Search Results

Search found 28563 results on 1143 pages for 'strange but true'.

Page 363/1143 | < Previous Page | 359 360 361 362 363 364 365 366 367 368 369 370  | Next Page >

• ORA-01019 error only as an administrator

  - by Mike

  I'm having a strange problem. I've installed the Oracle 10g client on a terminal server running Windows Server 2008R2. When I try to connect to Oracle, using, say, Toad, I receive the error "ORA-01019 unable to allocate memory in the user side". But this only happens if I'm logged in as an administrator. If I connect as a normal user, I can connect without issue. Also -- if a normal user is connected, I can then connect without a problem as an administrator. Any thoughts?

  Read the article

• Windows 7 safe mode pretends it's Windows XP?

  - by Joachim Kerschbaumer

  Just a question in between. A friend of mine brought me a laptop that does not work anymore and wanted me to check whether I can do something. She told me it's Windows 7, and startup screen and login screen look like it. However, as she gets a bluescreen on startup it is only possible to boot in safe mode where the system pretends to be Windows XP SP3. The system also may have 1 GB of RAM but the system itself states that it has 954 MB of RAM which is a value I've never seen before. Is everything corrupt from operating system to hardware, or am I just a newbie that does not know that Windows 7 pretends to be Windows XP SP3 in safe mode? Or is this laptop just the victim of an illegal, crazy copy of Windows XP sold as Windows 7? Maybe some strange Chinese stuff? I also recognized that the startup screen of Outlook Express reads "Outllok Express" (no typo) I´m kind of confused, maybe someone could put light into this ;)

  Read the article

• Post method in Servlet is not being called again after being executed once

  - by SaurabhCsIITKgp

  I am implementing a database based web application using servlets. Now, when I input a parameter using a form in the jsp page, it redirects it to a servlet which subsequently adds the value to the database (the servlet creates a new table if the table doesn't already exist). The creation of the table and the addition of value works fine if the table doesn't already exists. Once it is created however and the parameter is inputted again in the form, the submit button no longer redirects it to the servlet. Nor is the value added to the database. Kindly advise me as to where I am going wrong. Following are the snippets of my code: From the JSP page (/showmanager is the urlpattern of the servlet): <form action="showmanager" method="post"> <h3>Enter name of the show: </h3> <input type="text" name="showname" value=""> <input type="hidden" name="task" value="addshow" /> <input type="button" value="Add Show"> </form> From the servlet (POST method): p rotected void doPost(HttpServletRequest request, HttpServletResponse response) throws ServletException, IOException { if(request.getParameter("task").equals("addshow")){ this.addShow(request.getParameter("showname")); response.sendRedirect("showmanager.jsp"); } } Method to add in database: protected boolean addShow(String showname){ try{ statement =con.prepareStatement("INSERT INTO showdb10(name) VALUES ('"+showname+"')"); if(statement.executeUpdate()>0){ return true; } } catch(Exception e) { try{ statement =con.prepareStatement("create table showdb10 (id int NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT, name varchar(255) NOT NULL, date varchar(20),time varchar(20), b_total int, o_total int, b_avbl int, o_avbl int, b_price double(10,2), o_price double(10,2), seat_no varchar(20), transaction_id varchar(255), total_sales double(10,2), paymnt_artists double(10,2), paymnt_othr double(10,2), flag varchar(20), PRIMARY KEY(id))"); statement.executeUpdate(); statement =con.prepareStatement("INSERT INTO showdb10(name) VALUES ('"+showname+"')"); if(statement.executeUpdate()>0){ return true; } }catch(Exception e2){} } return false; }

  Read the article

• Windows Forms: Unable to Click to Focus a MaskedTextBox in a Non TopLevel Form

  - by Overhed

  Like the title says, I've got a Child form being shown with it's TopLevel property set to False and I am unable to click a MaskedTextBox control that it contains (in order to bring focus to it). I can bring focus to it by using TAB on the keyboard though. The child form contains other regular TextBox controls and these I can click to focus with no problems, although they also exhibit some odd behavior: for example if I've got a value in the Textbox and I try to drag-click from the end of the string to the beginning, nothing happens. In fact I can't use my mouse to move the cursor inside the TextBox's text at all (although they keyboard arrow keys work). I'm not too worried about the odd TextBox behavior, but why can't I activate my MaskedTextBox by clicking on it? Below is the code that shows the form: Dim newReportForm As New Form Dim formName As String Dim FullTypeName As String Dim FormInstanceType As Type formName = TreeView1.SelectedNode.Name FullTypeName = Application.ProductName & "." & formName FormInstanceType = Type.GetType(FullTypeName, True, True) newReportForm = CType(Activator.CreateInstance(FormInstanceType), Form) Try newReportForm.Top = CType(SplitContainer1.Panel2.Controls(0), Form).Top + 25 newReportForm.Left = CType(SplitContainer1.Panel2.Controls(0), Form).Left + 25 Catch End Try newReportForm.TopLevel = False newReportForm.Parent = SplitContainer1.Panel2 newReportForm.BringToFront() newReportForm.Show()

  Read the article

• Using C#, can you drag a canvas in WPF?

  - by TERACytE

  Can you drag a canvas in WPF? How do you set the position of the canvas? Here is what I got so far: /// xaml <Window x:Class="TestApp.MainWindow" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" Height="350" Width="525" WindowStyle="None" ResizeMode="NoResize" AllowsTransparency="True" Background="Transparent" Loaded="MainWindow_Loaded"> <Canvas Name="ParentCanvas" Background="#FF6E798D"> </Canvas> </Window> /// code behind public partial class MainWindow : Window { private Boolean isMouseCapture; public MainWindow() { InitializeComponent(); } void MainWindow_Loaded(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { this.ParentCanvas.MouseLeftButtonDown += new MouseButtonEventHandler(_MouseLeftButtonDown); this.ParentCanvas.MouseLeftButtonUp += new MouseButtonEventHandler(_MouseLeftButtonUp); this.ParentCanvas.MouseMove += new MouseEventHandler(_MouseMove); } void _MouseLeftButtonUp(object sender, MouseButtonEventArgs e) { this.ParentCanvas.ReleaseMouseCapture(); isMouseCapture = false; } void _MouseLeftButtonDown(object sender, MouseButtonEventArgs e) { this.ParentCanvas.CaptureMouse(); isMouseCapture = true; } void _MouseMove(object sender, MouseEventArgs e) { if (isMouseCapture) { this.ParentCanvas.X= e.GetPosition(this).X; this.ParentCanvas.Y = e.GetPosition(this).Y; } } } 'X' is not a property of Canvas (i.e."this.ParentCanvas.X"). What do I use to set the position?

  Read the article

• Remove padding in wxPython's wxWizard

  - by mridang

  Hi Guys, I'm using wxPython to create a wizard using the wxWizard control. I'm trying to a draw a colored rectangle but when I run the app, there seems to be a about a 10px padding on each side of the rectangle. This goes for all other controls too. I have to offset them a bit so that they appear exactly where I want them to. Is there any way I could remove this padding? Here's the source of my base Wizard page. class SimplePage(wx.wizard.PyWizardPage): """ Simple wizard page with unlimited rows of text. """ def __init__(self, parent, title): wx.wizard.PyWizardPage.__init__(self, parent) self.next = self.prev = None #self.sizer = wx.BoxSizer(wx.VERTICAL) title = wx.StaticText(self, -1, title) title.SetFont(wx.Font(18, wx.SWISS, wx.NORMAL, wx.BOLD)) #self.sizer.AddWindow(title, 0, wx.ALIGN_LEFT|wx.ALL, padding) #self.sizer.AddWindow(wx.StaticLine(self, -1), 0, wx.EXPAND|wx.ALL, padding) # self.SetSizer(self.sizer) self.Bind(wx.EVT_PAINT, self.OnPaint) def OnPaint(self, evt): """set up the device context (DC) for painting""" self.dc = wx.PaintDC(self) self.dc.BeginDrawing() self.dc.SetPen(wx.Pen("grey",style=wx.TRANSPARENT)) self.dc.SetBrush(wx.Brush("grey", wx.SOLID)) # set x, y, w, h for rectangle self.dc.DrawRectangle(0,0,500, 500) self.dc.EndDrawing() del self.dc def SetNext(self, next): self.next = next def SetPrev(self, prev): self.prev = prev def GetNext(self): return self.next def GetPrev(self): return self.prev def Activated(self, evt): """ Executed when page is being activated. """ return def Blocked(self, evt): """ Executed when page is about to be switched. Switching can be blocked by returning True. """ return False def Cancel(self, evt): """ Executed when wizard is about to be canceled. Canceling can be blocked by returning False. """ return True Thanks guys.

  Read the article

• Simple description of worker and I/O threads in .NET

  - by Konstantin

  It's very hard to find detailed but simple description of worker and I/O threads in .NET What's clear to me regarding this topic (but may not be technically precise): Worker threads are threads that should employ CPU for their work; I/O threads (also called "completion port threads") should employ device drivers for their work and essentially "do nothing", only monitor the completion of non-CPU operations. What is not clear: Although method ThreadPool.GetAvailableThreads returns number of available threads of both types, it seems there is no public API to schedule work for I/O thread. You can only manually create worker thread in .NET? It seems that single I/O thread can monitor multiple I/O operations. Is it true? If so, why ThreadPool has so many available I/O threads by default? In some texts I read that callback, triggered after I/O operation completion is performed by I/O thread. Is it true? Isn’t this a job for worker thread, considering that this callback is CPU operation? To be more specific – do ASP.NET asynchronous pages user I/O threads? What exactly is performance benefit in switching I/O work to separate thread instead of increasing maximum number of worker threads? Is it because single I/O thread does monitor multiple operations? Or Windows does more efficient context switching when using I/O threads?

  Read the article

• Firefox/vista not showing div tag

  - by flavour404

  Hi, I have a div tag which should be displayed at the bottom of a page given a set of circumstances. On my machine XP/IE, chrome, firefox, opera (all latest versions) the div shows up fine. But on my bosses machine, running vista with Firefox 3.6 for some reason the div tag is not showing up. However, if i go to another machine with vista and firefox the div tag shows up fine. My question is, what could have been set in firefox that would cause this div tag to now be displayed. It is there, if you resize the window then the tag flickers into view and then disappears again... <div id="savePane" style="position:absolute;left:0px;top:457px;width:100%;height:40px;border-top:#EFECDC 1px solid;padding:5px; visibility:visible;"> <table width="100%"> <tr> <td width="130" align="left"> Ad Description: </td> <td align="left"> <input type="text" id="adDescription" style="width: 270px" onfocus="skipcycle=true;loadThumbnail(<%=AdToSaveID%>);" onblur="skipcycle=false;"> </td> <td align="right"> <% 'onblur='skipcycle=false' onfocus='skipcycle=true' is needed to do not focus on SaveToFolder window when user enter data to that window but focus on that input box instead %> <input type="button" onclick="saveItemToSelectedFolder('<%=AdToSaveID%>', '<%=AdNumber%>', '<%=Sequencer%>', '<%=PageNumber%>', '<%=Section%>', '<%=Zone%>', '<%=RunDate%>', '<%=PublicationID%>')" value="Save" style="width: 70px; margin-right: 10px" /> </td> </tr> </table> Thanks, Ron.

  Read the article

• How do I insert a newline within a long formula using OpenOffice.org Math?

  - by Lekensteyn

  I've the following formula: (x^6+x^4+x^2+x+1)(x^7+x+1) = x^13+x^11+x^9+x^8+x^7+ x^7+x^5+x^3+x^3+x^2+x+ x^6+x^4+x^2+x+1 = x^13+x^11+x^9+x^8+2x^7+x^6+x^5+x^4+2x^3+2x^2+2x+1 Putting this in OpenOffice.org Math causes every line be concatenated, which I want to avoid. I've already tried putting newline between the lines, but it adds a strange question mark in the formula. Using matrices did not work for me either. I want to achieve a nicely formatted formula like this one (taken from FIPS 197 pdf):

  Read the article

• called function A(args) calls a function B() which then calls a function A(args), How to do that?

  - by Ken

  See example: <!DOCTYPE html> <html> <head> <title>language</title> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://www.google.com/jsapi"> </script> </head> <body> <div id="language"></div> <script type="text/javascript"> var loaded = false; function load_api() { google.load("language", "1", { "nocss": true, "callback": function() { loaded = true; callback_to_caller(with_caller_agruments); // how to call a function (with the same arguments) which called load_api() ??? // case 1 should be: detect_language('testing'); // case 2 should be: translate('some text'); } }); } function detect_language(text) { if (!loaded) { load_api(); } else { // let's continue... believe that google.language is loaded & ready to use google.language.detect(text, function(result) { if (!result.error && result.language) { document.getElementById('language').innerHTML = result.language; } }); } } function translate(text) { if (!loaded) { load_api(); } else { // let's continue... } } detect_language('testing'); // case 1 translate('some text'); // case 2 </script> </body> </html>

  Read the article

• Excel Automation Addin UDFs not accesible

  - by Eric

  I created the following automation addin: namespace AutomationAddin { [Guid("6652EC43-B48C-428a-A32A-5F2E89B9F305")] [ClassInterface(ClassInterfaceType.AutoDual)] [ComVisible(true)] public class MyFunctions { public MyFunctions() { } #region UDFs public string ToUpperCase(string input) { return input.ToUpper(); } #endregion [ComRegisterFunctionAttribute] public static void RegisterFunction(Type type) { Registry.ClassesRoot.CreateSubKey( GetSubKeyName(type, "Programmable")); RegistryKey key = Registry.ClassesRoot.OpenSubKey( GetSubKeyName(type, "InprocServer32"), true); key.SetValue("", System.Environment.SystemDirectory + @"\mscoree.dll", RegistryValueKind.String); } [ComUnregisterFunctionAttribute] public static void UnregisterFunction(Type type) { Registry.ClassesRoot.DeleteSubKey( GetSubKeyName(type, "Programmable"), false); } private static string GetSubKeyName(Type type, string subKeyName) { System.Text.StringBuilder s = new System.Text.StringBuilder(); s.Append(@"CLSID\{"); s.Append(type.GUID.ToString().ToUpper()); s.Append(@"}\"); s.Append(subKeyName); return s.ToString(); } } } I build it and it registers just fine. I open excel 2003, go to tools-Add-ins, click on the automation button and the addin appears in the list. I add it and it shows up in the addins list. but, the functions themselves don't appear. If I type it in it doesn't work and if I look in the function wizard, my addin doesn't show up as a category and the functions are not in the list. I am using excel 2003 on windows 7 x86. I built the project with visual studio 2010. This addin worked fine on windows xp built with visual studio 2008.

  Read the article

• JDO difficulties in retrieving persistent vector

  - by Michael Omer

  I know there are already some posts regarding this subject, but although I tried using them as a reference, I am still stuck. I have a persistent class as follows: @PersistenceCapable(identityType = IdentityType.APPLICATION) public class GameObject implements IMySerializable{ @PrimaryKey @Persistent(valueStrategy = IdGeneratorStrategy.IDENTITY) protected Key m_databaseKey; @NotPersistent private final static int END_GAME_VAR = -1000; @Persistent(defaultFetchGroup = "true") protected GameObjectSet m_set; @Persistent protected int m_databaseType = IDatabaseAccess.TYPE_NONE; where GameObjectSet is: @PersistenceCapable(identityType = IdentityType.APPLICATION) @FetchGroup(name = "mySet", members = {@Persistent(name = "m_set")}) public class GameObjectSet { @PrimaryKey @Persistent(valueStrategy = IdGeneratorStrategy.IDENTITY) private Key id; @Persistent private Vector<GameObjectSetPair> m_set; and GameObjectSetPair is: @PersistenceCapable(identityType = IdentityType.APPLICATION) public class GameObjectSetPair { @PrimaryKey @Persistent(valueStrategy = IdGeneratorStrategy.IDENTITY) private Key id; @Persistent private String key; @Persistent(defaultFetchGroup = "true") private GameObjectVar value; When I try to fetch the entire structure by fetching the GameObject, the set doesn't have any elements (they are all null) I tried adding the fetching group to the PM, but to no avail. This is my fetching code Vector<GameObject> ret = new Vector<GameObject>(); PersistenceManager pm = PMF.get().getPersistenceManager(); pm.getFetchPlan().setMaxFetchDepth(-1); pm.getFetchPlan().addGroup("mySet"); Query myQuery = pm.newQuery(GameObject.class); myQuery.setFilter("m_databaseType == objectType"); myQuery.declareParameters("int objectType"); try { List<GameObject> res = (List<GameObject>)myQuery.execute(objectType); ret = new Vector<GameObject>(res); for (int i = 0; i < ret.size(); i++) { ret.elementAt(i).getSet(); ret.elementAt(i).getSet().touchSet(); } } catch (Exception e) { } finally { pm.close(); } Does anyone have any idea? Thanks Mike

  Read the article

• Deselect dates in ASP.NET Calendar Control

  - by yomismo

  I'm trying to select and de-select dates on a C# Web Calendar control. The problem I have is that I can select or deselect dates except when there is only a single date selected. Clicking on it does not trigger the selection changed event, so Ineed to do something on the dayrender event but I'm not sure what or how. Edit: Added the Pre_Render event code. This seems to work now, however it seems a little bit erratic,e.g. select date A : OK Select date B :OK deselect them both: OK select date A: Does not work, need to select it twice deselect date A : Ok Select Date C: dates A and c are selected @John Yes, I am aware that the control is part of the .NET 2.0 framework and nothing to do with C# per se. Code so far: public static List<DateTime> list = new List<DateTime>(); protected void Calendar1_DayRender(object sender, DayRenderEventArgs e) { if (e.Day.IsSelected == true) { list.Add(e.Day.Date); } Session["SelectedDates"] = list; } protected void Calendar1_SelectionChanged(object sender, EventArgs e) { DateTime selection = Calendar1.SelectedDate; if (Session["SelectedDates"] != null) { List<DateTime> newList = (List<DateTime>)Session["SelectedDates"]; foreach (DateTime dt in newList) { Calendar1.SelectedDates.Add(dt); } if (searchdate(selection, newList)) { Calendar1.SelectedDates.Remove(selection); } list.Clear(); } } public bool searchdate(DateTime date, List<DateTime> dates) { var query = from o in dates where o.Date == date select o; if (query.ToList().Count == 0) { return false; } else { return true; } } protected void Calendar1_PreRender(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (Calendar1.SelectedDates.Count == 1) { foreach (DateTime dt in list) { if (searchdate(dt, list) && list.Count == 1) { Calendar1.SelectedDates.Clear(); break; } } } }

  Read the article

• Why does Hibernate ignore the JPA2 standardized properties in my persistence.xml?

  - by Ophidian

  I have an extremely simple web application running in Tomcat using Spring 3.0.1, Hibernate 3.5.1, JPA 2, and Derby. I am defining all of my database connectivity in persistence.xml and merely using Spring for dependency injection. I am using embedded Derby as my database. Everything works correctly when I define the driver and url properties in persistence.xml in the classic Hibernate manner as thus: <property name="hibernate.connection.driver_class" value="org.apache.derby.jdbc.EmbeddedDriver"/> <property name="hibernate.connection.url" value="jdbc:derby:webdb;create=true"/> The problems occur when I switch my configuration to the JPA2 standardized properties as thus: <property name="javax.persistence.jdbc.driver" value="org.apache.derby.jdbc.EmbeddedDriver"/> <property name="javax.persistence.jdbc.url" value="jdbc:derby:webdb;create=true"/> When using the JPA2 property keys, the application bails hard with the following exception: java.lang.UnsupportedOperationException: The user must supply a JDBC connection Does anyone know why this is failing? NOTE: I have copied the javax... property strings straight from the Hibernate reference documentation, so a typo is extremely unlikely.

  Read the article

• HighCharts : Can I customize the colors of individual series?

  - by user1091114

  I am using HighCharts for a line graph and i am attemping to change the line color for each series. I did find this example here but the data is hard coded. My data is pulled from an Sql database and passed to the HTML page using some VB code. var chart; $(document).ready(function () { chart = new Highcharts.Chart({ chart: { renderTo: 'container', defaultSeriesType: 'column' }, title: { text: 'Chart Title' }, subtitle: { text: 'Chart subtitle' }, xAxis: { categories: [<%= GraphDate %>] , labels: { rotation: -45, align: 'right', style: { } } }, yAxis: { min: 160, title: { text: 'Temp' } }, legend: { layout: 'vertical', backgroundColor: '#FFFFFF', align: 'left', verticalAlign: 'top', x: 400, y: 0, floating: true, shadow: true }, tooltip: { formatter: function () { return '' + this.x + ': ' + this.y + ' ºC'; } }, plotOptions: { column: { pointPadding: 0.2, borderWidth: 0 } }, series: [<%= GraphSeries %>], }); I tried to style it using the other post however it failed to generate a chart. The main problem is though, the line graph has two series, so the below method would set the color for both series i assume? So, would i maybe need to format the series in my vb code somehow? series: [{ color: 'yellow', data: [ [<%= GraphSeries %>] ]},

  Read the article

• Duplication of menu items with ViewPager and Fragments

  - by Julian

  I'm building an Android Application (minimum SDK Level 10, Gingerbread 2.3.3) with some Fragments in a ViewPager. I'm using ActionBarSherlock to create an ActionBar and android-viewpagertabs to add tabs to the ViewPager just like in the Market client. I have one global menu item that I want to be shown on every tab/fragment. On the first of the three tabs I want to have two additional menu items. But now two strange things happen: First if I start the app, everything seems to be fine, I can see all three menu items on the first page and only one item if i swipe to the second and third tab. But if I swipe back to the second tab from the third one, I can see all three items again which shouldn't happen. If I swipe back to the first and then again to the second tab, everything is fine again. The other strange thing is that every time I rotate the device, the menu items from the fragment are added again, even though they are already in the menu. Code of the FragmentActivity that displays the ViewPager and its tabs: public class MainActivity extends FragmentActivity { public static final String TAG = "MainActivity"; private ActionBar actionBar; private Adapter adapter; private ViewPager viewPager; private ViewPagerTabs tabs; @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.volksempfaenger); actionBar = getSupportActionBar(); adapter = new Adapter(getSupportFragmentManager()); adapter.addFragment(getString(R.string.title_tab_subscriptions), SubscriptionGridFragment.class); // adding more fragments here viewPager = (ViewPager) findViewById(R.id.viewpager); viewPager.setAdapter(adapter); tabs = (ViewPagerTabs) findViewById(R.id.tabs); tabs.setViewPager(viewPager); } public static class Adapter extends FragmentPagerAdapter implements ViewPagerTabProvider { private FragmentManager fragmentManager; private ArrayList<Class<? extends Fragment>> fragments; private ArrayList<String> titles; public Adapter(FragmentManager fm) { super(fm); fragmentManager = fm; fragments = new ArrayList<Class<? extends Fragment>>(); titles = new ArrayList<String>(); } public void addFragment(String title, Class<? extends Fragment> fragment) { titles.add(title); fragments.add(fragment); } @Override public int getCount() { return fragments.size(); } public String getTitle(int position) { return titles.get(position); } @Override public Fragment getItem(int position) { try { return fragments.get(position).newInstance(); } catch (InstantiationException e) { Log.wtf(TAG, e); } catch (IllegalAccessException e) { Log.wtf(TAG, e); } return null; } @Override public Object instantiateItem(View container, int position) { FragmentTransaction fragmentTransaction = fragmentManager .beginTransaction(); Fragment f = getItem(position); fragmentTransaction.add(container.getId(), f); fragmentTransaction.commit(); return f; } } @Override public boolean onCreateOptionsMenu(Menu menu) { BaseActivity.addGlobalMenu(this, menu); return true; } @Override public boolean onOptionsItemSelected(MenuItem item) { return BaseActivity.handleGlobalMenu(this, item); } } Code of the fragment that shall have its own menu items: public class SubscriptionGridFragment extends Fragment { private GridView subscriptionList; private SubscriptionListAdapter adapter; @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setHasOptionsMenu(true); } // ... @Override public void onCreateOptionsMenu(Menu menu, MenuInflater inflater) { inflater.inflate(R.menu.subscription_list, menu); } @Override public boolean onOptionsItemSelected(MenuItem item) { // ... } }

  Read the article

• Help with java executors: wait for task termination.

  - by Raffo

  I need to submit a number of task and then wait for them until all results are available. Each of them adds a String to a Vector (that is synchronized by default). Then I need to start a new task for each result in the Vector but I need to do this only when all the previous tasks have stopped doing their job. I want to use Java Executor, in particular I tried using Executors.newFixedThreadPool(100) in order to use a fixed number of thread (I have a variable number of task that can be 10 or 500) but I'm new with executors and I don't know how to wait for task termination. This is something like a pseudocode of what my program needs to do: EecutorService e = Executors.newFixedThreadPool(100); while(true){ /*do something*/ for(...){ <start task> } <wait for all task termination> for each String in result{ <start task> } <wait for all task termination> } I can't do a e.shutdown because I'm in a while(true) and I need to reuse the executorService... Can you help me? Can you suggest me a guide/book about java executors??

  Read the article

• Is there a way to prevent Maven Test from rebuilding the database?

  - by Christopher W. Allen-Poole

  I've recently been asked to, effectively, sell my department on unit testing. I can't tell you how excited this makes me, but I do have one concern. We're using JUnit with Spring and Maven, and this means that each time mvn test is called, it rebuilds the database. Obviously, we can't integrate that with our production server -- it would kill valuable data. How do I prevent the rebuilding without telling maven to skip testing? The best I could figure was to assign the script to operate in a test database (line breaks added for readability): mvn test -Ddbunit.schema=<database>test -Djdbc.url=jdbc:mysql://localhost/<database>test? createDatabaseIfNotExist=true&amp; useUnicode=true&amp;characterEncoding=utf-8 I can't help but think there must be a better way. I'm especially interested in learning if there is an easy way to tell Maven to only run tests on particular classes without building anything else? mvn -Dtest=<test-name> test still rebuilds the database. ======= update ======= Bit of egg on my face here. I didn't realize that I was using the same variable in two places, meaning that the POM was using a "skip.test" variable for both rebuilding the database and for running the tests...

  Read the article

• ado.net Concurrency violation

  - by Bicubic

  My first time using ADO.net. Trying to make database of Users. First I populate my DataSet: adapter.AcceptChangesDuringFill = true; adapter.AcceptChangesDuringUpdate = true; adapter.Fill(dataset); To create a user: User user = new User(); user.datarow = dataset.Users.NewUsersRow(); user.Name = username; user.PasswordHash = GetHash(password); user.Rights = UserRights.None; users.Add(user); dataset.Users.AddUsersRow(user.datarow); adapter.Update(dataset); When a user property is modified: adapter.Update(dataset); Creation by itself is fine. If I take an existing user and make multiple changes, fine. Multiple creations in a row, fine. Creation followed by a property change, I get this: "Concurrency violation: the UpdateCommand affected 0 of the expected 1 records." Any ideas?

  Read the article

• Uninitialized array offset

  - by kimmothy16

  Hey everyone, I am using PHP to create a form with an array of fields. Basically you can add an unlimited number of 'people' to the form and each person has a first name, last name, and phone number. The form requires that you add a phone number for the first person only. If you leave the phone number field blank on any others, the handler file is supposed to be programmed to use the phone number from the first person. So, my fields are: person[] - a hidden field with a value that is this person's primary key. fname[] - an input field lname[] - an input field phone[] - an input field My form handler looks like this: $people = $_POST['person'] $counter = 0; foreach($people as $person): if($phone[$counter] == '') { // use $phone[0]'s phone number } else { // use $phone[$counter] number } $counter = $counter + 1; endforeach; PHP doesn't like this though, it is throwing me an Notice: Uninitialized string offset error. I debugged it by running the is_array function on people, fname, lname, and phone and it returns true to being an array. I can also manually echo out $phone[2], etc. and get the correct value. I've also ran is_int on the $counter variable and it returned true, so I'm unsure why this isn't working as intended? Any help would be great!

  Read the article

• Closing Connections on asynchronous messaging in JMS

  - by The Elite Gentleman

  Hi Everyone! I have created a JMS wrapper (similar to Springs JmsTemplate since I'm not using Springs) and I was wondering: If I setup asynchronous messaging, when is a good time to close connections and JMS relates resources (so that the Connection Factory in the Resource Pool can be available)? Thanks Here's the source code for receiving JMS messages public Message receive() throws JMSException { QueueConnection connection = null; QueueSession session = null; QueueReceiver consumer = null; try { // TODO Auto-generated method stub connection = factory.createQueueConnection(); if (connection != null && getExceptionListener() != null) { connection.setExceptionListener(getExceptionListener()); } session = connection.createQueueSession(isSessionTransacted(), getAcknowledgeMode()); consumer = session.createReceiver(queue); if (getMessageListener() != null) { consumer.setMessageListener(getMessageListener()); } //Begin connection.start(); if (getMessageListener() == null) { return null; } return receive(session, consumer); } catch (JMSException e) { // TODO: handle exception logger.error(e.getLocalizedMessage(), e); throw e; } finally { JMSUtil.closeMessageConsumer(consumer); JMSUtil.closeSession(session, false); //false = don't commit. JMSUtil.closeConnection(connection, true); //true = stop before close. } As you can see, if getMessageListener() != null then apply it to the MessageConsumer. Am I doing this correctly? The same approach has also been taken for JMS Topic.

  Read the article

• Link doesnt work in FF

  - by venom

  Here is the link: <a href="javascript://" onClick="print_gonder();"><img src="/images/print.gif" title="Gönder" border="0"></a> and its function print_gonder: function print_gonder() { var satirsayisi=document.list_basketww.row_count.value; var amnt=new Array(satirsayisi); var prc=new Array(satirsayisi); var kdv=new Array(satirsayisi); var kon=new Array(satirsayisi); var yap=new Array(satirsayisi); var ona=new Array(satirsayisi); var ode=new Array(satirsayisi); var tes=new Array(satirsayisi); for (i=0; i<satirsayisi; i++) { amnt[i]=eval("document.getElementById('amount" + (i+1) + "')").value; prc[i]=filterNum(eval("document.getElementById('price" + (i+1) + "')").value); kdv[i]=eval("document.getElementById('tax_dif" + (i+1) + "')").value; kon=eval("document.getElementById('konu')").value; yap=eval("document.getElementById('yapan')").value; ona=eval("document.getElementById('onay')").value; ode=eval("document.getElementById('odeme')").value; tes=eval("document.getElementById('teslim')").value; } windowopen('<cfoutput>#request.self#?fuseaction=objects2.popup_sale_propose&print=true#page_code#&amnt='+amnt+'&prc='+prc+'&kdv='+kdv+'&konu='+kon+'&yapan='+yap+'&onay='+ona+'&odeme='+ode+'&teslim='+tes+'</cfoutput>','page'); } The problem is that this link doesnt work in FF but work in IE, but if i change the function into something like this: <a href="javascript://" onClick="<cfoutput>windowopen('#request.self#?fuseaction=objects2.popup_sale_propose&print=true#page_code#','page')</cfoutput"><img src="/images/print.gif" title="Gönder" border="0"></a> it perfectly works in all the browsers.. i think that the problem is in defining the values of the functions, the FF just doesnt understand them... btw, the system is Workcube and it uses the Cold Fusion.

  Read the article

• MVC.NET custom validator is not working

  - by IvanMushketyk

  I want to write a custom validator for MVC.NET framework that checks if entered date is in the future. To do it, I wrote the following class: [AttributeUsage(AttributeTargets.Property, AllowMultiple = false, Inherited = true)] public sealed class InTheFutureAttribute : ValidationAttribute, IClientValidatable { private const string DefaultErrorMessage = "{0} should be date in the future"; public InTheFutureAttribute() : base(DefaultErrorMessage) { } public override string FormatErrorMessage(string name) { return string.Format(ErrorMessageString, name); } public override bool IsValid(object value) { DateTime time = (DateTime)value; if (time < DateTime.Now) { return false; } return true; } public IEnumerable<ModelClientValidationRule> GetClientValidationRules(ModelMetadata metadata, ControllerContext context) { var clientValidationRule = new ModelClientValidationRule() { ErrorMessage = FormatErrorMessage(metadata.GetDisplayName()), ValidationType = "wrongvalue" }; return new[] { clientValidationRule }; } } and added attribute to field that I want to check. On the View page I create input field in the following way: <div class="editor-label-search"> @Html.LabelFor(model => model.checkIn) </div> <div class="editor-field-search-date"> @Html.EditorFor(model => model.checkIn) <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function () { $('#checkIn').datepicker({ showOn: 'button', buttonImage: '/Content/images/calendar.gif', duration: 0, dateFormat: 'dd/mm/yy' }); }); </script> @Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.checkIn) </div> When I submit the form for the controller that requires model with checked attribute code in my validator is called and it returns false, but instead of displaying an error it just call my controller's action and send invalid model to it. Am I doing something wrong? How can I fix it? Thank you in advance.

  Read the article

• Double Click and Resize on an Ipad

  - by Luke

  Thanks to the great post at OranLooney.com I was able to get a java/icefaces web-app to resize nicely on the ipad, however the code provided for double click doesn't seem to work without further customization. Has anybody had any experience with getting this to work? there seems to be little documentation on google. the donnothing(); in the window.orientationchange is there as it seems sometimes without it the resize will (sometimes) not work // a function to parse the user agent string; useful for // detecting lots of browsers, not just the iPad. function checkUserAgent(vs) { var pattern = new RegExp(vs, 'i'); return !!pattern.test(navigator.userAgent); } if ( checkUserAgent('iPad') ) { // iPad specific stuff here window.onorientationchange = function() { donnothing(); }; document.body.addEventListener('touchstart', function(e) { touch = e.touches[0]; if ( !touch ) return; var me = document.createEvent("MouseEvents"); me.initMouseEvent('dblclick', true, true, window, 1, // detail / mouse click count touch.screenX, touch.screenY, touch.clientX, touch.clientY, false, false, false, false, // key modifiers 0, // primary mouse button null // related target not used for dblclick event ); touch.target.dispatchEvent(me); }); }

  Read the article

• Setting spring bean property value using ref-bean

  - by Apache Fan

  Hi, I am trying to set a property value using spring. <bean id="velocityPropsBean" class="com.test.CustomProperties" abstract="false" singleton="true" lazy-init="false" autowire="default" dependency-check="default"> <property name="properties"> <props> <prop key="resource.loader">file</prop> <prop key="file.resource.loader.cache">true</prop> <prop key="file.resource.loader.class">org.apache.velocity.runtime.resource.loader.FileResourceLoader</prop> <prop key="file.resource.loader.path">NEED TO INSERT VALUE AT STARTUP</prop> </props> </property> </bean> <bean id="velocityResourcePath" class="java.lang.String" factory-bean="velocityHelper" factory-method="getLoaderPath"/> Now what i need to do is insert the result from getLoaderPath into file.resource.loader.path. The value of getLoaderPath changes so it has to be loaded at server startup. Any thoughts how i can inset the velocityResourcePath value to the property?

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 359 360 361 362 363 364 365 366 367 368 369 370  | Next Page >