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  • ASP.NET MVC Ajax.BeginForm eats params of submit button clicked. Looks like bug.

    - by RonnBlack
    If you are using Ajax.BeginForm() with multiple submit buttons similar to this: // View.aspx <% using (Ajax.BeginForm("Action", "Controller", new AjaxOptions { UpdateTargetId = "MyControl", })) { %> <span id="MyControl"> <% Html.RenderPartial("MyControl"); %> </span> <% } %> //MyControl.ascx <%@ Control Language="C#" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewUserControl" %> <input name="prev" type="submit" value="prev" /> <input name="next" type="submit" value="next" /> //... Everything is submitted to the controller fine but the params for the submit button that was clicked are absent from the Request. In otherwords Request["next"] and Request["prev"] are always null. I looked in to the JavaScript in Microsoft.MvcAjax.js and it looks like the function Sys_Mvc_MvcHelpers$_serializeForm completely skips over the inputs that are of type 'submit'. This doesn't seem logical at all. How else can you find out what button has been clicked? It looks like a bug to me. Is there any logical reason to skip these form parameters?

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  • How to get aspnet_Users.UserId for an anonymous user in ASP.NET membership ?

    - by Simon_Weaver
    I am trying to get the aspnet membership UserId field from an anonymous user. I have enabled anonymous identification in web.config : <anonymousIdentification enabled="true" /> I have also created a profile: <profile> <providers> <clear /> <add name="AspNetSqlProfileProvider" type="System.Web.Profile.SqlProfileProvider, System.Web, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b03f5f7f11d50a3a" connectionStringName="ApplicationServices" applicationName="/" /> </providers> <properties> <add name="Email" type="System.String" allowAnonymous="true"/> <add name="SomethingElse" type="System.Int32" allowAnonymous="true"/> </properties> </profile> I see data in my aspnetdb\aspnet_Users table for anonymous users that have had profile information set. Userid PropertyNames PropertyValuesString 36139818-4245-45dd-99cb-2a721d43f9c5 Email:S:0:17: [email protected] I just need to find how to get the 'Userid' value. It is not possible to use : Membership.Provider.GetUser(Request.AnonymousID, false); The Request.AnonymousID is a different GUID and not equal to 36139818-4245-45dd-99cb-2a721d43f9c5. Is there any way to get this Userid. I want to associate it with incomplete activity for an anonymous user. Using the primary key of aspnet_Users is preferable to having to create my own GUID (which I could do and store in the profile). This is basically a dupe of this question but the question was never actually answered.

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  • This 404 seems unavoidable - what am I doing wrong? [Ninject 2.0 with ASP.NET MVC 2 on .NET 4]

    - by Tomas Lycken
    I downloaded the fairly new Ninject 2.0 and Ninject.Web.Mvc (targeting mvc2) sources today, and successfully built them against .NET 4 (release configuration). When trying to run an application using Ninject 2.0, i keep getting 404 errors and I can't figure out why. This is my global.asax.cs (slightly shortified, for brevity): using ... using Ninject; using Ninject.Web.Mvc; using Ninject.Modules; namespace Booking.Web { public class MvcApplication : NinjectHttpApplication { protected override void OnApplicationStarted() { Booking.Models.AutoMapperBootstrapper.Initialize(); RegisterAllControllersIn(Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly()); base.OnApplicationStarted(); } protected void RegisterRoutes(RouteCollection routes) { ... routes.MapRoute( "Default", "{controller}/{action}/{id}", new { controller = "Entry", action = "Index", id = "" } ); } protected override IKernel CreateKernel() { INinjectModule[] mods = new INinjectModule[] {...}; return new StandardKernel(mods); } } } The EntryController exists, and has an Index method that simply does a return View(). I have debugged, and verified that the call to RegisterAllControllersIn() is executed. I have also tried to use Phil Haacks Routing debugger but I still get a 404. What do I do to find the cause of this?

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  • How to handle relative paths in ASP.NET MVC?

    - by AngryHacker
    I have a master page which references a style in the following manner: <link rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" href="../../Content/Style.css" /> All my pages inherit from this master page. And this works well when the URL is http://www.domain.com/home/details/5, however the URL is http://www.domain.com/home/create, then, of course, Style.css cannot be found because `../../Content/Style.css' resolves to a directory one higher where there is nothing there. How is this typically handled?

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  • How to handle CSS relative paths in an ASP.NET MVC application.

    - by AngryHacker
    I have a master page, which has a style sheet, which has the following line: .idle { background-image: url( '../../Images/blue_bg.png' ); } All my pages inherit from this master page. And this works well when the URL is http://www.domain.com/home/details/5, however the URL is http://www.domain.com/home/create, then, of course, blue_bg.png cannot be found because `../../Images/blue_bg.png' resolves to a directory one higher where there is nothing there. I tried the trick suggested by @codemeit in a similar question, but I can't plop down C# in a style sheet, can I? How is this typically handled?

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  • How can I disable keep-alive on ASP.NET Web Service client requests?

    - by Matthew Brindley
    I have a few web servers behind an Amazon EC2 load balancer. I'm using TCP balancing on port 80 (rather than HTTP balancing). I have a client polling a Web Service (running on all web servers) for new items every few seconds. However, the client seems to stay connected to one server and polls that same server each time. I've tried using ServicePointManager to disable KeepAlive, but that didn't change anything. The outgoing connection still had its "connection: keep-alive" HTTP header, and the server kept the TCP connection open. I've also tried adding an override of GetWebRequest to the proxy class created by VS, which inherits from SoapHttpClientProtocol, but I still see the keep-alive header. If I kill the client's process and restart, it'll connect to a new server via the load balancer, but it'll continue polling that new server forever. Is there a way to force it to connect to a random server each time? I want the load from the one client to be spread across all of the web servers. The client is written in C# (as is the server) and uses a Web Reference (not a Service Reference), which points to the load balancer.

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  • How to retain the values of the filters and its result using asp.net c#?

    - by user144842
    Question:- Page is a typical search page with few filters on it. When search for records based on filters, it shows result in Gridview. From grid view records, user can click on any record to see the details which takes the focus on new page. Its working fine so far. Now when user comes back from details page to search page. I am loosing selected filters values and no result in grid view. How can i display selected filters and its results in gridview when user is coming back on search page? Any example etc.? FYI, I am using sessions to pass parameters to the ObjectDatasource.

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  • asp.net mvc client side validation; manually calling validation via javascript for ajax posts

    - by Jopache
    Under the built in client side validation (Microsoft mvc validation in mvc 2) using data annotations, when you try to submit a form and the fields are invalid, you will get the red validation summary next to the fields and the form will not post. However, I am using jquery form plugin to intercept the submit action on that form and doing the post via ajax. This is causing it to ignore validation; the red text shows up; but the form posts anyways. Is there an easy way to manually call the validation via javascript when I'm submitting the form? I am still kind of a javascript n00b. I tried googling it with no results and looking through the js source code makes my head hurt trying to figure it out. Or would you all recommend that I look in to some other validation framework? I liked the idea of jquery validate; but would like to define my validation requirements only in my viewmodel. Any experiences with xval or anything of the sort?

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  • ASP.NET MVC: How to allow some HTML mark-up in Html Encoded content?

    - by Dr. Zim
    Is there some magic existing code in MVC 2 to Html.Encode() strings and allow certain html markup, like paragraph marks and breaks? (coming from a Linq to SQL database field) A horrible code example to achieve the effect: Html.Encode(Model.fieldName).Replace("&lt;br /&gt;", "<br />") What would be really nice is to overload something and pass to it an array (or object) full of allowed html tags.

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  • VS2008 asp.net spits out gibberish, possibly wrong encoding issue.

    - by Edward M Meshuris
    Hello, I have inherited a project, it was originally written in VS2005. I have made a few changes, but all are design. Now when I run the project using the visual studio's web server, in IE8, the page shows up just fine, however in FireFox 3.6.3, I get gibberish (a full page of this): ?I?%&/m?{J?J??t??$?@?????iG#)?*??eVe]f@?? ??{???{??;?N'????\fdl??J??!????~|?"~???????7????t?.???WO???? m???{'w?}?4??????x'}??W?{???G?G?]=?{???j|uo\?w???Pv??? My setup: Windows 7 Proffesional (All patches) VS2008 SP1 (I think all patches) Thank you for your help! -Edward

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  • Why do ASP.NET applications appear to be running in a terminal server session?

    - by Heinzi
    Running the following ASPX page (IIS 6, Server 2003 R2) <%@ Page Language="vb" AutoEventWireup="false" %> <% Response.Write("Am I running in a terminal server session: " & _ System.Windows.Forms.SystemInformation.TerminalServerSession) %> yields the following output: Am I running in a terminal server session: True Why? IIS is running as a service, not as a Terminal Services application... (BTW, according to Reflector, SystemInformation.TerminalServerSession is just a wrapper for GetSystemMetrics(SM_REMOTESESSION).)

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  • In ASP.NET MVC, why wouldn't I tack on HandleError on a base controller and be done with it?

    - by Jiho Han
    Since HandleError is inherited by the derived Controllers, why wouldn't I just create (or have) a base controller, and apply HandleError on it so that any controllers that inherits from the base controller will automatically be handled as well? And then I would tack on overriding HandleError on controllers and individual actions. Can anyone think of any reason why I wouldn't want to apply HandleError to the base controller?

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  • Duplicate content in ASP.NET MVC because of custom routes MapRoute(), are areas the rescue?

    - by artvolk
    I use custom routes for my URLs and my action become accessible via two URLs (not counting trailing slash and lower\upper case letters): one via my custom route /my-custom-route-url/ and one via default /controller/action. I see one possible solution -- put all controllers which use default routing (they are mostly backend) in one area, and place all others in separate area and use it without default route. May be there is a better way?

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  • ASP .NET Login Session How to destroy session object when logging out from Home Page??

    - by Vinodh Kumar
    I have created a website. I login with username and password and after authenticating i redirect the user to Home Page. When the user clicks Logout, they are redirected to the Login Page. But after this when i click the BACK button on the browser, it again goes back to the Home Page with that user's login credentials. I have used Session["username"]=null in the Page_Load function of Home Page. How to avoid going back to the Home Page when the BACK button is clicked by the User??

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  • How to perform two-way data binding of controls in a user control inside a FormView

    - by Sandor Drieënhuizen
    I'm trying to perform two-way data binding on the controls in my user control, which is hosted inside a FormView template. FormView: <asp:ObjectDataSource runat="server" ID="ObjectDataSource" TypeName="WebApplication1.Data" SelectMethod="GetItem" UpdateMethod="UpdateItem"> </asp:ObjectDataSource> <asp:FormView runat="server" ID="FormView" DataSourceID="ObjectDataSource"> <ItemTemplate> <uc:WebUserControl1 runat="server"></uc:WebUserControl1> </ItemTemplate> <EditItemTemplate> <uc:WebUserControl1 runat="server"></uc:WebUserControl1> </EditItemTemplate> </asp:FormView> User control: <%@ Control Language="C#" ... %> <asp:TextBox runat="server" ID="TitleTextBox" Text='<%# Bind("Title") %>'> </asp:TextBox> The binding works fine when the FormView is in View mode but when I switch to Edit mode, upon calling UpdateItem on the FormView, the bindings are lost. I know this because the FormView tries to call an update method on the ObjectDataSource that does not have an argument called 'Title'. I tried to solve this by implementing IBindableTemplate to load the controls that are inside my user control, directly into the templates (just like I had entered them declaratively like in the code above). However, when calling UpdateItem in edit mode, the container that gets passed into the ExtractValues method of the template, does not contain the TextBox anymore. It did in view mode! I have found some questions on SO that relate to this problem but they are rather dated and they don't provide any answers that helped me solve this problem. How do you think I could solve this problem? It seems to be such a simple requirement but apparently it's more like opening a can of worms...

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  • How to create custom asp.net validator that works with UpdatePanel?

    - by Goran
    I think that subject summs it pretty well... I have created my custom validators that work great when I put them on page in design mode. However if I place them in a usercontrol, and then try to add this user control to the parent page via updatepanel, then my custom validators just won't trigger. They simply don't work. Does anyone have any clue on what I have to do here? .net 3.5

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  • ASP.NET MVC 2.0 RTM cannot work with VWD 2008 Express on a new Windows 7 Pro

    - by silent
    The MVC 2.0 RTM works great on my old Vista computer with VWD 2008 Express, but I just bought a new computer with Windows 7 Pro, I installed VWD 2008 Express SP1 and MVC 2.0 RTM by using Web PI 2.0. but after installation, I found the VWD doesn't have any MVC options, that means I can't either create new MVC projects or compile existing MVC projects. Why? What other steps I need to do to make it work? I'm sure the MVC has been installed properly since my MVC site on the new computer works well (so the IIS side has no problem), just the VWD can't 'realize' that the MVC framework is already installed... (tried to uninstall and install many times, and I also tried to install MVC separately without Web PI, but it just won't work)

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  • jqgrid ASP.NET MVC -- getting data right for the grid.

    - by SamM09
    Here is my dilemma, I have not been able to manipulate my data to a form fitting to jqgrid standards. This is my first time using the jqgrid and I've spent a lot of time reading up on it. My js code is as follows: jQuery("#list").jqGrid({ url: '/Home/ListContacts/', dataType: "json", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", mtype: 'POST', colNames: ['First Name', 'MI', 'Last Name'], colModel: [ { name: 'First Name', index: 'FName', width: 40, align: 'left' }, { name: 'MI', index: 'MInitial', width: 40, align: 'left' }, { name: 'Last Name', index: 'LName', width: 400, align: 'left'}], pager: jQuery('#pager'), rowNum: 10, rowList: [5, 10, 20, 50], sortname: 'Id', sortorder: "desc", repeatitems: false, viewrecords: true, imgpath: '/scripts/themes/basic/images', caption: 'My first grid' }); }); what im getting from the database: [["4","Jenna","Mccarthy"],["56","wer","weoiru"]] Now correct me if I am wrong, but the index: in my colModel refers to the column names in my database right? Could someone point to a reference that is straight forward or just start me off with this I would be most grateful.

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  • UpdatePanel with GridView with LinkButton with Image Causes Full Postback

    - by Chris
    So this might be a fairly specific issue but I figured I'd post it since I spent hours struggling with it before I was able to determine the cause. <asp:GridView ID="gvAttachments" DataKeyNames="UploadedID" AutoGenerateColumns="false" OnSelectedIndexChanged="gvAttachments_SelectedIndexChanged" runat="server"> <EmptyDataTemplate>There are no attachments associated to this email template.</EmptyDataTemplate> <Columns> <asp:TemplateField ItemStyle-Width="100%"> <ItemTemplate> <asp:LinkButton CommandName="Select" runat="server"><img src="/images/icons/trashcan.png" style="border: none;" /></asp:LinkButton> </ItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateField> </Columns> In the ItemTemplate of the TemplateField of the GridView I have a LinkButton with an image inside of it. Normally I do this when I have an image with some text next to it but this time, for whatever reason, I just have the image. This causes the UpdatePanel to always do a full postback. SOLUTION: Change that LinkButton to be an ImageButton and the problem is solved. <asp:ImageButton ImageUrl="/images/icons/trashcan.png" Style="border: none;" CommandName="Select" runat="server" />

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  • How to Open a Remote Text File using Server.MapPath in ASP.Net?

    - by NJTechGuy
    This is what I have right now for a file residing on the same server and it works. Dim FILENAME as String = Server.MapPath("Output.txt") Dim objStreamWriter as StreamWriter objStreamWriter = File.CreateText(FILENAME) dr = myCommand.ExecuteReader() While dr.Read() objStreamWriter.WriteLine("{0}|{1}|{2:yyyy-MM-dd}|{3:yyyy-MM-dd}", dr(0), dr(1), dr(2), dr(3)) End While objStreamWriter.Close() I was planning on FTPing the file to another server once done but is there a way to do it on a remote server? i.e create a text file on a remote server and write to it? Did not find any instances of that usage. How to use ServerXMLHTTP to replace Server.MapPath in this instance? Thank you so much for your time.

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  • Does the asp.net RoleManager really cache the roles for a user in a cookie if so configured?

    - by Ralph Shillington
    In my web.config I have the Role Manager configured as follows: <roleManager enabled="true" cacheRolesInCookie="true" cookieName=".ASPROLES" cookieTimeout="30" cookiePath="/" cookieRequireSSL="false" cookieSlidingExpiration="true" cookieProtection="All"> however in our custom RoleProvider it would seems that the GetRolesForUser method is always being called, rather than as I would have expected, the RoleManager serving up the roles from its cookie. We're using something like to get the roles for a user: string[] myroles = Role.GetRolesForUser("myuser"); Is there something that I'm missing in the configuration, or in the use of the RoleManager Thanks in advance

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