) } However, what I want to be able to do is manipulate the html content from within cover.html after it has loaded up. There seems to be plenty of tutorials online of how to move, resize, etc. the NativeWindow, but I simply want access to the NativeWindow's HTML content. For example, how would I add a new paragraph to that page? I've tried the following: newHtmlLoader.window.opener = window; var doc = newHtmlLoader.window.opener.document.documentElement; Using AIR's Introspector console, ....log(doc) returns [object HTMLHtmlElement]. Hmm, seems promising right? I then go on to try: var p = document.createElement('p'); var t = document.createTextNode('Insert Me'); p.appendChild(t); doc.appendChild(p); ...but nothing gets inserted. I've also tried the following replacements for doc: var doc = newHtmlLoader.window.opener.document.body; // .log(doc) -> [object HTMLBodyElement] var doc = newHtmlLoader.window.opener.document; // .log(doc) -> Error: HIERARCHY_REQUEST_ERR: DOM Exception 3 ...as well as the following with jQuery: $(doc).append('<p>Insert Me</p>'); // again, nothing So, anyone had any experience in accessing a NativeWindow's inner content programmatically? Any help will be greatly appreciated.

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  • Learn C# now or finish up with Java and then learn C#?

    - by Sahat
    Ok here is my situation. I've studied Java in my college for 2 semesters. But you know they teach you jack in there, just the basics. We skipped half of our textbook and even then our professors don't teach from section to section of each chapter. I don't blame them. It's hard as it is for new students to understand even the basic concepts of programming. Now this is a community college we are talking about and not Stanford, MIT or Berkeley. So like I said I've done 2 semester of Java. I really like our textbook because it has some challenging projects to do at the end of each chapter. This textbook is pretty clear and i have no problem understanding it (although 2-D and 3-D Arrays have given me some trouble). I have tried reading a few C# books such as Pro C# 2008 and .NET 3.5 and C# 4.0 in a Nutshell. I found these books to be dry and overloaded with information that put me to sleep (No offense to the authors of those 2 wonderful, according to amazon ratings, books). Would you suggest I finish my Java textbook, brush up my knowledge of Arrays, Polymorphism, and etc that are universal to most programming languages. And then switch to C#, plus the syntax is very similar so it should be easy to switch. Or should I just start learning C# right now from the very beginning? If it's the latter then could you recommend some free online resources that will keep me engaged and at the same time teach me everything I need to know about C#. Someone has recommended me to learn .NET first, but I found it to be not the brightest idea. .NET is just a big monster full of libraries. How am I going to apply it if I don't even know the C# or VB!? Anyway back to my question: Master Java and switch to C# or just go with C#? DISCLAIMER: I don't want to start .NET vs J2EE or C# vs Java flame war. I am going with C#. I've decided that I want to work in a Microsoft shop in the future. .NET is what I want to learn. Thanks! Will be waiting for the answers.

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  • C#: My callback function gets called twice for every Sent Request

    - by Madi D.
    I've Got a program that uploads/downloads files into an online server,Has a callback to report progress and log it into a textfile, The program is built with the following structure: public void Upload(string source, string destination) { //Object containing Source and destination to pass to the threaded function KeyValuePair<string, string> file = new KeyValuePair<string, string>(source, destination); //Threading to make sure no blocking happens after calling upload Function Thread t = new Thread(new ParameterizedThreadStart(amazonHandler.TUpload)); t.Start(file); } private void TUpload(object fileInfo) { KeyValuePair<string, string> file = (KeyValuePair<string, string>)fileInfo; /* Some Magic goes here,Checking The file and Authorizing Upload */ var ftiObject = new FtiObject () { FileNameOnHDD = file.Key, DestinationPath = file.Value, //Has more data used for calculations. }; //Threading to make sure progress gets callback gets called. Thread t = new Thread(new ParameterizedThreadStart(amazonHandler.UploadOP)); t.Start(ftiObject); //Signal used to stop progress untill uploadCompleted is called. uploadChunkDoneSignal.WaitOne(); /* Some Extra Code */ } private void UploadOP(object ftiSentObject) { FtiObject ftiObject = (FtiObject)ftiSentObject; /* Some useless code to create the uri and prepare the ftiObject. */ // webClient.UploadFileAsync will open a thread that // will upload the file and report // progress/complete using registered callback functions. webClient.UploadFileAsync(uri, "PUT", ftiObject.FileNameOnHDD, ftiObject); } I got a callback that is registered to the Webclient's UploadProgressChanged event , however it is getting called twice per sent request. void UploadProgressCallback(object sender, UploadProgressChangedEventArgs e) { FtiObject ftiObject = (FtiObject )e.UserState; Logger.log(ftiObject.FileNameOnHDD, (double)e.BytesSent ,e.TotalBytesToSend); } Log Output: Filename: C:\Text1.txt Uploaded:1024 TotalFileSize: 665241 Filename: C:\Text1.txt Uploaded:1024 TotalFileSize: 665241 Filename: C:\Text1.txt Uploaded:2048 TotalFileSize: 665241 Filename: C:\Text1.txt Uploaded:2048 TotalFileSize: 665241 Filename: C:\Text1.txt Uploaded:3072 TotalFileSize: 665241 Filename: C:\Text1.txt Uploaded:3072 TotalFileSize: 665241 Etc... I am watching the Network Traffic using a watcher, and only 1 request is being sent. Some how i cant Figure out why the callback is being called twice, my doubt was that the callback is getting fired by each thread opened(the main Upload , and TUpload), however i dont know how to test if thats the cause. Note: The reason behind the many /**/ Comments is to indicate that the functions do more than just opening threads, and threading is being used to make sure no blocking occurs (there a couple of "Signal.WaitOne()" around the code for synchronization)

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  • Makefile issue with compiling a C++ program

    - by Steve
    I recently got MySQL compiled and working on Cygwin, and got a simple test example from online to verify that it worked. The test example compiled and ran successfully. However, when incorporating MySQL in a hobby project of mine it isn't compiling which I believe is due to how the Makefile is setup, I have no experience with Makefiles and after reading tutorials about them, I have a better grasp but still can't get it working correctly. When I try and compile my hobby project I recieve errors such as: Obj/Database.o:Database.cpp:(.text+0x492): undefined reference to `_mysql_insert_id' Obj/Database.o:Database.cpp:(.text+0x4c1): undefined reference to `_mysql_affected_rows' collect2: ld returned 1 exit status make[1]: *** [build] Error 1 make: *** [all] Error 2 Here is my Makefile, it worked with compiling and building the source before I attempted to put in MySQL support into the project. The LIBMYSQL paths are correct, verified by 'mysql_config'. COMPILER = g++ WARNING1 = -Wall -Werror -Wformat-security -Winline -Wshadow -Wpointer-arith WARNING2 = -Wcast-align -Wcast-qual -Wredundant-decls LIBMYSQL = -I/usr/local/include/mysql -L/usr/local/lib/mysql -lmysqlclient DEBUGGER = -g3 OPTIMISE = -O C_FLAGS = $(OPTIMISE) $(DEBUGGER) $(WARNING1) $(WARNING2) -export-dynamic $(LIBMYSQL) L_FLAGS = -lz -lm -lpthread -lcrypt $(LIBMYSQL) OBJ_DIR = Obj/ SRC_DIR = Source/ MUD_EXE = project MUD_DIR = TestP/ LOG_DIR = $(MUD_DIR)Files/Logs/ ECHOCMD = echo -e L_GREEN = \e[1;32m L_WHITE = \e[1;37m L_BLUE = \e[1;34m L_RED = \e[1;31m L_NRM = \e[0;00m DATE = `date +%d-%m-%Y` FILES = $(wildcard $(SRC_DIR)*.cpp) C_FILES = $(sort $(FILES)) O_FILES = $(patsubst $(SRC_DIR)%.cpp, $(OBJ_DIR)%.o, $(C_FILES)) all: @$(ECHOCMD) " Compiling $(L_RED)$(MUD_EXE)$(L_NRM)."; @$(MAKE) -s build build: $(O_FILES) @rm -f $(MUD_EXE) $(COMPILER) -o $(MUD_EXE) $(L_FLAGS) $(O_FILES) @echo " Finished Compiling $(MUD_EXE)."; @chmod g+w $(MUD_EXE) @chmod a+x $(MUD_EXE) @chmod g+w $(O_FILES) $(OBJ_DIR)%.o: $(SRC_DIR)%.cpp @echo " Compiling $@"; $(COMPILER) -c $(C_FLAGS) $< -o $@ .cpp.o: $(COMPILER) -c $(C_FLAGS) $< clean: @echo " Complete compile on $(MUD_EXE)."; @rm -f $(OBJ_DIR)*.o $(MUD_EXE) @$(MAKE) -s build I like the functionality of the Makefile, instead of spitting out all the arguments etc, it just spits out the "Compiling [Filename]" etc. If I add -c to the L_FLAGS then it compiles (I think) but instead spits out stuff like: g++: Obj/Database.o: linker input file unused because linking not done After a full day of trying and research on google, I'm no closer to solving my problem, so I come to you guys to see if you can explain to me why all this is happening and if possible, steps to solve. Regards, Steve

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  • Mixing .NET versions between website and virtual directories and the "server application unavailable" error Message

    - by Doug Chamberlain
    Backstory Last month our development team created a new asp.net 3.5 application to place out on our production website. Once we had the work completed, we requested from the group that manages are server to copy the app out to our production site, and configure the virtual directory as a new application. On 12/27/2010, two public 'Gineau Pigs' were selected to use the app, and it worked great. On 12/30/2010, We received notification by internal staff, that when that staff member tried to access the application (this was the Business Process Owner) they recieved the 'Server Application Unavailable' message. When I called the group that does our server support, I was told that it probably failed, because I didn't close the connections in my code. However, the same group went in and then created a separate app pool for this Extension Request application. It has had no issues since. I did a little googling, since I do not like being blamed for things. I found that the 'Server Application Unavailable' message will also appear when you have multiple applications using different frameworks and you do not put them in different application pools. Technical Details - Tree of our website structure Main Website <-- ASP Classic +-Virtual Directory(ExtensionRequest) <-- ASP 3.5 From our server support group: 'Reviewed server logs and website setup in IIS. Had to reset the application pool as it was not working properly. This corrected the website and it is now back online. We went ahead and created a application pool for the extension web so it is isolated from the main site pool. In the past we have seen other application do this when there is a connection being left open and the pool fills up. Would recommend reviewing site code to make sure no connections are being left open.' The Real Question: What really caused the failure? Isn't the connection being left open issue an ASP Classic issue? Wouldn't the ExtensionRequest application have to be used (more than twice) in the first place to have the connections left open? Is it more likely the failure is caused by them not bothering to setup the new Application in it's own App Pool in the first place? Sorry for the long windedness

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  • Remote Postgresql - extremely slow

    - by Muffinbubble
    Hi, I have setup PostgreSQL on a VPS I own - the software that accesses the database is a program called PokerTracker. PokerTracker logs all your hands and statistics whilst playing online poker. I wanted this accessible from several different computers so decided to installed it on my VPS and after a few hiccups I managed to get it connecting without errors. However, the performance is dreadful. I have done tons of research on 'remote postgresql slow' etc and am yet to find an answer so am hoping someone is able to help. Things to note: The query I am trying to execute is very small. Whilst connecting locally on the VPS, the query runs instantly. While running it remotely, it takes about 1 minute and 30 seconds to run the query. The VPS is running 100MBPS and then computer I'm connecting to it from is on an 8MB line. The network communication between the two is almost instant, I am able to remotely connect fine with no lag whatsoever and am hosting several websites running MSSQL and all the queries run instantly, whether connected remotely or locally so it seems specific to PostgreSQL. I'm running their newest version of the software and the newest compatible version of PostgreSQL with their software. The database is a new database, containing hardly any data and I've ran vacuum/analyze etc all to no avail, I see no improvements. I don't understand how MSSQL can query almost instantly yet PostgreSQL struggles so much. I am able to telnet to the post 5432 on the VPS IP with no problems, and as I say the query does execute it just takes an extremely long time. What I do notice is on the router when the query is running that hardly any bandwidth is being used - but then again I wouldn't expect it to for a simple query but am not sure if this is the issue. I've tried connecting remotely on 3 different networks now (including different routers) but the problem remains. Connecting remotely via another machine via the LAN is instant. I have also edited the postgre conf file to allow for more memory/buffers etc but I don't think this is the problem - what I am asking it to do is very simple - it shouldn't be intensive at all. Thanks, Ricky

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  • What is an overloaded operator in c++?

    - by Jeff
    I realize this is a basic question but I have searched online, been to cplusplus.com, read through my book, and I can't seem to grasp the concept of overloaded operators. A specific example from cplusplus.com is: // vectors: overloading operators example #include <iostream> using namespace std; class CVector { public: int x,y; CVector () {}; CVector (int,int); CVector operator + (CVector); }; CVector::CVector (int a, int b) { x = a; y = b; } CVector CVector::operator+ (CVector param) { CVector temp; temp.x = x + param.x; temp.y = y + param.y; return (temp); } int main () { CVector a (3,1); CVector b (1,2); CVector c; c = a + b; cout << c.x << "," << c.y; return 0; } from http://www.cplusplus.com/doc/tutorial/classes2/ but reading through it I'm still not understanding them at all. I just need a basic example of the point of the overloaded operator (which I assume is the "CVector CVector::operator+ (CVector param)"). There's also this example from wikipedia: Time operator+(const Time& lhs, const Time& rhs) { Time temp = lhs; temp.seconds += rhs.seconds; if (temp.seconds >= 60) { temp.seconds -= 60; temp.minutes++; } temp.minutes += rhs.minutes; if (temp.minutes >= 60) { temp.minutes -= 60; temp.hours++; } temp.hours += rhs.hours; return temp; } from "http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Operator_overloading" The current assignment I'm working on I need to overload a ++ and a -- operator. Thanks in advance for the information and sorry about the somewhat vague question, unfortunately I'm just not sure on it at all.

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  • Can highlight the current menu item, but can't add the class= to style unhighleted menu items

    - by bradpotts
    <?php $activesidebar[$currentsidebar]="id=isactive";?> <div class="span3"> <div class="well sidebar-nav hidden-phone"> <ul class="nav nav-list"> <li class="nav-header" <?php echo $activesidebar[1] ?>>Marketing Services</li> <li><a href="#">Marketing Technology</a></li> <li><a href="#">Generate More Sales</a></li> <li><a href="#">Direct Email Marketing</a></li> <li class="nav-header" <?php echo $activesidebar[2] ?>>Advertising Services</li> <li><a href="../services-advertising-mass-media-network.php">Traditional Medias</a></li> <li><a href="#">Online & Social Medias</a></li> <li><a href="#">Media Planing & Purchasing</a></li> <li class="nav-header" <?php echo $activesidebar[3] ?>>Technology Services</li> <li><a href="#">Managed Websites</a></li> <li><a href="#">Managed Web Servers</a></li> <li><a href="#">Managed Databases</a></li> <li class="nav-header" <?php echo $activesidebar[4] ?>>About Us</li> <li><a href="../aboutus-contactus.php">Contact Us</a></li> </ul> </div> This is added to the current page I want to add this on. <?php $currentsidebar =2; include('module-sidebar-navigation.php');?> I had programmed this menu individually on each page, but to make my website dynamic I used one file and use php includes to load the file. I can get the menu to highlight on the current page assigning an id="isactive", how can I assign id="notactive" to the other 3 menu items that are not active on that page. Is there an else or elseif I have to include?

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  • how to change color of text following function in javascript

    - by OVERTONE
    Ok before i make spaghetti of this code i thought id ask around here. ive made a quiz for an online site. The answers are stored in an array, and ive a function that checks the answers array to what youve clicked. then it counts them and gives you your score. but i want to change the clor of the right answer wen the user clicks the score button. so the correct answers are highlighted. something like this https://www.shutterpoint.com/Home-Quiz.cfm (just hit submit at the bottom, no need to do the quiz). the little answer icon at the side looks flashy but id rather just have the text change color. heres how my questions are formatted <p>Depth of field is controlled by :?</p> <p id = "question2"><input type="radio" name="question2" id="Answer1" value = "a" onClick ="recordAnswer(2,this.value)"/> The focal length of the lens. <br/> <input type="radio" name="question2" id="Answer2" value = "b" onClick = "recordAnswer(2,this.value)"/> The size of the aperture opening. <br/> <input type="radio" name="question2" id="Answer3" value = "c" onClick = "recordAnswer(2,this.value)"/> The distance between the camera and lens. <br/> <input type="radio" name="question2" id="Answer4" value = "d" onClick = "recordAnswer(2,this.value)"/> All of these. <br/></p> and these are the two functions that are called throughout. record answer is called every time the user clicks a button function recordAnswer(question,answer) { answers[question-1] = answer; } this is the final button which calculates the score function scoreQuiz() { var totalCorrect = 0; for(var count = 0; count<correctAnswers.length;count++) { if(answers[count]== correctAnswers[count]) totalCorrect++; } <!-- alert("You scored " + totalCorrect + " out of 12 correct!"); --> } another function is best i think. ive already made attemots at it and know i have to set the color using document.getElementById('question2').style.color = '#0000ff'; question2 being the p id i think if i take in the value part of (input type....) ill be able to compare it to the answers array. but im not quite sure how to do this. any helpers? maybe something like this document.getElementById("Answer1").style.color = '#0000ff'; using the id part of the (input type line) i think i got it actually. ill post my answer in a sec

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  • How does your team work together in a remote setup?

    - by Carl Rosenberger
    Hi, we are a distributed team working on the object database db4o. The way we work: We try to program in pairs only. We use Skype and VNC or SharedView to connect and work together. In our online Tuesday meeting every week (usually about 1 hour) we talk about the tasks done last week we create new pairs for the next week with a random generator so knowledge and friendship distribute evenly we set the priority for any new tasks or bugs that have come in each team picks the tasks it likes to do from the highest prioritized ones. From Tuesday to Wednesday we estimate tasks. We have a unit of work we call "Ideal Developer Session" (IDS), maybe 2 or 3 hours of working together as a pair. It's not perfectly well defined (because we know estimation always is inaccurate) but from our past shared experience we have a common sense of what an IDS is. If we can't estimate a task because it feels too long for a week we break it down into estimatable smaller tasks. During a short meeting on Wednesday we commit to a workload we feel is well doable in a week. We commit to complete. If a team runs out of committed tasks during the week, it can pick new ones from the prioritized queue we have in Jira. When we started working this way, some of us found that remote pair programming takes a lot of energy because you are so focussed. If you pair program for more than 5 or 6 hours per day, you get drained. On the other hand working like this has turned out to be very efficient. The knowledge about our codebase is evenly distributed and we have really learnt lots from eachother. I would be very interested to hear about the experiences from other teams working in a similar way. Things like: How often do you meet? Have you tried different sprint lengths (one week, two week, longer) ? Which tools do you use? Which issue tracker do you use? What do you do about time zone differences? How does it work for you to integrate new people into the team? How many hours do you usually work per week? How does your management interact with the way you are working? Do you get put on a waterfall with hard deadlines? What's your unit of work? What is your normal velocity? (units of work done per week) Programming work should be fun and for us it usually is great fun. I would be happy about any new ideas how to make it even more fun and/or more efficient.

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  • Generate A Simple Read-Only DAL?

    - by David
    I've been looking around for a simple solution to this, trying my best to lean towards something like NHibernate, but so far everything I've found seems to be trying to solve a slightly different problem. Here's what I'm looking at in my current project: We have an IBM iSeries database as a primary repository for a third party software suite used for our core business (a financial institution). Part of what my team does is write applications that report on or key off of a lot of this data in some way. In the past, we've been manually creating ADO .NET connections (we're using .NET 3.5 and Visual Studio 2008, by the way) and manually writing queries, etc. Moving forward, I'd like to simplify the process of getting data from there for the development team. Rather than creating connections and queries and all that each time, I'd much rather a developer be able to simply do something like this: var something = (from t in TableName select t); And, ideally, they'd just get some IQueryable or IEnumerable of generated entities. This would be done inside a new domain core that I'm building where these entities would live and the applications would interface with it through a request/response service layer. A few things to note are: The entities that correspond to the database tables should be generated once and we'd prefer to manually keep them updated over time. That is, if columns/tables are added to the database then we shouldn't have to do anything. (If some are deleted, of course, it will break, but that's fine.) But if we need to use a new column, we should be able to just add it to the necessary class(es) without having to re-gen the whole thing. The whole thing should be SELECT-only. We're not doing a full DAL here because we don't want to be able to break anything in the database (even accidentally). We don't need any kind of mapping between our domain objects and the generated entity types. The domain barely covers a fraction of the data that's in there, most of it we'll never need, and we would rather just create re-usable maps manually over time. I already have a logical separation for the DAL where my "repository" classes return domain objects, I'm just looking for a better alternative to manual ADO to be used inside the repository classes. Any suggestions? It seems like what I'm doing is just enough outside the normal demand for DAL/ORM tools/tutorials online that I haven't been able to find anything. Or maybe I'm just overlooking something obvious?

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  • Pure sine wave inverter

    - by Nick
    Not exactly programming (sorry) but I think it's pretty close and can be of interest to other programmers. I'm trying to setup a battery power station so that I can work from anywhere. I go surfing a lot and my idea is to be able to work from wherever I can park my car (given there's coverage). So, I'm getting a deep cycle battery, a 240V charger (I'm in Australia), and an inverter. At the back of my laptop it says 19V and 4.62A. From the people I've spoken to that means it consumes about 90W at most. So my inverter needs to be able to output about 100W. Most of them seem to be 200W and up so this shouldn't be a problem. I want to be able run my laptop for 10 hours (plus the 2 hours I get from the laptop battery) straight. According to the people I've spoken to and from what I gather online I need a battery that has the amp hours for my "amp draw". I have no idea how to calculate this but I've been guesstimating. Most deep cycle batteries seem to be classified using amp hours (Ah)... 35Ah, 50Ah, 75Ah, 100Ah, and so on. However the amp hours on those batteries is for a 240V and I seem to be using 19V. According to an expert I spoke to you'd need a 100Ah battery to power a 5A appliance at 240V for 10 hours (you only get about 50% useful power). That to me is 5A * 240V = 100Ah battery. So, naive as I might be I take 240V and divide that by my 19V and reach the conclusion that I can get away with a battery that's about 12 times smaller than that 100Ah. The expert told me I needed a 50Ah battery so that's probably what I'll be getting, but it would be interesting to know what I theoretically would need to power my laptop for 10 hours. As for charging the battery the expert I spoke to said I needed a 3-5A charger to be able to charge that 50Ah battery from flat to full in about 10 hours (I will just leave it plugged in over night). Now to my question. The expert said it's not a matter of "if" more like a guaranteed "when" my computer will stuff up if I don't use a "pure sine wave inverter". From what I gather the power that comes out of that battery is not as clean as the power we get in the socket at home. Apparently it's "square" and the one in the socket is nice and smooth. I've already got an inverter, but it's not "pure". Do I really need to buy the $200-300 pure sine wave inverter or can I get away with something else? Perhaps the laptop adapter that sits in the middle of my laptop power cable already fixes that wave to be nice and smooth? Thanks!

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  • How should I handle the case in which a username is already in use?

    - by idealmachine
    I'm a JavaScript programmer and new to PHP and MySQL (want to get into server-side coding). Because I'm trying to learn PHP by building a simple online game (more specifically, correspondence chess), I'm starting by implementing a simple user accounts system. Of course, user registration comes first. What are the best practices for: How I should handle the (likely) possibility that when a user tries to register, the username he has chosen is already in use, particularly when it comes to function return values?($result === true is rather ugly, and I'm not sure whether checking the MySQL error code is the best way to do it either) How to cleanly handle varying page titles?($gPageTitle = '...'; require_once 'bgsheader.php'; is also rather ugly) Anything else I'm doing wrong? In some ways, PHP is rather different from JavaScript... Here is a (rather large) excerpt of the code I have written so far. Note that this is a work in progress and is missing security checks that I will add as my next step. function addUser( $username, $password ) { global $gDB, $gPasswordSalt; $stmt = $gDB->prepare( 'INSERT INTO user(user_name, user_password, user_registration) VALUES(?, ?, NOW())' ); $stmt || trigger_error( 'Failed to prepare statement: ' . htmlspecialchars( $gDB->error ) ); $hashedPassword = hash_hmac( 'sha256', $password, $gPasswordSalt, true ); $stmt->bind_param( 'ss', $username, $hashedPassword ); if( $stmt->execute() ) { return true; } elseif( $stmt->errno == 1062) { return 'exists'; } else { trigger_error( 'Failed to execute statement: ' . htmlspecialchars( $stmt->error ) ); } } $username = $_REQUEST['username']; $password = $_REQUEST['password']; $result = addUser( $username, $password ); if( $result === true ) { $gPageTitle = 'Registration successful'; require_once 'bgsheader.php'; echo '<p>You have successfully registered as ' . htmlspecialchars( $username ) . ' on this site.</p>'; } elseif( $result == 'exists' ) { $gPageTitle = 'Username already taken'; require_once 'bgsheader.php'; echo '<p>Someone is already using the username you have chosen. Please try using another one instead.'; } else { trigger_error('This should never happen'); } require_once 'bgsfooter.php';

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  • Is MySQL Replication Appropriate in this case?

    - by MJB
    I have a series of databases, each of which is basically standalone. It initially seemed like I needed a replication solution, but the more I researched it, the more it felt like replication was overkill and not useful anyway. I have not done MySQL replication before, so I have been reading up on the online docs, googling, and searching SO for relevant questions, but I can't find a scenario quite like mine. Here is a brief description of my issue: The various databases almost never have a live connection to each other. They need to be able to "sync" by copying files to a thumb drive and then moving them to the proper destination. It is OK for the data to not match exactly, but they should have the same parent-child relationships. That is, if a generated key differs between databases, no big deal. But the visible data must match. Timing is not critical. Updates can be done a week later, or even a month later, as long as they are done eventually. Updates cannot be guaranteed to be in the proper order, or in any order for that matter. They will be in order from each database; just not between databases. Rather than a set of master-slave relationships, it is more like a central database (R/W) and multiple remote databases (also R/W). I won't know how many remote databases I have until they are created. And the central DB won't know that a database exists until data arrives from it. (To me, this implies I cannot use the method of giving each its own unique identity range to guarantee uniqueness in the central database.) It appears to me that the bottom line is that I don't want "replication" so much as I want "awareness". I want the central database to know what happened in the remote databases, but there is no time requirement. I want the remote databases to be aware of the central database, but they don't need to know about each other. WTH is my question? It is this: Does this scenario sound like any of the typical replication scenarios, or does it sound like I have to roll my own? Perhaps #7 above is the only one that matters, and given that requirement, out-of-the-box replication is impossible. EDIT: I realize that this question might be more suited to ServerFault. I also searched there and found no answers to my questions. And based on the replication questions I did find both on SO and SF, it seemed that the decision was 50-50 over where to put my question. Sorry if I guessed wrong.

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  • Java: Multithreading & UDP Socket Programming

    - by Ravi
    I am new to multithreading & socket programming in Java. I would like to know what is the best way to implement 2 threads - one for receiving a socket and one for sending a socket. If what I am trying to do sounds absurd, pls let me know why! The code is largely inspired from Sun's tutorials online.I want to use Multicast sockets so that I can work with a multicast group. class server extends Thread { static protected MulticastSocket socket = null; protected BufferedReader in = null; public InetAddress group; private static class receive implements Runnable { public void run() { try { byte[] buf = new byte[256]; DatagramPacket pkt = new DatagramPacket(buf,buf.length); socket.receive(pkt); String received = new String(pkt.getData(),0,pkt.getLength()); System.out.println("From server@" + received); Thread.sleep(1000); } catch (IOException e) { System.out.println("Error:"+e); } catch (InterruptedException e) { System.out.println("Error:"+e); } } } public server() throws IOException { super("server"); socket = new MulticastSocket(4446); group = InetAddress.getByName("239.231.12.3"); socket.joinGroup(group); } public void run() { while(1>0) { try { byte[] buf = new byte[256]; DatagramPacket pkt = new DatagramPacket(buf,buf.length); //String msg = reader.readLine(); String pid = ManagementFactory.getRuntimeMXBean().getName(); buf = pid.getBytes(); pkt = new DatagramPacket(buf,buf.length,group,4446); socket.send(pkt); Thread t = new Thread(new receive()); t.start(); while(t.isAlive()) { t.join(1000); } sleep(1); } catch (IOException e) { System.out.println("Error:"+e); } catch (InterruptedException e) { System.out.println("Error:"+e); } } //socket.close(); } public static void main(String[] args) throws IOException { new server().start(); //System.out.println("Hello"); } }

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  • Insert Registration Data in MySQL using PHP

    - by J M 4
    I may not be asking this in the best way possible but i will try my hardest. Thank you ahead of time for your help: I am creating an enrollment website which allows an individual OR manager to enroll for medical testing services for professional athletes. I will NOT be using the site as a query DB which anybody can view information stored within the database. The information is instead simply stored, and passed along in a CSV format to our network provider so they can use as needed after the fact. There are two possible scenarios: Scenario 1 - Individual Enrollment If an individual athlete chooses to enroll him/herself, they enter their personal information, submit their payment information (credit/bank account) for processing, and their information is stored in an online database as Athlete1. Scenario 2 - Manager Enrollment If a manager chooses to enroll several athletes he manages/ promotes for, he enters his personal information, then enters the personal information for each athlete he wishes to pay for (name, address, ssn, dob, etc), then submits payment information for ALL athletes he is enrolling. This number can range from 1 single athlete, up to 20 athletes per single enrollment (he can return and complete a follow up enrollment for additional athletes). Initially, I was building the database to house ALL information regardless of enrollment type in a single table which housed over 400 columns (think 20 athletes with over 10 fields per athlete such as name, dob, ssn, etc). Now that I think about it more, I believe create multiple tables (manager(s), athlete(s)) may be a better idea here but still not quite sure how to go about it for the following very important reasons: Issue 1 If I list the manager as the parent table, I am afraid the individual enrolling athlete will not show up in the primary table and will not be included in the overall registration file which needs to be sent on to the network providers. Issue 2 All athletes being enrolled by a manager are being stored in SESSION as F1FirstName, F2FirstName where F1 and F2 relate to the id of the fighter. I am not sure technically speaking how to store multiple pieces of information within the same table under separate rows using PHP. For example, all athleteswill have a first name. The very basic theory of what i am trying to do is: If number_of_athletes 1, store F1FirstName in row 1, column 1 of Table "Athletes"; store F1LastName in row 1, column 2 of Table "Athletes"; store F2FirstName in row 2, column 1 of Table "Athletes"; store F2LastName in row 2, column 2 of table "Athletes"; Does this make sense? I know this question is very long and probably difficult so i appreciate the guidance.

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  • How can I pipe input to a Java app with Perl?

    - by user319479
    I need to write a Perl script that pipes input into a Java program. This is related to this, but that didn't help me. My issue is that the Java app doesn't get the print statements until I close the handle. What I found online was that $| needs to be set to something greater than 0, in which case newline characters will flush the buffer. This still doesn't work. This is the script: #! /usr/bin/perl -w use strict; use File::Basename; $|=1; open(TP, "| java -jar test.jar") or die "fail"; sleep(2); print TP "this is test 1\n"; print TP "this is test 2\n"; print "tests printed, waiting 5s\n"; sleep(5); print "wait over. closing handle...\n"; close TP; print "closed.\n"; print "sleeping for 5s...\n"; sleep(5); print "script finished!\n"; exit And here is a sample Java app: import java.util.Scanner; public class test{ public static void main( String[] args ){ Scanner sc = new Scanner( System.in ); int crashcount = 0; while( true ){ try{ String input = sc.nextLine(); System.out.println( ":: INPUT: " + input ); if( "bananas".equals(input) ){ break; } } catch( Exception e ){ System.out.println( ":: EXCEPTION: " + e.toString() ); crashcount++; if( crashcount == 5 ){ System.out.println( ":: Looks like stdin is broke" ); break; } } } System.out.println( ":: IT'S OVER!" ); return; } } The Java app should respond to receiving the test prints immediately, but it doesn't until the close statement in the Perl script. What am I doing wrong? Note: the fix can only be in the Perl script. The Java app can't be changed. Also, File::Basename is there because I'm using it in the real script.

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  • Programmatically triggering events in Javascript for IE using jQuery

    - by Dan Herbert
    When an Event is triggered by a user in IE, it is set to the window.event object. The only way to see what triggered the event is by accessing the window.event object (as far as I know) This causes a problem in ASP.NET validators if an event is triggered programmatically, like when triggering an event through jQuery. In this case, the window.event object stores the last user-triggered event. When the onchange event is fired programmatically for a text box that has an ASP.NET validator attached to it, the validation breaks because it is looking at the element that fired last event, which is not the element the validator is for. Does anyone know a way around this? It seems like a problem that is solvable, but from looking online, most people just find ways to ignore the problem instead of solving it. To explain what I'm doing specifically: I'm using a jQuery time picker plugin on a text box that also has 2 ASP.NET validators associated with it. When the time is changed, I'm using an update panel to post back to the server to do some things dynamically, so I need the onchange event to fire in order to trigger the postback for that text box. The jQuery time picker operates by creating a hidden unordered list that is made visible when the text box is clicked. When one of the list items is clicked, the "change" event is fired programmatically for the text box through jQuery's change() method. Because the trigger for the event was a list item, IE sees the list item as the source of the event, not the text box, like it should. I'm not too concerned with this ASP.NET validator working as soon as the text box is changed, I just need the "change" event to be processed so my postback event is called for the text box. The problem is that the validator throws an exception in IE which stops any event from being triggered. Firefox (and I assume other browsers) don't have this issue. Only IE due to the different event model. Has anyone encountered this and seen how to fix it? I've found this problem reported several other places, but they offer no solutions: jQuery's forum, with the jQuery UI Datepicker and an ASP.NET Validator ASP.NET forums, bug with ValidatorOnChange() function

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  • Defining a select list through controller and view model

    - by Ibrar Hussain
    I have a View Model that looks like this: public class SomeViewModel { public SomeViewModel(IEnumerable<SelectListItem> orderTemplatesListItems) { OrderTemplateListItems = orderTemplatesListItems; } public IEnumerable<SelectListItem> OrderTemplateListItems { get; set; } } I then have an Action in my Controller that does this: public ActionResult Index() { var items = _repository.GetTemplates(); var selectList = items.Select(i => new SelectListItem { Text = i.Name, Value = i.Id.ToString() }).ToList(); var viewModel = new SomeViewModel { OrderTemplateListItems = selectList }; return View(viewModel); } Lastly my view: @Html.DropDownListFor(n => n.OrderTemplateListItems, new SelectList(Model.OrderTemplateListItems, "value", "text"), "Please select an order template") The code works fine and my select list populates wonderfully. Next thing I need to do is set the selected value that will come from a Session["orderTemplateId"] which is set when the user selects a particular option from the list. Now after looking online the fourth parameter should allow me to set a selected value, so if I do this: @Html.DropDownListFor(n => n.OrderTemplateListItems, new SelectList(Model.OrderTemplateListItems, "value", "text", 56), "Please select an order template") 56 is the Id of the item that I want selected, but to no avail. I then thought why not do it in the Controller? As a final attempt I tried building up my select list items in my Controller and then passing the items into the View: public ActionResult Index() { var items = _repository.GetTemplates(); var orderTemplatesList = new List<SelectListItem>(); foreach (var item in items) { if (Session["orderTemplateId"] != null) { if (item.Id.ToString() == Session["orderTemplateId"].ToString()) { orderTemplatesList.Add(new SelectListItem { Text = item.Name, Value = item.Id.ToString(), Selected = true }); } else { orderTemplatesList.Add(new SelectListItem { Text = item.Name, Value = item.Id.ToString() }); } } else { orderTemplatesList.Add(new SelectListItem { Text = item.Name, Value = item.Id.ToString() }); } } var viewModel = new SomeViewModel { OrderTemplateListItems = orderTemplatesList }; return View(viewModel); } Leaving my View like so: @Html.DropDownListFor(n => n.OrderTemplateListItems, new SelectList(Model.OrderTemplateListItems, "value", "text"), "Please select an order template") Nothing! Why isn't this working for me?

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  • Missing part of the image when taking screenshot while supporting Retina Display

    - by Spaft
    I'm currently working on enabling support for retina display for my game. In the game, we have a feature that the user can take screenshot. We are using these part of code we found online a while ago and it's working fine when we are not supporting retina display: CCDirector* director = [CCDirector sharedDirector]; CGSize size = [director winSizeInPixels]; //Create buffer for pixels GLuint bufferLength = size.width * size.height * 4; GLubyte* buffer = (GLubyte*)malloc(bufferLength); //Read Pixels from OpenGL glReadPixels(0, 100, size.width, size.height, GL_RGBA, GL_UNSIGNED_BYTE, buffer); //Make data provider with data. CGDataProviderRef provider = CGDataProviderCreateWithData(NULL, buffer, bufferLength, NULL); //Configure image int bitsPerComponent = 8; int bitsPerPixel = 32; int bytesPerRow = 4 * size.width; CGColorSpaceRef colorSpaceRef = CGColorSpaceCreateDeviceRGB(); CGBitmapInfo bitmapInfo = kCGBitmapByteOrderDefault; CGColorRenderingIntent renderingIntent = kCGRenderingIntentDefault; CGImageRef iref = CGImageCreate(size.width, size.height, bitsPerComponent, bitsPerPixel, bytesPerRow, colorSpaceRef, bitmapInfo, provider, NULL, NO, renderingIntent); uint32_t* pixels = (uint32_t*)malloc(bufferLength); CGContextRef context = CGBitmapContextCreate(pixels, size.width, size.height, 8, size.width * 4, CGImageGetColorSpace(iref), kCGImageAlphaPremultipliedLast | kCGBitmapByteOrder32Big); CGContextTranslateCTM(context, 0, size.height); CGContextScaleCTM(context, 1.0f, -1.0f); switch (director.deviceOrientation) { case CCDeviceOrientationPortrait: break; case CCDeviceOrientationPortraitUpsideDown: CGContextRotateCTM(context, CC_DEGREES_TO_RADIANS(180)); CGContextTranslateCTM(context, -size.width, -size.height); break; case CCDeviceOrientationLandscapeLeft: CGContextRotateCTM(context, CC_DEGREES_TO_RADIANS(-90)); CGContextTranslateCTM(context, -size.width, 0); break; case CCDeviceOrientationLandscapeRight: CGContextRotateCTM(context, CC_DEGREES_TO_RADIANS(90)); CGContextTranslateCTM(context, size.width * 0.5f, -size.height); break; } CGContextDrawImage(context, CGRectMake(0.0f, 0.0f, size.width, size.height), iref); UIImage *outputImage = [UIImage imageWithCGImage:CGBitmapContextCreateImage(context)]; //Dealloc CGDataProviderRelease(provider); CGImageRelease(iref); CGContextRelease(context); free(buffer); free(pixels); return outputImage; But when we enabled retina display in cocos 0.99.5. This functionality is a little messed up since it will miss a little left part of the image while the high is still correct. So I'm wondering if there is anything wrong with the code or am I doing anything wrong here? Thank you in advance for any reply!

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  • Model self referential collections in Rails

    - by Najitaka
    I have written an application for an online clothing store in Rails 2.3.5. I want to show related Products when a customer views the Product Detail page. For example, if the customer views the detail page for a suit, I'd like to display the accessory products that match the dress such as a vest, shoes, and belt. I have named the related products an Ensemble. However, the vest, shoes, and belts are also Products which is what has me struggling. I have it working as follows but I know it's not the Rails way. I have a Products table for all of the products. Not important here but I also have a ProductDetails table. I have an Ensembles table that has the following columns: product_id - the main or origination product, the one displayed on the detail page outfit_id - the related or accessory product In setting up the data, on the Products list, for each Product I have an Ensemble link. This link takes you to the index action in the Ensembles controller. Using the id from the "main" Product, I find all of the associated Ensemble rows by product_id or I create a new ensemble and assign the id from the main product as the product_id. I'd like to just be able to do @product.related_products to get an Ensemble collection. Also on the index page I list the columns of the main product so the user can be sure their main product was the one they selected from the list. I also have a select list of the other products, with an Add to Ensemble action. Finally on the same index page, I have a table that displays the products that are already in the ensemble and in that list each row has a destroy link to remove a particular product from the ensemble. It would be nice if given a single Ensemble row @ensemble I could do @ensemble.product to get the Product related to the outfit_id of the ensemble row. I've got it working without associations but I have to run queries in the controller to build my own @product, @ensemble, and @ensembles collections. Also the only way I found to destroy an ensemble row is by Ensemble.connection.delete(sql to delete), simple @ensemble.destroy doesn't work. Anyone know how I would set up the associations or have a link to a site explaining a similar setup. None of the examples I found use the same table. They have A related to B through C. I want A related to other A through B.

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  • Which MS technologies would be suited for a data intensive application?

    - by steve.tse
    I'm a junior VB.net developer with little application design knowledge. I've been reading a lot of material online regarding different design patterns, frameworks, and methodologies. It's become a bit confusing for me. Right now I'm trying to decide on what language would be best suited to convert an existing VB6 application (with SQL server backend.) I need to update the UI and add more user functionality and reporting capabilities. Initially I was thinking of using WPF and attempting the MVVM model for this big project. Reports would be generated from SSRS. A peer suggested using ASP.net and I don't have enough experience to determine what would be better. The senior programmers here are stuck on using VB6 and don't have any input on what to use. They are encouraging me to use the latest technologies. This application would be for ~20 users in a central location. Ideally I would stick to a Microsoft .net language. Current interface is similar to a datagrid table where the user would click in to see the detail of each record. They would need to have multiple records open at any given time. I look forward to all the advice I can get. EDIT 2010/04/22 2:47 PM EST What is your audience? Internal clients within an intranet How complex are the interactions you expect to implement? not very... displaying data from SQL server to UI. Allow user updates to said data. Typically just one user modifying a record. Do you require near real-time data updates? no How often do you expect to update the application after the first release? twice/year Do you expect a well-defined set of client platforms? Yes, windows xp environment, potentially upgrading to Win7. Currently in IE.6 moving to IE7 or 8 within a couple of months. Do users need access from anywhere? No, just from their PC.

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  • How SQLite on Android handles long stings?

    - by Levara
    Hi! I'm wondering how Android's implementation of SQLite handles long Strings. Reading from online documentation on sqlite, it said that strings in sqlite are limited to 1 million characters. My strings are definitely smaller. I'm creating a simple RSS application, and after parsing a html document, and extracting text, I'm having problem saving it to a database. I have 2 tables in database, feeds and articles. RSS feeds are correctly saved and retrieved from feeds table, but when saving to the articles table, logcat is saying that it cannot save extracted text to it's column. I don't know if other columns are making problems too, no mention of them in logcat. I'm wondering, since text is from an article on web, are signs like (",',;) creating problems? Is Android automaticaly escaping them, or I have to do that. I'm using a technique for inserting similar to one in notepad tutorial: public long insertArticle(long feedid, String title, String link, String description, String h1, String h2, String h3, String p, String image, long date) { ContentValues initialValues = new ContentValues(); initialValues.put(KEY_FEEDID, feedid); initialValues.put(KEY_TITLE, title); initialValues.put(KEY_LINK, link); initialValues.put(KEY_DESCRIPTION, description ); initialValues.put(KEY_H1, h1 ); initialValues.put(KEY_H2, h2); initialValues.put(KEY_H3, h3); initialValues.put(KEY_P, p); initialValues.put(KEY_IMAGE, image); initialValues.put(KEY_DATE, date); return mDb.insert(DATABASE_TABLE_ARTICLES,null, initialValues); } Column P is for extracted text, h1, h2 and h3 are for headers from a page. Logcat reports only column p to be the problem. The table is created with following statement: private static final String DATABASE_CREATE_ARTICLES = "create table articles( _id integer primary key autoincrement, feedid integer, title text, link text not null, description text," + "h1 text, h2 text, h3 text, p text, image text, date integer);"; Thanks!

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  • When does logic belong in the Business Object/Entity, and when does it belong in a Service?

    - by Casey
    In trying to understand Domain Driven Design I keep returning to a question that I can't seem to definitively answer. How do you determine what logic belongs to a Domain entity, and what logic belongs to a Domain Service? Example: We have an Order class for an online store. This class is an entity and an aggregate root (it contains OrderItems). Public Class Order:IOrder { Private List<IOrderItem> OrderItems Public Order(List<IOrderItem>) { OrderItems = List<IOrderItem> } Public Decimal CalculateTotalItemWeight() //This logic seems to belong in the entity. { Decimal TotalWeight = 0 foreach(IOrderItem OrderItem in OrderItems) { TotalWeight += OrderItem.Weight } return TotalWeight } } I think most people would agree that CalculateTotalItemWeight belongs on the entity. However, at some point we have to ship this order to the customer. To accomplish this we need to do two things: 1) Determine the postage rate necessary to ship this order. 2) Print a shipping label after determining the postage rate. Both of these actions will require dependencies that are outside the Order entity, such as an external webservice to retrieve postage rates. How should we accomplish these two things? I see a few options: 1) Code the logic directly in the domain entity, like CalculateTotalItemWeight. We then call: Order.GetPostageRate Order.PrintLabel 2) Put the logic in a service that accepts IOrder. We then call: PostageService.GetPostageRate(Order) PrintService.PrintLabel(Order) 3) Create a class for each action that operates on an Order, and pass an instance of that class to the Order through Constructor Injection (this is a variation of option 1 but allows reuse of the RateRetriever and LabelPrinter classes): Public Class Order:IOrder { Private List<IOrderItem> OrderItems Private RateRetriever _Retriever Private LabelPrinter _Printer Public Order(List<IOrderItem>, RateRetriever Retriever, LabelPrinter Printer) { OrderItems = List<IOrderItem> _Retriever = Retriever _Printer = Printer } Public Decimal GetPostageRate { _Retriever.GetPostageRate(this) } Public void PrintLabel { _Printer.PrintLabel(this) } } Which one of these methods do you choose for this logic, if any? What is the reasoning behind your choice? Most importantly, is there a set of guidelines that led you to your choice?

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