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  • with JQUERY, How to pass a dynamic series of data to the server

    - by nobosh
    What is the recommended way in JQUERY to send a dynamic set of data to the server, the set contains items like: ID: 13 Copy: hello world....hello world....hello world....hello world.... ID: 122 Copy: Ding dong ...Ding dong ...Ding dong ...Ding dong ...Ding dong ... ID: 11233 Copy: mre moremore ajkdkjdksjkjdskjdskjdskjds This could range from 1, to 10 items. What's the best way to structure that data to post to the server with JQUERY? Thanks

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  • How do i pass arbitary date format from C# to sql backend

    - by Jims
    I have a datetime field for the transaction date in the back end. So I am passing that date from front C#.net, in the below format: 2011-01-01 12:17:51.967 to do this I have written: presentation layer: string date = DateTime.Now.ToString("yyyy-MM-dd HH:mm:ss.fff", CultureInfo.InvariantCulture); PropertyClass prp=new PropertyClass(); Prp.TransDate=Convert.ToDateTime(date); PropertyClass structure: Public class property { private DateTime transdate; public DateTime TransDate { get { return transdate; } set { transdate = value; } } } From DAL layer passing the TransactionDate like this: Cmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@TranSactionDate”, SqlDbType.DateTime).value=propertyobj.TransDate; While debugging from presntation layer: string date = DateTime.Now.ToString("yyyy-MM-dd HH:mm:ss.fff", CultureInfo.InvariantCulture); in this I am getting correct expected date format, but when debugs goes to this line Prp.TransDate=Convert.ToDateTime(date); again date format changing to 1/1/2011. But my backend sql datefield wants the date paramter 2011-01-01 12:17:51.967 in this format otherwise throwing exception invalid date format. Note: While passing date as string without converting to datetime getting exceptions like: System.Data.SqlTypes.SqlTypeException: SqlDateTime overflow. Must be between 1/1/1753 12:00:00 AM and 12/31/9999 11:59:59 PM. at System.Data.SqlTypes.SqlDateTime.FromTimeSpan(TimeSpan value) at System.Data.SqlTypes.SqlDateTime.FromDateTime(DateTime value) at System.Data.SqlTypes.SqlDateTime..ctor(DateTime value) at System.Data.SqlClient.MetaType.FromDateTime(DateTime dateTime, Byte cb) at System.Data.SqlClient.TdsParser.WriteValue(Object value, MetaType type, Byte scale, Int32 actualLength, Int32 encodingByteSize, Int32 offset, TdsParserStateObject stateObj) at System.Data.SqlClient.TdsParser.TdsExecuteRPC(_SqlRPC[] rpcArray, Int32 timeout, Boolean inSchema, SqlNotificationRequest notificationRequest, TdsParserStateObject stateObj, Boolean isCommandProc)

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  • PHP (CodeIgniter) Pass Object Through Session

    - by FranticPedantic
    I am using PHP5 and CodeIgniter and I am trying to implement a single-sign on feature with facebook (although I don't think that facebook is relevant to the question). I am somewhat of a novice with PHP and definitely one with CodeIgniter, so if you think my approach is just completely off telling me that would be helpful too. So here is in short what I am doing: //Controller 1 $this->load->plugin("facebook"); $facebook = new Facebook(array ( 'appId' => $fbconfig['appid'], 'secret' => $fbconfig['secret'], 'cookie' => true, ) ); $fbsession = $facebook->getSession(); //works fine $this->session->set_userdata('facebook', serialize($facebook); Now I would like to grab that facebook object in a different controller. //Controller 2 $facebook = unserialize($this->session->userdata('facebook')); $fbsession = $facebook->getSession(); Produces the error: Call to undefined method getSession. So I look up more about serialization and think that maybe it just doesn't know what the facebook object's attributes are. So I add in a $this->load->plugin('facebook'); To controller 2 as well and I get a "Cannot redeclare class facebook." I am strongly suspecting that I am misunderstanding sessions here. Do I have to somehow tell PHP what kind of object it is? Thanks for the help.

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  • Pass MSBuild condition to library project

    - by Billy Talented
    I have tried several solutions for this problem. Enough to know I do not know enough about MSBuild to do this elegantly but I feel like there should be a method. I have a set of libraries for working with .net projects. A few of the projects utilize System.Web.Mvc - which recently released Version 2 - and we are looking forward to the upgrade. Currently sites which reference this library reference it directly by the project(csproj) on the developer's computer - not a built version of the library so that changes and source code case easily be viewed when dealing code from this library. This works quite well and would prefer to not have to switch to binary references (but will if this is the only solution). The problem I have is that because of some of the functionality that was added onto the MVC1 based library (view engines, model binders etc) several of the sites reliant on these libraries need to stay on MVC1 until we have full evaluated and tested them on MVC2. I would prefer to not have to fork or have two copies on each dev machine. So what I would like to be able to do is set a property group value in the referencing web application and have this read by the above mentions library with the caviat that when working directly on the library via its containing solution I would like to be able to control this via Configuration Manager by selecting a build type and that property overriding the build behavior of the solution (i.e. 'Debug - MVC1' vs 'Debug -MVC2') - I have this working via: <Choose> <When Condition=" '$(Configuration)|$(Platform)' == 'Release - MVC2|AnyCPU' Or '$(Configuration)|$(Platform)' == 'Debug - MVC2|AnyCPU'"> <ItemGroup> <Reference Include="System.Web.Mvc, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31bf3856ad364e35, processorArchitecture=MSIL"> </Reference> <Reference Include="Microsoft.Web.Mvc, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, processorArchitecture=MSIL"> <SpecificVersion>False</SpecificVersion> <HintPath>..\Dependancies\Web\MVC2\Microsoft.Web.Mvc.dll</HintPath> </Reference> </ItemGroup> </When> <Otherwise> <ItemGroup> <Reference Include="System.Web.Mvc, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31bf3856ad364e35, processorArchitecture=MSIL"> <SpecificVersion>False</SpecificVersion> <HintPath>..\Dependancies\Web\MVC\System.Web.Mvc.dll</HintPath> </Reference> </ItemGroup> </Otherwise> The item that I am struggling with is the cross solution issue(solution TheWebsite references this project and needs to control which build property to use) that I have not found a way to work with that I think is a solid solution that enabled the build within visual studio to work as it has to date. Other bits: we are using VS2008, Resharper, TeamCity for CI, SVN for source control.

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  • how to pass parameters to a linux bash shell

    - by chun
    hi i have a linux bash shell 'myshell' i want it to read two date as parameters, ex: myshell date1 date2 i am a Java programer, but don't know how to write a shell to get this done the rest of the shell is like this sed "s/$date1/$date2/g" wlacd_stat.xml tmp.xml mv tmp.xml wlacd_stat.xml thanks

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  • How to pass email from one form to another page's form with javascript

    - by zac
    I am trying to have an email signup form on one page populate the email block on another page by passing it through the url and pulling it out with document.write. The first form is something like: <form action="/sign-up"> <input type="text" name="passEmail"><input type="submit"></form> And the recieving form is like : <form name="theForm"> <input type='text' name='email'></form> And I am trying a script like this <SCRIPT LANGUAGE="javascript"> var locate = window.location document.theForm.email.value = locate var text = document.theForm.email.value function delineate(str) { theEmail = str.indexOf("=") + 1; return(str.substring(theEmail)); } document.write(delineate(text)); </SCRIPT> Instead of pulling the email after the = in the url it is pulling the entire url. Can someone help me accomplish this?

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  • Boost Unit testing memory reuse causing tests that should fail to pass

    - by Knyphe
    We have started using the boost unit testing library for a large existing code base, and I have run into some trouble with unit tests incorrectly passing, seemingly due to the reuse of memory on the stack. Here is my situation: BOOST_AUTO_TEST_CASE(test_select_base_instantiation_default) { SelectBase selectBase(); BOOST_CHECK_EQUAL( selectBase.getSelectType(), false); BOOST_CHECK_EQUAL( selectBase.getTypeName(_T("")); BOOST_CHECK_EQUAL( selectBase.getEntityType(), -1); BOOST_CHECK_EQUAL( selectBase.getDataPos(), -1); } BOOST_AUTO_TEST_CASE(test_select_base_instantiation_default) { SelectBase selectBase(true, _T("abc")); BOOST_CHECK_EQUAL( selectBase.getSelectType(), false); BOOST_CHECK_EQUAL( selectBase.getTypeName(_T("abc")); BOOST_CHECK_EQUAL( selectBase.getEntityType(), -1); BOOST_CHECK_EQUAL( selectBase.getDataPos(), -1); } The first test passed correctly, initializing all the variables. The constructor in the second unit test did not correctly set EntityType or DataPosition, but the unit test passed. I was able to get it to fail by placing some variables on the stack in the second test, like so: BOOST_AUTO_TEST_CASE(test_select_base_instantiation_default) { int a, b; SelectBase selectBase(true, _T("abc")); BOOST_CHECK_EQUAL( selectBase.getSelectType(), false); BOOST_CHECK_EQUAL( selectBase.getTypeName(_T("abc")); BOOST_CHECK_EQUAL( selectBase.getEntityType(), -1); BOOST_CHECK_EQUAL( selectBase.getDataPos(), -1); } If there is only one int, only the dataPos CHECK_EQUAL fails, but if there are two, both EntityType and DataPos fail, so it seems pretty clear that this is an issue with the variables being created on the same stack memory or some such. Is there a good way to clear the memory between each unit test, or am I potentially using the library incorrectly or writing bad tests? Any help would be appreciated.

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  • how to pass data when using MenuItem.ItemContainerStyle

    - by black sensei
    Hello Experts! i've been trying to have a dynamic ContextMenu to show the name property of each of the object in its collection of objects. here is concrete example ,i'm connecting to a webservice to pull contacts and groups of a particular account.so i have those as global variables.i display the contacts in a listbox and i want to show on right click of a contact in the listbox the list of groups that it can be added to. to be able to add a contact to a group i need the id of the contact(which i have) and the id of the group which i'm looking for here is my code. xmlns:serviceAdmin="clr-namespace:MyWpfApp.serviceAdmin" ...... <ListBox.ContextMenu> <ContextMenu> <MenuItem Header="Refresh" Click="RefreshContact_Click"></MenuItem> <MenuItem Header="Add New Contact" Click="ContactNew_Click"></MenuItem> <MenuItem Header="Add to Group" Name="groupMenus"> //<!--<MenuItem.Resources> // <DataTemplate DataType="{x:Type serviceAdmin:groupInfo}" x:Key="groupMenuKey" > // <MenuItem> // <TextBlock Text="{Binding name}" /> // </MenuItem> // </DataTemplate> // </MenuItem.Resources>--> <MenuItem.ItemContainerStyle> <Style> <Setter Property="MenuItem.Header" Value="{Binding name}"/> <Setter Property="MenuItem.Tag" Value="{Binding id}" /> </Style> </MenuItem.ItemContainerStyle> </MenuItem> <MenuItem Header="Delete Selected" Click="ContactDelete_Click"></MenuItem> </ContextMenu> </ListBox.ContextMenu> ...... and on xaml.cs //this code is in the method that loads the groups loadedgroup = service.getGroups(session.key, null); groupListBox.ItemsSource = loadedgroup; groupMenus.ItemsSource = loadedgroup.ToList(); this code is showing the name of the groups alright but i need the id of the group clicked on. If you've noticed i commented a portion of the xaml code. with that i could bind(with ease) the id to the tag.But it won't work and the MenuItem.ItemContainerStyle is the one working but then i'm lost: Question 1 : how do i create a handler method for a click event of a submenu that has the names of the groups? Question 2 : how do i get the clicked group id to work with? thanks for reading and kindly help me in this

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  • Pass an Event as parameter

    - by dkson
    I have a class which bundles events and registers controls to easily register/unregister them, it's basically used this way: Private Sub MyFocusHandler(ByVal sender As Object, ...) ... End Sub ... Dim b1 = new MyTextBox() Dim b2 = new MyTextBox() .... 'Lot of Controls' Dim cr = new ControlRegistration() cr.RegisterControl(b1) cr.RegisterControl(b2) .... 'Register a lot of controls' cr.RegisterEvent("Focus",New EventHandler(AddressOf MyFocusHandler)) cr.RegisterEvent("Validate",New EventHandler(AddressOf MyValidateHandler)) So I don't have to add the handlers manually for each control. The ControlRegistration-Class will cycle through the list of registered controls and check if a control has a registered event and then attach the eventhandler, something like: ... For Each control in contols Dim ev_info As Reflection.EventInfo = _ control.GetType().GetEvent(.GetType().GetEvent(event_name)) If Not (ev_info Is Nothing) Then ev_info.AddEventHandler ... ... My problem is that i am identifying the event by a string Public Sub RegisterEvent(ByVal eventName As String, ByVal handler As [Delegate]) ... ... cr.RegisterEvent("Focus",New EventHandler(AddressOf MyFocusHandler)) I don't want to depend on the name of the event, since it is possibly that the name changes, and then things will break up. Is there a way I can do this like: Public Sub RegisterEvent(ByVal theEvent As ???, ByVal handler As [Delegate]) ... ... cr.RegisterEvent(IMyControl.MyEvent,New EventHandler(AddressOf MyEventHandler)) I hope it is clear what I want to archive. Anybody any ideas? Thanks

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  • Pass checkbox values with Jquery to PHP and display result in div

    - by user1343955
    I want to filter realtime results with jQuery (just like on this site http://shop.www.hi.nl/hi/mcsmambo.p?M5NextUrl=RSRCH). So when someones checks a checkbox the results should update realtime (in a div). Now I'm a newbie with jQuery and I've tried lots of examples but I can't get it to work. Here's my code, could anyone tell what I'm doing wrong? Thank you very much! HTML <div id="c_b"> Kleur:<br /> <input type="checkbox" name="kleur[1]" value="Blauw"> Blauw <br /> <input type="checkbox" name="kleur[2]" value="Wit"> Wit <br /> <input type="checkbox" name="kleur[3]" value="Zwart"> Zwart <br /> <br /> Operating System:<br /> <input type="checkbox" name="os[1]" value="Android"> Android <br /> <input type="checkbox" name="os[2]" value="Apple iOS"> Apple iOS <br /> </div> <div id="myResponse">Here should be the result</div> jQuery function updateTextArea() { var allVals = []; $('#c_b :checked').each(function() { allVals.push($(this).val()); }); var dataString = $(allVals).serialize(); $.ajax({ type:'POST', url:'/wp-content/themes/u-design/filteropties.php', data: dataString, success: function(data){ $('#myResponse').html(data); } }); } $(document).ready(function() { $('#c_b input').click(updateTextArea); updateTextArea(); }); PHP //Just to see if the var passing works echo var_export($_POST);

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  • how to pass an arbitrary signature to Certifcate

    - by eskoba
    I am trying to sign certificate (X509) using secret sharing. that is shareholders combine their signatures to produce the final signature. which will be in this case the signed certificate. however practically from my understanding only one entity can sign a certificate. therefore I want to know: which entities or data of the x509certificate are actually taken as input to the signing algorithm? ideally I want this data to be signed by the shareholders and then the final combination will be passed to the X509certificate as valid signature. is this possible? how could it done? if not are they other alternatives?

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  • Select in listview, to pass the index through to another form

    - by Luke
    I have a system where a listview is populated. I want to be able to select one of these files and press an edit button, which will then take the selected data into another form. I am trying to find a way to identify the selected item in the listview and take it to the next form. How can i achieve this? What code would I need to show? Thanks

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  • Swig C++ Lua Pass class by reference

    - by Jeremy
    I don't know why I'm having a hard time with this. All I want to do is this: class foo { public: foo(){} ~foo(){} float a,b; }; class foo2 { public: foo2(){} foo2(const foo &f){*this = f;} ~foo2(){} void operator=(const foo& f){ x = f.a; y = f.b; } float x,y; }; /* Usage(cpp): foo f; foo2 f2(f); //or using the = operator f2 = f; */ The problem I'm having is that, after swigging this code, I can't figure out how to make the lua script play nice. /* Usage(lua) f = example.foo() f2 = example.foo2(f) --error */ The error I get is "Wrong arguments for overloaded function 'new_Foo2'": Possible c/c++ prototypes are: foo2() foo2(foo const &) The same thing happens if I try and use do f2 = f. As I understand it everything is stored as a pointer so I did try adding an additional constructor that took a pointer to foo but to no avail.

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  • how to pass querystring in friendly url in asp.net mvc

    - by frosty
    I have the following action. I can hit this with /basket/address?addressId=123 However i wonder how i can hit it with /basket/address/123 public ActionResult Address(int addressId) { return RedirectToAction("Index"); } my routes routes.MapRoute( "Default", // Route name "{controller}.aspx/{action}/{id}", // URL with parameters new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = "" } // Parameter defaults );

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  • JavaScript function pass-through?

    - by Lance May
    I'm not sure if this is doable, but I would like to be able to set a jQuery UI event as a function (directly), as opposed to continuing to wrap in additional function(event, ui) { ... } wrappers. Hopefully you can see what I'm going for from the example below. Here is what I would like: $("#auto").autocomplete({ source: "somepage.php", select: dropdownSelect, minLength: 0 }); Now I would think that the above would work, since I'm simply trying to say "continue firing this event, just over to that function". Unfortunately, that will not work, and I'm ending up with this: (and for some reason, a disconnect from all data) $("#auto").autocomplete({ source: "somepage.php", select: function(event, ui) { dropdownSelect(event, ui) }, minLength: 0 }); Thanks much in advance.

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  • Django: cannot pass variable to included template?

    - by duy
    Hi, I got a problem where I want to use template including in Django. Here is the real example: I got 3 file: home.html (will get the context variable passed from Views), base.html (the skeleton template file) and the header.html (included by base.html). If if put the code below directly in base.html without including the header.html, the {{title}} variable passing from home is correctly called. But if I include the header.html in base.html, the {{title}} variable's value cannot be called. <title>{% block title %}{% endblock %} | {{ SITE_INFO_TITLE }}</title> Is there any solution to this problem? Thanks.

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  • How to pass a function in a function?

    - by SoulBeaver
    That's an odd title. I would greatly appreciate it if somebody could clarify what exactly I'm asking because I'm not so sure myself. I'm watching the Stanford videos on Programming Paradigms(that teacher is awesome) and I'm up to video five when he started doing this: void *lSearch( void* key, void* base, int elemSize, int n, int (*cmpFn)(void*, void*)) Naturally, I thought to myself, "Oi, I didn't know you could declare a function and define it later!". So I created my own C++ test version. int foo(int (*bar)(void*, void*)); int bar(void* a, void* b); int main(int argc, char** argv) { int *func = 0; foo(bar); cin.get(); return 0; } int foo(int (*bar)(void*, void*)) { int c(10), d(15); int *a = &c; int *b = &d; bar(a, b); return 0; } int bar(void* a, void* b) { cout << "Why hello there." << endl; return 0; } The question about the code is this: it fails if I declare function int *bar as a parameter of foo, but not int (*bar). Why!? Also, the video confuses me in the fact that his lSearch definition void* lSearch( /*params*/ , int (*cmpFn)(void*, void*)) is calling cmpFn in the definition, but when calling the lSearch function lSearch( /*params*/, intCmp ); also calls the defined function int intCmp(void* elem1, void* elem2); and I don't get how that works. Why, in lSearch, is the function called cmpFn, but defined as intCmp, which is of type int, not int* and still works? And why does the function in lSearch not have to have defined parameters?

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  • Pass 2d array to function in C?

    - by Evelyn
    I know it's simple, but I can't seem to make this work. My function is like so: int GefMain(int array[][5]) { //do stuff return 1; } In my main: int GefMain(int array[][5]); int main(void) { int array[1800][5]; GefMain(array); return 0; } I referred to this helpful resource, but I am still getting the error "warning: passing argument 1 of GefMain from incompatible pointer type." What am I doing wrong?

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  • Pass deeply nested element to function in JQuery

    - by klez
    I have this form: <form action="contact.php" method="post" id="contactform"> <ol> <li> <label for="name">First Name * </label> <input id="name" name="name" class="text" /> </li> <li> <label for="email">Your email * </label> <input id="email" name="email" class="text" /> </li> <li> <label for="company">Company</label> <input id="company" name="company" class="text" /> </li> <li> <label for="subject">Subject</label> <input id="subject" name="subject" class="text" /> </li> <li> <label for="message">Message * </label> <textarea id="message" name="message" rows="6" cols="50"></textarea> </li> <li class="buttons"> <input type="image" name="imageField" id="imageField" src="images/send.gif" /> </li> </ol> </form> This javascript function that does some basic validation: function validateRequired(field,alerttxt) { with (field) { if (value==null||value=="") { alert(alerttxt); return false; } return true; } } And this script (written with jquery) to intercept the submit event jQuery(document).ready(function(){ $('#contactform').submit(function(){ ... }); }); The problem is that, inside the last script I want to call validateRequired passing each required input/textarea (namely: name, email and message) as first parameter. I tried like this: validateRequired($('#name')); but it doesn't work. How can I do this?

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  • Using mcrypt to pass data across a webservice is failing

    - by adam
    Hi I'm writing an error handler script which encrypts the error data (file, line, error, message etc) and passes the serialized array as a POST variable (using curl) to a script which then logs the error in a central db. I've tested my encrypt/decrypt functions in a single file and the data is encrypted and decrypted fine: define('KEY', 'abc'); define('CYPHER', 'blowfish'); define('MODE', 'cfb'); function encrypt($data) { $td = mcrypt_module_open(CYPHER, '', MODE, ''); $iv = mcrypt_create_iv(mcrypt_enc_get_iv_size($td), MCRYPT_RAND); mcrypt_generic_init($td, KEY, $iv); $crypttext = mcrypt_generic($td, $data); mcrypt_generic_deinit($td); return $iv.$crypttext; } function decrypt($data) { $td = mcrypt_module_open(CYPHER, '', MODE, ''); $ivsize = mcrypt_enc_get_iv_size($td); $iv = substr($data, 0, $ivsize); $data = substr($data, $ivsize); if ($iv) { mcrypt_generic_init($td, KEY, $iv); $data = mdecrypt_generic($td, $data); } return $data; } echo "<pre>"; $data = md5(''); echo "Data: $data\n"; $e = encrypt($data); echo "Encrypted: $e\n"; $d = decrypt($e); echo "Decrypted: $d\n"; Output: Data: d41d8cd98f00b204e9800998ecf8427e Encrypted: ê÷#¯KžViiÖŠŒÆÜ,ÑFÕUW£´Œt?†÷>c×åóéè+„N Decrypted: d41d8cd98f00b204e9800998ecf8427e The problem is, when I put the encrypt function in my transmit file (tx.php) and the decrypt in my recieve file (rx.php), the data is not fully decrypted (both files have the same set of constants for key, cypher and mode). Data before passing: a:4:{s:3:"err";i:1024;s:3:"msg";s:4:"Oops";s:4:"file";s:46:"/Applications/MAMP/htdocs/projects/txrx/tx.php";s:4:"line";i:80;} Data decrypted: Mª4:{s:3:"err";i:1024@7OYªç`^;g";s:4:"Oops";s:4:"file";sôÔ8F•Ópplications/MAMP/htdocs/projects/txrx/tx.php";s:4:"line";i:80;} Note the random characters in the middle. My curl is fairly simple: $ch = curl_init($url); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POST, true); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POSTFIELDS, 'data=' . $data); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, true); $output = curl_exec($ch); Things I suspect could be causing this: Encoding of the curl request Something to do with mcrypt padding missing bytes I've been staring at it too long and have missed something really really obvious If I turn off the crypt functions (so the transfer tx-rx is unencrypted) the data is received fine. Any and all help much appreciated! Thanks, Adam

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  • How to pass Event as a parameter in JQuery function

    - by Manas Saha
    Hi I am learning JQuery and I have written a small function where I am attaching a function with a button's click event. this is the head element of the HTML <script type="text/javascript"> $(pageLoaded); function pageLoaded() { $("#Button1").bind("click", { key1: "value1", key2: "value2" }, function buttonClick(event) { $("#displayArea").text(event.data.key1); } ); } </script> This is the body of the HTML <input id="Button1" type="button" value="button" /> <div id = "displayArea" style="border:2px solid black; width:300px; height:200px"> This code works fine. But when I try to write the buttonClick function outside the anonymus method, it does not work anymore. I tried to call it this way: $("#Button1").bind("click", { key1: "value1", key2: "value2" }, buttonClick(event)); function buttonClick(var event) { $("#displayArea").text(event.data.key1); } This is not working. Am I doing some mistake while passing the Event as parameter? what is the correct way to do it without using anonymous methods?

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  • Pass Value between MDI Child in WinForm using C#

    - by abhilashca
    I have an MDI Parent, containing a MenuStrip. When I click on one of the Menu, two Child Forms are displayed simultaneoulsy. I have a TextBox and a Send Button on one of my ChildForm. When I type-in something in that TextBox and Click the Send Button, I need to show that value in the TextBox of my Second Child Form. What I had done is, I wrote a Public Function in the Second Child Form and tried to invoke it by creating an object of Second Form, on the Send Button click event. When I put break points, in that Public Function, I find that the control is flowing through that Public function on cliking the Send button. But the passed value is not displayed. And, I know that is not the standard way to do that. Any sample script for help? Thanks.

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  • Delphi constants and references

    - by Sambatyon
    I want to pass constant references to functions in delphi, so I am sure that the referenced object won't change and to save time and memory. So I want to declare a function like function foo(var const Value : Bar) : Boolean; however this is not allowed. I thought constant values would be automatically sent as references. However I found out that it is not the case (getting the address of an object before sending it to the function gives me $12F50C and the address of the same object inside the function is $12F564) What can I do to send constant references?

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