Search Results

Search found 10494 results on 420 pages for 'beyond the documentation'.

Page 360/420 | < Previous Page | 356 357 358 359 360 361 362 363 364 365 366 367  | Next Page >

  • How do I append Word templates to a new document in VB.NET?

    - by Tom
    I'm poking around to see if this app can be done. Basically the end user needs to create a bunch of export documents that are populated from a database. There will be numerous document templates (.dot) and the end result will be the user choosing templates x y and z to include for documentation, click a button and have the app create a new Word document, append the templates, and then populate the templates with the appropriate data. The reason it needs to be done in Word as opposed to something like Crystal Reports is that the user may customize some fields before printing the documents as it can vary from export to export. Is this possible to do through VB.NET (VS 2010)? I assume it is but I'm having difficulty tracking down a solution. Or alternatively is there a better solution? Here's what I have so far (not much I know) Import Microsoft.Office.Interop Public Class Form1 Private Sub Button1_Click(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles Button1.Click Dim oWord As Word.Application Dim oDoc As Word.Document oWord = CreateObject("Word.Application") oWord.Visible = False oDoc = oWord.Documents.Add 'Open templates x.dot, y.dot, z.dot 'Append above templates to new document created 'Populate new document oWord.Visible = True End Sub End Class Thanks.

    Read the article

  • How to prepare data for display on a silverlight chart using WCF RIA Services + Entity Framework

    - by Banford
    I've used WCF RIA services with Entity Framework to build a simple application which can display and updates data about school courses. This was done by following the Microsoft tutorials. Now I would like to have a chart which shows a count for how many courses are on a key stage. Example: Key Stage 3 - 20 courses Key Stage 4 - 32 courses Key Stage 5 - 12 courses Displayed on any form of chart. I have no problem binding data to the chart in XAML. My problem is that I do not know how to correct way of getting the data into that format. The generated CRUD methods are basic. I have a few thoughts about possible ways, but don't know which is correct, they are: Create a View in SQL server and map this to a separate Entity in the Entity Data Model. Generating new CRUD methods for this automatically. Customise the read method in the existing DomainService using .Select() .Distinct() etc. Don't know this syntax very well labda expressions/LINQ??? what is it? Any good quickstarts on it? Create a new class to store only the data required and create a read method for it. Tried this but didn't know how to make it work without a matching entity in the entity model. Something I am not aware of. I'm very new to this and struggling with the concepts so if there are useful blogs or documentation I've missed feel free to point me towards them. But I'm unsure of the terminology to use in my searches at the moment.

    Read the article

  • How to get to the key name of a referenced entity property from an entity instance without a datastore read in google app engine?

    - by Sumeet Pareek
    Consider I have the following models - class Team(db.Model): # say I have just 5 teams name = db.StringProperty() class Player(db.Model): # say I have thousands of players name = db.StringProperty() team = db.ReferenceProperty(Team, collection_name="player_set") Key name for each Team entity = 'team_' , and for each Player entity = 'player_' By some prior arrangement I have a Team entity's (key_name, name) mapping available to me. For example (team_01, United States Of America), (team_02, Russia) etc I have to show all the players and their teams on a page. One way of doing this would be - players = Player.all().fetch(1000) # This is 1 DB read for player in players: # This will iterate 1000 times self.response.out.write(player.name) # This is obviously not a DB read self.response.out.write(player.team.name) #This is a total of 1x1000 = 1000 DB reads That is a 1001 DB reads for a silly thing. The interesting part is that when I do a db.to_dict() on players, it shows that for every player in that list there is 'name' of the player and there is the 'key_name' of the team available too. So how can I do the below ?? players = Player.all().fetch(1000) # This is 1 DB read for player in players: # This will iterate 1000 times self.response.out.write(player.name) # This is obviously not a DB read self.response.out.write(team_list[player.<SOME WAY OF GETTING TEAM KEY NAME>]) # Here 'team_list' already has (key_name, name) for all 5 teams I have been struggling with this for a long time. Have read every available documentation. I could just hug the person that can help me here :-) Disclaimer: The above problem description is not a real scenario. It is a simplified arrangement that represents my problem exactly. I have run into it in a rater complex and big GAE appication.

    Read the article

  • In this example, would Customer or AccountInfo properly be the entity group parent?

    - by Badhu Seral
    In this example, the Google App Engine documentation makes the Customer the entity group parent of the AccountInfo entity. Wouldn't AccountInfo encapsulate Customer rather than the other way around? Normally I would think of an AccountInfo class as including all of the information about the Customer. import javax.jdo.annotations.IdGeneratorStrategy; import javax.jdo.annotations.PersistenceCapable; import javax.jdo.annotations.Persistent; import javax.jdo.annotations.PrimaryKey; import com.google.appengine.api.datastore.Key; import com.google.appengine.api.datastore.KeyFactory; @PersistenceCapable public class AccountInfo { @PrimaryKey @Persistent(valueStrategy = IdGeneratorStrategy.IDENTITY) private Key key; public void setKey(Key key) { this.key = key; } } // ... KeyFactory.Builder keyBuilder = new KeyFactory.Builder(Customer.class.getSimpleName(), "custid985135"); keyBuilder.addChild(AccountInfo.class.getSimpleName(), "acctidX142516"); Key key = keyBuilder.getKey(); AccountInfo acct = new AccountInfo(); acct.setKey(key); pm.makePersistent(acct);

    Read the article

  • (Cpp) Linker, Libraries & Directories Information

    - by m00st
    I've finished both my C++ 1/2 classes and we did not cover anything on Linking to libraries or adding additional libraries to C++ code. I've been having a hay-day trying to figure this out; I've been unable to find basic information linking to objects. Initially I thought the problem was the IDE (Netbeans; and Code::Blocks). However I've been unable to get wxWidgets and GTKMM setup. Can someone point me in the right direction on the terminology and basic information about #including files and linking files in a Cpp application? Basically I want/need to know everything in regards to this process. The difference between .dll, .lib, .o, .lib.a, .dll.a. The difference between a .h and a "library" (.dll, .lib correct?) I understand I need to read the compiler documentation I am using; however all compilers (that I know of) use linker and headers; I need to learn this information. Please point me in the right direction! :] Thanks

    Read the article

  • How do I stop js files being cached in IE?

    - by DoctaJonez
    Hello stackers! I've created a page that uses the CKEditor javascript rich edit control. It's a pretty neat control, especially seeing as it's free, but I'm having serious issues with the way it allows you to add templates. To add a template you need to modify the templates js file in the CKEditor templates folder. The documentation page describing it is here. This works fine until I want to update a template or add a new one (or anything else that requires me to modify the js file). Internet Explorer caches the js file and doesn't pick up the update. Emptying the cache allows the update to be picked up, but this isn't an acceptable solution. Whenever I update a template I do not want to tell all of the users across the organisation to empty their IE cache. There must be a better way! Is there a way to stop IE caching the js file? Or is there another solution to this problem?

    Read the article

  • Boost::Asio - Remove the "null"-character in the end of tcp packets.

    - by shump
    I'm trying to make a simple msn client mostly for fun but also for educational purposes. And I started to try some tcp package sending and receiving using Boost Asio as I want cross-platform support. I have managed to send a "VER"-command and receive it's response. However after I send the following "CVR"-command, Asio casts an "End of file"-error. After some further researching I found by packet sniffing that my tcp packets to the messenger server got an extra "null"-character (Ascii code: 00) at the end of the message. This means that my VER-command gets an extra character in the end which I don't think the messenger server like and therefore shuts down the connection when I try to read the CVR response. This is how my package looks when sniffing it, (it's Payload): (Hex:) 56 45 52 20 31 20 4d 53 4e 50 31 35 20 43 56 52 30 0a 0a 00 (Char:) VER 1 MSNP15 CVR 0... and this is how Adium(chat client for OS X)'s package looks: (Hex:) 56 45 52 20 31 20 4d 53 4e 50 31 35 20 43 56 52 30 0d 0a (Char:) VER 1 MSNP15 CVR 0.. So my question is if there is any way to remove the null-character in the end of each package, of if I've misunderstood something and used Asio in a wrong way. My write function (slightly edited) looks lite this: int sendVERMessage() { boost::system::error_code ignored_error; char sendBuf[] = "VER 1 MSNP15 CVR0\r\n"; boost::asio::write(socket, boost::asio::buffer(sendBuf), boost::asio::transfer_all(), ignored_error); if(ignored_error) { cout << "Failed to send to host!" << endl; return 1; } cout << "VER message sent!" << endl; return 0; } And here's the main documentation on the msn protocol I'm using. Hope I've been clear enough.

    Read the article

  • Make Trac use a Drupal user database for authentication

    - by denisw
    I am trying to set up a Trac instance as a complement to a Drupal site and would like to give users the possibility to use their Drupal account in Trac, too, ideally in a single sign-on fashion (if the user is already logged into Drupal, he is automatically logged into Trac). The question now is how to accomplish this. I have found a plugin named DrupalIntegration which seems to implement that functionality; however, it is poorly documented - in fact, not documented at all. I managed to install it, but don't know how to configure it. Here is what I came up with from looking at the source code and the documentation of the AccountManager plugin (on which DrupalIntegration depends): [components] trac.web.auth.loginmodule = disabled acct_mgr.api = enabled acct_mgr.web_ui.LoginModule = enabled acct_mgr.web_ui.RegistrationModule = disabled TracDrupalIntegration.DrupalIntegration = enabled [account-manager] drupal_database = mysql://<usernam>:<password>@localhost/<db> password_store = DrupalIntegration (<username>, <password> and <db> are naturally substituted with the correct data). While the Trac log says: 2010-12-18 10:54:09,570 Trac[loader] DEBUG: Loading TracDrupalIntegration from /usr/lib/python2.5/site-packages/TracDrupalIntegration-0.1-py2.5.egg this doesn't seem to work: trying to log in with a Drupal username / password results in an "Invalid username or password" error. Has someone used the DrupalIntegration and can point out to me what I did wrong? Or is there any other approach you know (or even have used in the past) to integrate Drupal and Trac that way?

    Read the article

  • UnicodeEncodeError: 'ascii' codec can't encode character [...]

    - by user1461135
    I have read the HOWTO on Unicode from the official docs and a full, very detailed article as well. Still I don't get it why it throws me this error. Here is what I attempt: I open an XML file that contains chars out of ASCII range (but inside allowed XML range). I do that with cfg = codecs.open(filename, encoding='utf-8, mode='r') which runs fine. Looking at the string with repr() also shows me a unicode string. Now I go ahead and read that with parseString(cfg.read().encode('utf-8'). Of course, my XML file starts with this: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?>. Although I suppose it is not relevant, I also defined utf-8 for my python script, but since I am not writing unicode characters directly in it, this should not apply here. Same for the following line: from __future__ import unicode_literals which also is right at the beginning. Next thing I pass the generated Object to my own class where I read tags into variables like this: xmldata.getElementsByTagName(tagName)[0].firstChild.data and assign it to a variable in my class. Now what perfectly works are those commands (obj is an instance of the class): for element in obj: print element And this command does work as well: print obj.__repr__() I defined __iter__() to just yield every variable while __repr__() uses the typical printf stuff: "%s" % self.varname Both commands print perfectly and can output the unicode character. What does not work is this: print obj And now I am stuck because this throws the dreaded UnicodeEncodeError: 'ascii' codec can't encode character u'\xfc' in position 47: So what am I missing? What am I doing wrong? I am looking for a general solution, I always want to handle strings as unicode, just to avoid any possible errors and write a compatible program. Edit: I also defined this: def __str__(self): return self.__repr__() def __unicode__(self): return self.__repr__() From documentation I got that this

    Read the article

  • Boost Asio UDP retrieve last packet in socket buffer

    - by Alberto Toglia
    I have been messing around Boost Asio for some days now but I got stuck with this weird behavior. Please let me explain. Computer A is sending continuos udp packets every 500 ms to computer B, computer B desires to read A's packets with it own velocity but only wants A's last packet, obviously the most updated one. It has come to my attention that when I do a: mSocket.receive_from(boost::asio::buffer(mBuffer), mEndPoint); I can get OLD packets that were not processed (almost everytime). Does this make any sense? A friend of mine told me that sockets maintain a buffer of packets and therefore If I read with a lower frequency than the sender this could happen. ¡? So, the first question is how is it possible to receive the last packet and discard the ones I missed? Later I tried using the async example of the Boost documentation but found it did not do what I wanted. http://www.boost.org/doc/libs/1_36_0/doc/html/boost_asio/tutorial/tutdaytime6.html From what I could tell the async_receive_from should call the method "handle_receive" when a packet arrives, and that works for the first packet after the service was "run". If I wanted to keep listening the port I should call the async_receive_from again in the handle code. right? BUT what I found is that I start an infinite loop, it doesn't wait till the next packet, it just enters "handle_receive" again and again. I'm not doing a server application, a lot of things are going on (its a game), so my second question is, do I have to use threads to use the async receive method properly, is there some example with threads and async receive? Thanks for you attention.

    Read the article

  • Somewhat lost with jquery + php + json

    - by Luis Armando
    I am starting to use the jquery $.ajax() but I can't get back what I want to...I send this: $(function(){ $.ajax({ url: "graph_data.php", type: "POST", data: "casi=56&nada=48&nuevo=98&perfecto=100&vales=50&apenas=70&yeah=60", dataType: "json", error: function (xhr, desc, exceptionobj) { document.writeln("El error de XMLHTTPRequest dice: " + xhr.responseText); }, success: function (json) { if (json.error) { alert(json.error); return; } var output = ""; for (p in json) { output += p + " : " + json[p] + "\n"; } document.writeln("Results: \n\n" + output); } }); }); and my php is: <?php $data = $_POST['data']; function array2json($data){ $json = $data; return json_encode($json); } ?> and when I execute this I come out with: Results: just like that I used to have in the php a echo array2json statement but it just gave back gibberish...I really don't know what am I doing wrong and I've googled for about 3 hours just getting basically the same stuff. Also I don't know how to pass parameters to the "data:" in the $.ajax function in another way like getting info from the web page, can anyone please help me? Edit I did what you suggested and it prints the data now thank you very much =) however, I was wondering, how can I send the data to the "data:" part in jQuery so it takes it from let's say user input, also I was checking the php documentation and it says I'm allowed to write something like: json_encode($a,JSON_HEX_TAG|JSON_HEX_APOS|JSON_HEX_QUOT|JSON_HEX_AMP) however, if I do that I get an error saying that json_encode accepts 1 parameter and I'm giving 2...any idea why? I'm using php 5.2

    Read the article

  • Fetching just the Key/id from a ReferenceProperty in App Engine

    - by ozone
    Hi SO, I could use a little help in AppEngine land... Using the [Python] API I create relationships like this example from the docs: class Author(db.Model): name = db.StringProperty() class Story(db.Model): author = db.ReferenceProperty(Author) story = db.get(story_key) author_name = story.author.name As I understand it, that example will make two datastore queries. One to fetch the Story and then one to deference the Author inorder to access the name. But I want to be able to fetch the id, so do something like: story = db.get(story_key) author_id = story.author.key().id() I want to just get the id from the reference. I do not want to have to deference (therefore query the datastore) the ReferenceProperty value. From reading the documentation it says that the value of a ReferenceProperty is a Key Which leads me to think that I could just call .id() on the reference's value. But it also says: The ReferenceProperty model provides features for Key property values such as automatic dereferencing. I can't find anything that explains when this referencing takes place? Is it safe to call .id() on the ReferenceProperty's value? Can it be assumed that calling .id() will not cause a datastore lookup?

    Read the article

  • File streaming in PHP - How to replicate this C#.net code in PHP?

    - by openid_kenja
    I'm writing an interface to a web service where we need to upload configuration files. The documentation only provides a sample in C#.net which I am not familiar with. I'm trying to implement this in PHP. Can someone familiar with both languages point me in the right direction? I can figure out all the basics, but I'm trying to figure out suitable PHP replacements for the FileStream, ReadBytes, and UploadDataFile functions. I believe that the RecService object contains the URL for the web service. Thanks for your help! private void UploadFiles() { clientAlias = “<yourClientAlias>”; string filePath = “<pathToYourDataFiles>”; string[] fileList = {"Config.txt", "ProductDetails.txt", "BrandNames.txt", "CategoryNames.txt", "ProductsSoldOut.txt", "Sales.txt"}; RecommendClient RecService = new RecommendClient(); for (int i = 0; i < fileList.Length; i++) { bool lastFile = (i == fileList.Length - 1); //start generator after last file try { string fileName = filePath + fileList[i]; if (!File.Exists(fileName)) continue; // file not found } // set up a file stream and binary reader for the selected file and convert to byte array FileStream fStream = new FileStream(fileName, FileMode.Open, FileAccess.Read); BinaryReader br = new BinaryReader(fStream); byte[] data = br.ReadBytes((int)numBytes); br.Close(); // pass byte array to the web service string result = RecService.UploadDataFile(clientAlias, fileList[i], data, lastFile); fStream.Close(); fStream.Dispose(); } catch (Exception ex) { // log an error message } } }

    Read the article

  • When to drop an IT job

    - by Nippysaurus
    In my career I have had two programming jobs. Both these jobs were in a field that I am most familiar with (C# / MSSQL) but I have quit both jobs for the same reason: unmanageable code and bad (loose) company structure. There was something in common with both these jobs: small companies (in one I was the only developer). Currently I am in the following position: being given written instructions which are almost impossible to follow (somewhat of a fools errand). we are given short time constraints, but seldom asked how long work will take, and when we do it is always too long and needs to be shorter (and when it ends up taking longer than they need it to take, it's always our fault). there is no time for proper documenting, but we get blamed for not documenting (see previous point). Management is constantly screwing me around, saying I'm underperforming on a given task (which is not true, and switching me to a task which is much more confusing). So I must ask my fellow developers: how bad does a job need to be before you would consider jumping ship? And what to look out for when considering taking a job. In future I will be asking about documented procedures, release control, bug management and adoption of new technologies. EDIT: Let me add some more fuel to the fire ... I have been in my current job for just over a year, and the work I am doing almost never uses any of the knowledge I have gained from the other work I have been doing here. Everything is a giant learning curve. Because of this about 30% of my time is learning what is going on with this new product (who's owner / original developer has left the company), 30% trying to find the relevant documentation that helps the whole thing make sense, 30% actually finding where to make the change, 10% actually making the change.

    Read the article

  • [AS3] Calling Php Script with UTF-8 POST variables

    - by kornelijepetak
    AS3 documentation says that Strings in AS3 are in UTF-16 format. There is a textbox on a Flash Clip where user can type some data. When a button is clicked, I want this data to be sent to a php script. I have everything set up, but it seems that the PHP script gets the data in UTF-16 format. The data in the database (which is utf-8) shows some unrecognizable characters (where special characters are used), meaning that the data has not been sent in a correct encoding. var variables:URLVariables=new URLVariables; var varSend:URLRequest=new URLRequest("http://website.com/systematic/accept.php"); varSend.method=URLRequestMethod.POST; varSend.data=variables; var varLoader:URLLoader=new URLLoader; varLoader.dataFormat=URLLoaderDataFormat.VARIABLES; varLoader.addEventListener(Event.COMPLETE, completeHandler); When submit button is clicked, the following handler gets executed. function sendData(event:MouseEvent) : void { // i guess here is the problem (tbName.text is UTF-16) variables.name = tbName.text; varLoader.load(varSend); } Is there any way to send the data so that PHP script gets the data in UTF-8 format? (PHP script is retrieving the value using the $_POST['name']).

    Read the article

  • JavaScript window object element properties

    - by Timothy
    A coworker showed me the following code and asked me why it worked. <span id="myspan">Do you like my hat?</span> <script type="text/javascript"> var spanElement = document.getElementById("myspan"); alert("Here I am! " + spanElement.innerHTML + "\n" + myspan.innerHTML); </script> I explained that a property is attached to the window object with the name of the element's id when the browser parses the document which then contains a reference to the appropriate dom node. It's sort of as if window.myspan = document.getElementById("myspan") is called behind the scenes as the page is being rendered. The ensuing discussion we had raised a few of questions: The window object and most of the DOM are not part of the official JavaScript/ECMA standards, but is the above behavior documented in any other official literature, perhaps browser-related? The above works in a browser (at least the main contenders) because there is a window object, but fails in something like rhino. Is writing code that relys on this considered bad practice because it makes too many assumptions about the execution environment? Are there any browsers in which the above would fail, or is this considered standard behavior across the board? Does anyone here know the answers to those questions and would be willing to enlighten me? I tried a quick internet search, but I admit I'm not sure how to even properly phrase the query. Pointers to references and documentation are welcome.

    Read the article

  • C++ wxWidgets Event (Focus) Handling

    - by Wallter
    Due to comments I added the following code (in BasicPanel) Connect(CTRL_ONE, wxEVT_KILL_FOCUS, (wxObjectEventFunction)&BasicPanel::OnKillFocus); Connect(CTRL_TWO,wxEVT_KILL_FOCUS, (wxObjectEventFunction)&BasicPanel::OnKillFocus); Connect(CTRL_THREE, wxEVT_KILL_FOCUS, (wxObjectEventFunction)&BasicPanel::OnKillFocus); Connect(CTRL_FOUR, wxEVT_KILL_FOCUS, (wxObjectEventFunction)&BasicPanel::OnKillFocus); Connect(CTRL_FIVE, wxEVT_KILL_FOCUS, (wxObjectEventFunction)&BasicPanel::OnKillFocus); (enums) CTRL_NAME = wxID_HIGHEST + 5, // 6004 CTRL_ADDRESS = wxID_HIGHEST + 6, // 6005 CTRL_PHONENUMBER = wxID_HIGHEST + 7, // 6006 CTRL_SS = wxID_HIGHEST + 8, // 6007 CTRL_EMPNUMBER = wxID_HIGHEST + 9 // 6008 (The OnKillFocus Function - the declaration is included as suggested) void BasicPanel::OnKillFocus(wxFocusEvent& event) { switch (event.GetId()) { case 6004: ... break; ... ... ... } All of these added to the code do nothing when the user changes focus on which text box they are using... Q1:I am using wxWidgets (C++) and have come accost a problem that i can not locate any help. I have created several wxTextCtrl boxes and would like the program to update the simple calculations in them when the user 'kills the focus.' I could not find any documentation on this subject on the wxWidgets webpage and Googling it only brought up wxPython. The two events i have found are: EVT_COMMAND_KILL_FOCUS - EVT_KILL_FOCUS for neither of which I could find any snippet for. Could anyone give me a short example or lead me to a page that would be helpful? Q2:Would i have to create an event to handle the focus being killed for each of my 8 wxTextCtrl boxes? In the case that i have to create a different event: How would i get each event to differentiate from each other? I know i will have to create new wxID's for each of the wxTextCtrl boxes but how do I get the correct one to be triggered? class BasicPanel : public wxPanel { ... wxTextCtrl* one; wxTextCtrl* two; wxTextCtrl* three; wxTextCtrl* four; ... }

    Read the article

  • [Cocoa] Placing an NSTimer in a separate thread

    - by ndg
    I'm trying to setup an NSTimer in a separate thread so that it continues to fire when users interact with the UI of my application. This seems to work, but Leaks reports a number of issues - and I believe I've narrowed it down to my timer code. Currently what's happening is that updateTimer tries to access an NSArrayController (timersController) which is bound to an NSTableView in my applications interface. From there, I grab the first selected row and alter its timeSpent column. From reading around, I believe what I should be trying to do is execute the updateTimer function on the main thread, rather than in my timers secondary thread. I'm posting here in the hopes that someone with more experience can tell me if that's the only thing I'm doing wrong. Having read Apple's documentation on Threading, I've found it an overwhelmingly large subject area. NSThread *timerThread = [[[NSThread alloc] initWithTarget:self selector:@selector(startTimerThread) object:nil] autorelease]; [timerThread start]; -(void)startTimerThread { NSAutoreleasePool *pool = [[NSAutoreleasePool alloc] init]; NSRunLoop *runLoop = [NSRunLoop currentRunLoop]; activeTimer = [[NSTimer scheduledTimerWithTimeInterval:1.0 target:self selector:@selector(updateTimer:) userInfo:nil repeats:YES] retain]; [runLoop run]; [pool release]; } -(void)updateTimer:(NSTimer *)timer { NSArray *selectedTimers = [timersController selectedObjects]; id selectedTimer = [selectedTimers objectAtIndex:0]; NSNumber *currentTimeSpent = [selectedTimer timeSpent]; [selectedTimer setValue:[NSNumber numberWithInt:[currentTimeSpent intValue]+1] forKey:@"timeSpent"]; } -(void)stopTimer { [activeTimer invalidate]; [activeTimer release]; }

    Read the article

  • Merge computed data from two tables back into one of them

    - by Tyler McHenry
    I have the following situation (as a reduced example). Two tables, Measures1 and Measures2, each of which store an ID, a Weight in grams, and optionally a Volume in fluid onces. (In reality, Measures1 has a good deal of other data that is irrelevant here) Contents of Measures1: +----+----------+--------+ | ID | Weight | Volume | +----+----------+--------+ | 1 | 100.0000 | NULL | | 2 | 200.0000 | NULL | | 3 | 150.0000 | NULL | | 4 | 325.0000 | NULL | +----+----------+--------+ Contents of Measures2: +----+----------+----------+ | ID | Weight | Volume | +----+----------+----------+ | 1 | 75.0000 | 10.0000 | | 2 | 400.0000 | 64.0000 | | 3 | 100.0000 | 22.0000 | | 4 | 500.0000 | 100.0000 | +----+----------+----------+ These tables describe equivalent weights and volumes of a substance. E.g. 10 fluid ounces of substance 1 weighs 75 grams. The IDs are related: ID 1 in Measures1 is the same substance as ID 1 in Measures2. What I want to do is fill in the NULL volumes in Measures1 using the information in Measures2, but keeping the weights from Measures1 (then, ultimately, I can drop the Measures2 table, as it will be redundant). For the sake of simplicity, assume that all volumes in Measures1 are NULL and all volumes in Measures2 are not. I can compute the volumes I want to fill in with the following query: SELECT Measures1.ID, Measures1.Weight, (Measures2.Volume * (Measures1.Weight / Measures2.Weight)) AS DesiredVolume FROM Measures1 JOIN Measures2 ON Measures1.ID = Measures2.ID; Producing: +----+----------+-----------------+ | ID | Weight | DesiredVolume | +----+----------+-----------------+ | 4 | 325.0000 | 65.000000000000 | | 3 | 150.0000 | 33.000000000000 | | 2 | 200.0000 | 32.000000000000 | | 1 | 100.0000 | 13.333333333333 | +----+----------+-----------------+ But I am at a loss for how to actually insert these computed values into the Measures1 table. Preferably, I would like to be able to do it with a single query, rather than writing a script or stored procedure that iterates through every ID in Measures1. But even then I am worried that this might not be possible because the MySQL documentation says that you can't use a table in an UPDATE query and a SELECT subquery at the same time, and I think any solution would need to do that. I know that one workaround might be to create a new table with the results of the above query (also selecting all of the other non-Volume fields in Measures1) and then drop both tables and replace Measures1 with the newly-created table, but I was wondering if there was any better way to do it that I am missing.

    Read the article

  • C# struct with object as data member

    - by source-energy
    As we know, in C# structs are passed by value, not by reference. So if I have a struct with the following data members: private struct MessageBox { // data members private DateTime dm_DateTimeStamp; // a struct type private TimeSpan dm_TimeSpanInterval; // also a struct private ulong dm_MessageID; // System.Int64 type, struct private String dm_strMessage; // an object (hence a reference is stored here) // more methods, properties, etc ... } So when a MessageBox is passed as a parameter, a COPY is made on the stack, right? What does that mean in terms of how the data members are copied? The first two are struct types, so copies should be made of DateTime and TimeSpan. The third type is a primitive, so it's also copied. But what about the dm_strMessage, which is a reference to an object? When it's copied, another reference to the same String is created, right? The object itself resides in the heap, and is NOT copied (there is only one instance of it on the heap.) So now we have to references to the same object of type String. If the two references are accessed from different threads, it's conceivable that the String object could be corrupted by being modified from two different directions simultaneously. The MSDN documentation says that System.String is thread safe. Does that mean that the String class has a built-in mechanism to prevent an object being corrupted in exactly the type of situation described here? I'm trying to figure out if my MessageBox struct has any potential flaws / pitfalls being a structure vs. a class. Thanks for any input. Source.Energy.

    Read the article

  • Multiple Facebook scripts?

    - by J Set
    This may be kind of a dumb question, but the script for the facebook button on the like button page is different from the script on the javascript sdk page, but similar. Did facebook just forget to update the documentation or do I need both scripts? The like button page gives: <div id="fb-root"></div> <script> (function(d, s, id) { var js, fjs = d.getElementsByTagName(s)[0]; if (d.getElementById(id)) return; js = d.createElement(s); js.id = id; js.src = "//connect.facebook.net/en_US/all.js#xfbml=1"; fjs.parentNode.insertBefore(js, fjs); }(document, 'script', 'facebook-jssdk'));</script> But on the javascript sdk page: <div id="fb-root"></div> <script> window.fbAsyncInit = function() { FB.init({ appId : 'YOUR_APP_ID', // App ID channelUrl : '//WWW.YOUR_DOMAIN.COM/channel.html', // Channel File status : true, // check login status cookie : true, // enable cookies to allow the server to access the session xfbml : true // parse XFBML }); // Additional initialization code here }; // Load the SDK Asynchronously (function(d){ var js, id = 'facebook-jssdk', ref = d.getElementsByTagName('script')[0]; if (d.getElementById(id)) {return;} js = d.createElement('script'); js.id = id; js.async = true; js.src = "//connect.facebook.net/en_US/all.js"; ref.parentNode.insertBefore(js, ref); }(document)); </script>

    Read the article

  • Stopping cookies being set from a domain (aka "cookieless domain") to increase site performance

    - by Django Reinhardt
    I was reading in Google's documentation about improving site speed. One of their recommendations is serving static content (images, css, js, etc.) from a "cookieless domain": Static content, such as images, JS and CSS files, don't need to be accompanied by cookies, as there is no user interaction with these resources. You can decrease request latency by serving static resources from a domain that doesn't serve cookies. Google then says that the best way to do this is to buy a new domain and set it to point to your current one: To reserve a cookieless domain for serving static content, register a new domain name and configure your DNS database with a CNAME record that points the new domain to your existing domain A record. Configure your web server to serve static resources from the new domain, and do not allow any cookies to be set anywhere on this domain. In your web pages, reference the domain name in the URLs for the static resources. This is pretty straight forward stuff, except for the bit where it says to "configure your web server to serve static resources from the new domain, and do not allow any cookies to be set anywhere on this domain". From what I've read, there's no setting in IIS that allows you to say "serve static resources", so how do I prevent ASP.NET from setting cookies on this new domain? At present, even if I'm just requesting a .jpg from the new domain, it sets a cookie on my browser, even though our application's cookies are set to our old domain. For example, ASP.NET sets an ".ASPXANONYMOUS" cookie that (as far as I'm aware) we're not telling it to do. Apologies if this is a real newb question, I'm new at this! Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Why is TRest in Tuple<T1... TRest> not constrained?

    - by Anthony Pegram
    In a Tuple, if you have more than 7 items, you can provide an 8th item that is another tuple and define up to 7 items, and then another tuple as the 8th and on and on down the line. However, there is no constraint on the 8th item at compile time. For example, this is legal code for the compiler: var tuple = new Tuple<int, int, int, int, int, int, int, double> (1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1, 1d); Even though the intellisense documentation says that TRest must be a Tuple. You do not get any error when writing or building the code, it does not manifest until runtime in the form of an ArgumentException. You can roughly implement a Tuple in a few minutes, complete with a Tuple-constrained 8th item. I just wonder why it was left off the current implementation? Is it possibly a forward-compatibility issue where they could add more elements with a hypothetical C# 5? Short version of rough implementation interface IMyTuple { } class MyTuple<T1> : IMyTuple { public T1 Item1 { get; private set; } public MyTuple(T1 item1) { Item1 = item1; } } class MyTuple<T1, T2> : MyTuple<T1> { public T2 Item2 { get; private set; } public MyTuple(T1 item1, T2 item2) : base(item1) { Item2 = item2; } } class MyTuple<T1, T2, TRest> : MyTuple<T1, T2> where TRest : IMyTuple { public TRest Rest { get; private set; } public MyTuple(T1 item1, T2 item2, TRest rest) : base(item1, item2) { Rest = rest; } } ... var mytuple = new MyTuple<int, int, MyTuple<int>>(1, 1, new MyTuple<int>(1)); // legal var mytuple2 = new MyTuple<int, int, int>(1, 2, 3); // illegal

    Read the article

  • Using Dispose on a Singleton to Cleanup Resources

    - by ImperialLion
    The question I have might be more to do with semantics than with the actual use of IDisposable. I am working on implementing a singleton class that is in charge of managing a database instance that is created during the execution of the application. When the application closes this database should be deleted. Right now I have this delete being handled by a Cleanup() method of the singleton that the application calls when it is closing. As I was writing the documentation for Cleanup() it struck me that I was describing what a Dispose() method should be used for i.e. cleaning up resources. I had originally not implemented IDisposable because it seemed out of place in my singleton, because I didn't want anything to dispose the singleton itself. There isn't currently, but in the future might be a reason that this Cleanup() might be called but the singleton should will need to still exist. I think I can include GC.SuppressFinalize(this); in the Dispose method to make this feasible. My question therefore is multi-parted: 1) Is implementing IDisposable on a singleton fundamentally a bad idea? 2) Am I just mixing semantics here by having a Cleanup() instead of a Dispose() and since I'm disposing resources I really should use a dispose? 3) Will implementing 'Dispose()' with GC.SuppressFinalize(this); make it so my singleton is not actually destroyed in the case I want it to live after a call to clean-up the database.

    Read the article

  • Intel MKL memory management and exceptions

    - by Andrew
    Hello everyone, I am trying out Intel MKL and it appears that they have their own memory management (C-style). They suggest using their MKL_malloc/MKL_free pairs for vectors and matrices and I do not know what is a good way to handle it. One of the reasons for that is that memory-alignment is recommended to be at least 16-byte and with these routines it is specified explicitly. I used to rely on auto_ptr and boost::smart_ptr a lot to forget about memory clean-ups. How can I write an exception-safe program with MKL memory management or should I just use regular auto_ptr's and not bother? Thanks in advance. EDIT http://software.intel.com/sites/products/documentation/hpc/mkl/win/index.htm this link may explain why I brought up the question UPDATE I used an idea from the answer below for allocator. This is what I have now: template <typename T, size_t TALIGN=16, size_t TBLOCK=4> class aligned_allocator : public std::allocator<T> { public: pointer allocate(size_type n, const void *hint) { pointer p = NULL; size_t count = sizeof(T) * n; size_t count_left = count % TBLOCK; if( count_left != 0 ) count += TBLOCK - count_left; if ( !hint ) p = reinterpret_cast<pointer>(MKL_malloc (count,TALIGN)); else p = reinterpret_cast<pointer>(MKL_realloc((void*)hint,count,TALIGN)); return p; } void deallocate(pointer p, size_type n){ MKL_free(p); } }; If anybody has any suggestions, feel free to make it better.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 356 357 358 359 360 361 362 363 364 365 366 367  | Next Page >