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  • C# XNA: What can cause SpriteBatch.End() to throw a NPE?

    - by Rosarch
    I don't understand what I'm doing wrong here: public void Draw(GameTime gameTime) // in ScreenManager { SpriteBatch.Begin(SpriteBlendMode.AlphaBlend); for (int i = 0; i < Screens.Count; i++) { if (Screens[i].State == Screen.ScreenState.HIDDEN) continue; Screens[i].Draw(gameTime); } SpriteBatch.End(); // null ref exception } SpriteBatch itself is not null. Some more context: public class MasterEngine : Microsoft.Xna.Framework.Game { public MasterEngine() { graphicsDeviceManager = new GraphicsDeviceManager(this); Components.Add(new GamerServicesComponent(this)); // ... spriteBatch = new SpriteBatch(graphicsDeviceManager.GraphicsDevice); screenManager = new ScreenManager(assets, gameEngine, graphicsDeviceManager.GraphicsDevice, spriteBatch); } //... protected override void Draw(GameTime gameTime) { screenManager.Draw(gameTime); // calls the problematic method base.Draw(gameTime); } } Am I failing to initialize something properly? UPDATE: As an experiment, I tried this to the constructor of MasterEngine: spriteBatch = new SpriteBatch(graphicsDeviceManager.GraphicsDevice); spriteBatch.Begin(); spriteBatch.DrawString(assets.GetAsset<SpriteFont>("calibri"), "ftw", new Vector2(), Color.White); spriteBatch.End(); This does not cause a NRE. hmm....

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  • Experiences wanted: producing a jar artifact in IntelliJ

    - by skiaddict1
    Developing with IntelliJ 9.0.2 Community Edition, on the Mac. This is a follow-up to this post about including jar files in an artifact, which has not received any replies. I'm hoping that the reason is that somehow, in creating my artifact (or setting my project settings), I unwittingly did something which people don't tend to do, and which is causing my problem, and that by asking people here to share how they create jar artifacts and set up projects, I will discover what it is. To recap: I have a Java project which depends on two library files. I need to package up the entire thing, with the jars inlined (such that on doing jar -tfv <filename> I see ALL the classes listed, including the ones in the two libraries), into a single jar file. I can make an artifact, I can add the library files to the Output Layout pane, but I CANNOT, no matter what I do, I cannot get the "Inline Artifact" item in the context menu to be selectable (i.e. non-grey) when I right-click on one or other library file. The thing is, making a jar which contains library files as well as the project code is NOT an unusual situation in the Java world! So I figure there are lots of IntelliJ folks out there who have done what I need to do. And I would really like to hear from you folks. What project settings do you use? (be specific, please :-) And exactly how do you set up your jar artifacts? (again, as many specific details as possible, please :-) Clearly, I'd be particularly interested to hear from folks with similar setups to mine (above) who are successfully doing what I need to do. Grateful thanks in advance, folks.

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  • ORDERBY "human" alphabetical order using SQL string manipulation

    - by supertrue
    I have a table of posts with titles that are in "human" alphabetical order but not in computer alphabetical order. These are in two flavors, numerical and alphabetical: Numerical: Figure 1.9, Figure 1.10, Figure 1.11... Alphabetical: Figure 1A ... Figure 1Z ... Figure 1AA If I orderby title, the result is that 1.10-1.19 come between 1.1 and 1.2, and 1AA-1AZ come between 1A and 1B. But this is not what I want; I want "human" alphabetical order, in which 1.10 comes after 1.9 and 1AA comes after 1Z. I am wondering if there's still a way in SQL to get the order that I want using string manipulation (or something else I haven't thought of). I am not an expert in SQL, so I don't know if this is possible, but if there were a way to do conditional replacement, then it seems I could impose the order I want by doing this: delete the period (which can be done with replace, right?) if the remaining figure number is more than three characters, add a 0 (zero) after the first character. This would seem to give me the outcome I want: 1.9 would become 109, which comes before 110; 1Z would become 10Z, which comes before 1AA. But can it be done in SQL? If so, what would the syntax be? Note that I don't want to modify the data itself—just to output the results of the query in the order described. This is in the context of a Wordpress installation, but I think the question is more suitably an SQL question because various things (such as pagination) depend on the ordering happening at the MySQL query stage, rather than in PHP.

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  • What is PHP like as a programming language?

    - by seanlinmt
    I am not really familiar with PHP, but I get the impression that it is like JavaScript (syntax-wise). What are the benefits of a dynamically typed language, when compared to a strongly typed language like C# or Java, and how would this help in the context of web development? What would make a dynamically typed language so attractive? Or, does the popularity of PHP have more to do with it being free? Okay, I think I better give a little more background to get more meaningful answers, because I am not wanting a flame war. I come from a C background, and when I moved into C# and Visual Studio. Having code completion, integration with an SQL database, huge existing class libraries and easy to access documentation, as well as new tools such as LINQ and ReSharper was like heaven. I didn't enjoy JavaScript before JQuery, but now I love it as well. Recently, I ported a PHP project over to C# and I used Zend to help me debug and understand more while porting - instead of maintaining two code streams. That also cut down on the cost of the server and maintenance. Getting into PHP would be nice. I think that Visual Studio has spoiled me - but again Eclipse is also equally spoiling. It would be nice to have an answer from someone who has experience developing both under PHP and .NET.

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  • git contributors not showing up properly in github/etc.

    - by RobH
    I'm working in a team on a big project, but when I'm doing the merges I'd like the developers name to appear in github as the author -- currently, I'm the only one showing up since I'm merging. Context: There are 4 developers, and we're using the "integration manager" workflow using GitHub. Our "blessed" repo is under the organization, and each developer manages their pub/private repo. I've been tasked with being the integration manager, so I'm doing the merges, etc. Where I could be messing up is that I'm basically working out of my rob/project.git instead of the org/project.git -- so when I do local merges I operate on my repo then I push to both my public and the org public. (Make sense?) When I push to the blessed repo nobody else shows up as an author, since all commits are coming from me -- how can I get around this? -- Also, we all forked org/project.git, yet in the network graph nobody is showing up -- did we mess this up too? I'm used to working with git solo and don't have too much experience with handling a team of devs. Merging seems like the right thing to do, but I'm being thrown off since GitHub is kind of ignoring the other contributors. If this makes no sense at all, how do you use GitHub to manage a single project across 4 developers? (preferably the integration mgr workflow, branching i think would solve the problem) Thanks for any help

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  • Xpath query to select node when attribute does not exist? [closed]

    - by Antoine
    I want to select nodes for which a specific attribute does not exist. I've tried the Not() function, but it doesn't work. Is there a way for this? Example: The following Xpath query: group/msg[not(@owner)] Should retrieve the first node but not the 2nd one. However, both SketchPath (tool to test Xpath queries) and my C# code consider that the 2 nodes are ok. <group> <msg id="EVENTDATA_CCFLOADED_XMLCONTEXT" numericId="14026" translate="False" topicId="302" status="translated" > <text>Context</text> <comment></comment> </msg> <msg id="EVENTDATA_CCFLOADED_XMLCONTEXT_HELP" numericId="14027" translate="False" topicId="302" status="translated" owner="EVENTDATA_CCFLOADED_XMLCONTEXT" > <text>Provides the new data displayed in the Object.</text> <comment></comment> </msg> </group> In fact the Not() function works correctly, it's just that I had other conditions and parentheses weren't set correctly. errare humanum est.

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  • Optimize INSERT / UPDATE / DELETE operation

    - by clime
    I wonder if the following script can be optimized somehow. It does write a lot to disk because it deletes possibly up-to-date rows and reinserts them. I was thinking about applying something like "insert ... on duplicate key update" and found some possibilities for single-row updates but I don't know how to apply it in the context of INSERT INTO ... SELECT query. CREATE OR REPLACE FUNCTION update_member_search_index() RETURNS VOID AS $$ DECLARE member_content_type_id INTEGER; BEGIN member_content_type_id := (SELECT id FROM django_content_type WHERE app_label='web' AND model='member'); DELETE FROM watson_searchentry WHERE content_type_id = member_content_type_id; INSERT INTO watson_searchentry (engine_slug, content_type_id, object_id, object_id_int, title, description, content, url, meta_encoded) SELECT 'default', member_content_type_id, web_member.id, web_member.id, web_member.name, '', web_user.email||' '||web_member.normalized_name||' '||web_country.name, '', '{}' FROM web_member INNER JOIN web_user ON (web_member.user_id = web_user.id) INNER JOIN web_country ON (web_member.country_id = web_country.id) WHERE web_user.is_active=TRUE; END; $$ LANGUAGE plpgsql; EDIT: Schemas of web_member, watson_searchentry, web_user, web_country: http://pastebin.com/3tRVPPVi. (content_type_id, object_id_int) in watson_searchentry is unique pair in the table but atm the index is not present (there is no use for it). This script should be run at most once a day for full rebuilds of search index.

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  • Best practices to deal with "slightly different" branches of source code

    - by jedi_coder
    This question is rather agnostic than related to a certain version control program. Assume there is a source code tree under certain distributed version control. Let's call it A. At some point somebody else clones it and gets its own copy. Let's call it B. I'll call A and B branches, even if some version control tools have different definitions for branches (some might call A and B repositories). Let's assume that branch A is the "main" branch. In the context of distributed version control this only means that branch A is modified much more actively and the owner of branch B periodically syncs (pulls) new updates from branch A. Let's consider that a certain source file in branch B contains a class (again, it's also language agnostic). The owner of branch B considers that some class methods are more appropriate and groups them together by moving them inside the class body. Functionally nothing has changed - this is a very trivial refactoring of the code. But the change gets reflected in diffs. Now, assuming that this change from branch B will never get merged into branch A, the owner of branch B will always get this difference when pulling from branch A and merging into his own workspace. Even if there's only one such trivial change, the owner of branch B needs to resolve conflicts every time when pulling from branch A. As long as branches A and B are modified independently, more and more conflicts like this appear. What is the workaround for this situation? Which workflow should the owner of branch B follow to minimize the effort for periodically syncing with branch A?

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  • How do I display core data on second view controller?

    - by jon
    I am working on my first core data iPhone application. I am using a navigation controller, and the root view controller displays 4 rows. Clicking the first row takes me to a second table view controller. However, when I click the back button, repeat the row tap, click the back button again, and tap the row a third time, I get an error. I have been researching this for a week with no success. I can reproduce the error easily: Create a new Navigation-based Application, use Core Data for storage, call it MyTest which creates MyTestAppDelegate and RootViewController. Add new UIViewController subclass, with UITableViewController and xib, call it ListViewController. Copy code from RootViewController.h and .m to ListViewController.h and .m., changing the file names appropriately. To simplify the code, I removed the trailing “_” from all variables. In RootViewController, I added #import ListViewController.h, set up an array to display 4 rows and navigate to ListViewController when clicking the first row. In ListViewController.m, I added #import MyTestAppDelegate.h” and the following code: - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; if (managedObjectContext == nil) { managedObjectContext = [(MyTestAppDelegate *)[[UIApplication sharedApplication] delegate] managedObjectContext]; } .. } The sequence that causes the error is tap row, return, tap row, return, tap row - error. managedObjectContext is synthesized for the third time. I appreciate your patience and your help, as this makes no sense to me. ADDENDUM: I may have a partial solution. http://www.iphonedevsdk.com/forum/iphone-sdk-development/41688-accessing-app-delegates-managed-object-context.html If I do not release the managedObjectContext in the .m file, the error goes away. Is that ok or will that cause me issues? - (void)dealloc { [fetchedResultsController release]; // [managedObjectContext release]; [super dealloc]; } ADDENDUM 2: See solution below. Sorry for the formatting issues - this was my first post.

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  • How to convert a string to variable name

    - by p1xelarchitect
    I'm loading several external JSON files and want to check if they have been successfully cached before the the next screen is displayed. My strategy is to check the name of the array to see if it an object. My code works perfectly when I check only a single array and hard code the array name into my function. My question is: how can i make this dynamic? not dynamic: (this works) $("document").ready(){ checkJSON("nav_items"); } function checkJSON(){ if(typeof nav_items == "object"){ // success... } } dynamic: (this doesn't work) $("document").ready(){ checkJSON("nav_items"); checkJSON("foo_items"); checkJSON("bar_items"); } function checkJSON(item){ if(typeof item == "object"){ // success... } } here is the a larger context of my code: var loadAttempts = 0; var reloadTimer = false; $("document").ready(){ checkJSON("nav_items"); } function checkJSON(item){ loadAttempts++; //if nav_items exists if(typeof nav_items == "object"){ //if a timer is running, kill it if(reloadTimer != false){ clearInterval(reloadTimer); reloadTimer = false; } console.log("found!!"); console.log(nav_items[1]); loadAttempts = 0; //reset // load next screen.... } //if nav_items does not yet exist, try 5 times, then give up! else { //set a timer if(reloadTimer == false){ reloadTimer = setInterval(function(){checkJSON(nav_items)},300); console.log(item + " not found. Attempts: " + loadAttempts ); } else { if(loadAttempts <= 5){ console.log(item + " not found. Attempts: " + loadAttempts ); } else { clearInterval(reloadTimer); reloadTimer = false; console.log("Giving up on " + item + "!!"); } } } }

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  • .net remoting - Better solution to wait for a service to initialize ?

    - by CitizenInsane
    Context I have a client application (which i cannot modify, i.e. i only have the binary) that needs to run from time to time external commands that depends on a resource which is very long to initialize (about 20s). I thus decided to initialize this resource once for all in a "CommandServer.exe" application (single instance in the system tray) and let my client application call an intermediate "ExecuteCommand.exe" program that uses .net remoting to perform the operation on the server. The "ExecuteCommand.exe" is in charge for starting the server on first call and then leave it alive to speed up further commands. The service: public interface IMyService { void ExecuteCommand(string[] args); } The "CommandServer.exe" (using WindowsFormsApplicationBase for single instance management + user friendly splash screen during resource initializations): private void onStartupFirstInstance(object sender, StartupEventArgs e) { // Register communication channel channel = new TcpServerChannel("CommandServerChannel", 8234); ChannelServices.RegisterChannel(channel, false); // Register service var resource = veryLongToInitialize(); service = new MyServiceImpl(resource); RemotingServices.Marshal(service, "CommandServer"); // Create icon in system tray notifyIcon = new NotifyIcon(); ... } The intermediate "ExecuteCommand.exe": static void Main(string[] args) { startCommandServerIfRequired(); var channel = new TcpClientChannel(); ChannelServices.RegisterChannel(channel, false); var service = (IMyService)Activator.GetObject(typeof(IMyService), "tcp://localhost:8234/CommandServer"); service.RunCommand(args); } Problem As the server is very long to start (about 20s to initialize the required resources), the "ExecuteCommand.exe" fails on service.RunCommand(args) line because the server is yet not available. Question Is there a elegant way I can tune the delay before to receive "service not available" when calling service.RunCommand ? NB1: Currently I'm working around the issue by adding a mutex in server to indicate for complete initiliazation and have "ExecuteCommand.exe" to wait for this mutex before to call service.RunCommand. NB2: I have no background with .net remoting, nor WCF which is recommended replacer. (I chose .net remoting because this looked easier to set-up for this single shot issue in running external commands).

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  • Selecting an option with given value

    - by Maven
    I am trying to select a particular option from a select list depending on the value, I have following markup: <select name="class" id="class"> <option value="1">679460ED-0B15-4ED9-B3C8-A8C276DF1C82</option> <option value="2">B99BF873-7DF0-4E7F-95FF-3F1FD1A26139</option> <option value="3">1DCD5AD7-F57C-414</option> <option value="4">6B0170AA-F044-4F9C-8BB8-31A51E452CE4</option> <option value="5">C6A8B</option> <option value="6">1BBD6FA4-335A-4D8F-8681-DFED317B8052</option> <option value="7">727D71AB-F7D1-4B83-9D6D-6BEEAAB</option> <option value="8">BC4DE8A2-C864-4C7C-B83C-EE2450AF11B1</option> <option value="9">AIR CONDITIONING SYSTEM</option> <option value="10">POWER GENERATION SYSTEM</option> </select> <script> selectThisValue('#class',3); </script> in .js function selectThisValue(element,value) { console.log(value); var elem = $(element + ' option[value=' + value + ']'); console.log(elem); elem.attr("selected", "selected"); } Results for console.log are as follows: 3 [prevObject: i.fn.i.init[1], context: document, selector: "#class option[value=3]", jquery: "1.10.2", constructor: function…] But this is not working, no errors are given but nothing happens also. Please help identifying the where am I wrong.

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  • Which Java debugger do *you* use.

    - by mikevdg
    I spend a lot of time debugging applications in Eclipse using JPDA. There are a few issues with the Eclipse debugger which really annoy me. Can anybody recommend plug-ins, better debuggers or perhaps tricks that I don't know of yet? In the "Variables" tab, you can type in and execute bits of Java code. However, you first need to click on something (I usually click on "this") to give it some context. Then, after you've typed in a lengthy Java expression to debug something and "execute" it, your expression gets replaced with the result, so you need to type it in all over again. Is there some better way, such as a console or something that I'm missing? When you're poking through data structures, the presentation in the debugger leaves much to be desired. You see the internal representation of Lists, Maps, StringBuilders etc. What I want to see is what these objects conceptually contain. Is there a way of doing this, perhaps using some other debugger, or an extension or something? When an Exception is thrown, is there some way of inspecting the state of the application where the Exception was thrown? Currently I need to set breakpoints just before the Exception occurs and then try to reproduce it. When I'm stepping over a line with many statements on it, I can't actually see which of those statements is being executed, except by "stepping in" to each one to see where it takes me. If no source code is found, Eclipse just stares blankly at you. You get a helpful screen saying "Class File Editor / Source code not found" which is completely useless. I'd much prefer to be able to step through the bytecodes so I can at least see what is going on. Does anybody know of a Java debugger that does this better than Eclipse?

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  • Recommendation for using equals in Entities and avoiding LazyInitializationExceptions?

    - by huxendupsel
    In the beginning there is a problem that wants to be solved. In my case i got an LazyInitializationException while using indexof in a Collection to retrieve an Object for manipulation. Here i start to think about using equals in EntityBeans (OR-Mapper at all). I know there are some discussions about overriding equals in association with OR-Mapper as hibernate like [1] Entities equals(), hashCode() and toString(). How to correctly implement them? [2] To equals and hashcode or not on entity classes, that is the question. [3] Overriding equals and hashCode in Java I currently have some entities which implements the equals but inside the code i could not use equals several times because of the LazyInitializationExceptions. So i had to workaround and use eg. the name property of the object to identify it's equality. From my point of view the whole 'LazyInitializationException-thing' is not really mentioned in this questions. I'd like to know have you got some good patterns or real live recommendations how to avoid such exception in an equal-Method. Shall i use some helper Methodes to distinguish if a Object of a class is already initialized (4) or should i apdicate the use of equals and use helper classes instead (2)? And what is about catching LazyInitializationExceptions in the equals? [Edit]: If you put equals in context with the initialization of the Object then it will gain importance. Sometimes it is nessesary to have the Object fully initialized but sometimes you don't want to. Because you just need the Object itself (name, id, ...) not its Collection-Properties. So just for equalization you have to reattach the Object and load the whole bunch you don't realy need? Are there any other solutions for such a problem?

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  • Why do I have memory problems?

    - by Tattat
    I got this error from XCode: objc[8422]: FREED(id): message release sent to freed object=0x3b120c0 I googled and find that is related to the memory. But I don't know which line of code I go wrong, any ideas? After I launch my app in simulator, it prompts a second, than, no other error except the error above. @implementation MyAppDelegate @synthesize window; @synthesize viewController; - (void)applicationDidFinishLaunching:(UIApplication *)application { // Override point for customization after app launch [window addSubview:viewController.view]; [window makeKeyAndVisible]; [self changeScene:[MainGameMenuScene class]]; } - (void)dealloc { [viewController release]; [window release]; [super dealloc]; } - (void) changeScene: (Class) scene { BOOL animateTransition = true; if(animateTransition){ [UIView beginAnimations:nil context:NULL]; [UIView setAnimationDuration:0.5]; [UIView setAnimationTransition:UIViewAnimationTransitionFlipFromLeft forView:window cache:YES]; //does nothing without this line. } if( viewController.view != nil ) { [viewController.view removeFromSuperview]; //remove view from window's subviews. [viewController.view release]; //release gamestate } viewController.view = [[scene alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(0, 0, IPHONE_WIDTH, IPHONE_HEIGHT) andManager:self]; //now set our view as visible [window addSubview:viewController.view]; [window makeKeyAndVisible]; if(animateTransition){ [UIView commitAnimations]; } }

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  • Django - Weird behaviour of sessions variables with Apache

    - by Étienne Loks
    In a Menu class with Section children, each Section has an available attribute. This attribute is initialized during the instance creation. The process of getting the availability is not trivial, so I stock a Menu instance for each user in a session variable. With the Django embedded webserver this works well. But when I deploy the application on an Apache webserver I can observe a very weird behavior. Once authentified, a click on a link or a refreshment of the page and the availability of each Section seems to be forgotten (empty menu but in the log file I can see that all Sections are here) then a new refresh on the page the availability is back, a new refresh the menu disappears once again, etc. There is no cache activated on the web server. The menu is initialized in a context processor. def get_base_context(request): if 'MENU' not in request.session or \ not request.session['MENU'].childs or\ request.session['MENU'].user != request.user: _menu = Menu(request.user) _menu.init() request.session['MENU'] = _menu (...) I have no idea what could cause such a behavior. Any clue?

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  • XML in Authorware 7.01

    - by Mikael
    Let me explain the setup that is being used. Right now I have an authorware program which loads an ocx control. This control receives data in the form on an XML string. This part is working properly. However I need parse this XML string in authorware and have not been successful. I have been trying to use the XMLParser Xtra. The documentation listed here shows how to create a new XMLParser object and then shows how to call the object but never explains how to link the Parser to a XML file or XML string. The information I have been using can be found here https://www.adobe.com/livedocs/authorware/7/using_aw_en/wwhelp/wwhimpl/common/html/wwhelp.htm?context=Using_Authorware_7&file=09_va110.htm#224295 I need more information on how to Parse XML with this function or if there is another way to do this in Authorware. As a side note the documentation says it cannot create or append to XML, I will need to do this also inside of Authorware. Is this possible and if so, how?

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  • Rails - Update a single attribute : link with custom action or form with hidden fields?

    - by MrRuru
    Let's say I have a User model, with a facebook_uid field corresponding to the user's facebook id. I want to allow the user to unlink his facebook account. Do do so, I need to set this attribute to nil. I currently see 2 ways of doing this First way : create a custom action and link to it # app/controllers/users_controller.rb def unlink_facebook_account @user = User.find params[:id] # Authorization checks go here @user.facebook_uid = nil @user.save # Redirection go here end # config/routes.rb ressources :users do get 'unlink_fb', :on => :member, :as => unlink_fb end # in a view = link_to "Unlink your facebook account", unlink_fb_path(@user) Second way : create a form to the existing update action # app/views/user/_unlink_fb_form.html.haml = form_for @user, :method => "post" do |f| = f.hidden_field :facebook_uid, :value => nil = f.submit "Unlink Facebook account" I'm not a big fan of either way. In the first one, I have to add a new action for something that the update controller already can do. In the second one, I cannot set the facebook_uid to nil without customizing the update action, and I cannot have a link instead of a button without adding some javascript. Still, what would you recommend as the best and most elegant solution for this context? Did I miss a third alternative?

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  • Refetching a previously visited page

    - by user613665
    All, I am having a field day with page refetching. Any help or pointer will be greatly appreciated!! The behavior is a bit specific to mobile browser. Problem: I have two pages and created a shortcut link to pg#1 in the home page. Through a form submit button, user is taken from pg#1 to pg#2. All that is working fine. Now once I am on pg#2. I will leave the browser and click the shortcut later. The browser will stay on pg#2 and won't go to pg#1 even though the path in URLS is different between the two views. It is almost like Django decides that since I have already visited view#1, it doesn't need to fetch it again. This problem or behavior doesn't happen if I move the same code that handle the two views and the templates to a bare bone test project. Setup: I am using django-registration, context session. I am not using any HTML caching tag. I already have DEBUG turned on in my settings.py. Are there other ways that I can tell what the server is doing. Thanks in advance. pdxMobile Update: Here is the code snippets. def sendmsg(request): if request.method =='POST': messages.add_message(request, messages.INFO, "Hello world") return redirect ('rcvmsg') return render_to_response('sendMsg.html',RequestContext(request)) def rcvmsg(request): '''view that receives the msg.''' printMsg ='Didnt get a message' if messages: thisMsg = messages.get_messages(request) for rcvMsg in thisMsg: printMsg = rcvMsg return render_to_response('rcvMsg.html',{'print_msg':printMsg},RequestContext(request)) URL: url(r'^rcvMsg/','mydomain.mainApp.views.rcvmsg',name='rcvmsg'), (r'^sendMsg/code','mydomain.mainApp.views.sendmsg'),

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  • Integration test for H1 text failing when it should be passing (Rspec and Capybara)

    - by rebec
    Below you can see my test for what happens when a user tries to access the page to edit a profile photo that they don't own. I've used the same test on the NEW action, where it worked fine, but it surprised me by failing when I copied it down to the EDIT action tests. I've used save_and_open_page to test what Capybara's seeing (as you can see below); the resulting page definitely has an h1 with the specified text in it. No spelling errors, and case is all the same as in the test. I've tried using both have_css and have_selector. Both fail. I'm still learning Ruby, Rails, Rspec and especially Capybara (was using webrat previously and recently switched over), and wonder if I'm misconceiving of something that's making me expect this to pass when it doesn't. Any thoughts? Thanks! describe "EDIT" do let(:user) { FactoryGirl.create(:user) } let(:different_user) { FactoryGirl.create(:user) } let(:admin_user) { FactoryGirl.create(:user, role: "admin") } let(:profile_photo1) { FactoryGirl.create(:profile_photo, user: user) } subject { page } context "when signed in as any member" do before { login different_user visit edit_user_profile_photo_path(:id => profile_photo1, :user_id => profile_photo1.user_id) save_and_open_page } # It should deny access with an Unauthorised/Forbidden message. it { should have_css('h1', text: "Unauthorised/Forbidden.") } end

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  • What does the Asterisk * mean in Objective-C?

    - by Thanks
    Is it true, that the Asterisk always means "Hey, that is a pointer!" And an Pointer always holds an memory adress? (Yes I know for the exception that a * is used for math operation) For Example: NSString* myString; or SomeClass* thatClass; or (*somePointerToAStruct).myStructComponent = 5; I feel that there is more I need to know about the Asterirsk (*) than that I use it when defining an Variable that is a pointer to a class. Because sometimes I already say in the declaration of an parameter that the Parameter variable is a pointer, and still I have to use the Asterisk in front of the Variable in order to access the value. That recently happened after I wanted to pass a pointer of an struct to a method in a way like [myObj myMethod:&myStruct], I could not access a component value from that structure even though my method declaration already said that there is a parameter (DemoStruct*)myVar which indeed should be already known as a pointer to that demostruct, still I had always to say: "Man, compiler. Listen! It IIISSS a pointer:" and write: (*myVar).myStructComponentX = 5; I really really really do not understand why I have to say that twice. And only in this case. When I use the Asterisk in context of an NSString* myString then I can just access myString however I like, without telling the compiler each time that it's a pointer. i.e. like using *myString = @"yep". It just makes no sense to me.

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  • PHP: cannot matching string "<br />

    - by Patrick
    hi, I'm having problems with string matching in PHP. I've 2 html elements in my page, I've copy pasted here the content with Firebug <div class="field-item odd"> <div class="field-label-inline-first"> Year:</div> 2009 </div> <div class="field-item odd"> <div class="field-label-inline-first"> Synopsis:</div> &lt;br /&gt; </div> This php line works perfectly (the element with 2009 is detected) <?php if ($items[0]['view'] == '2009') : echo "ok"; ?> However I'm not able to match the string containing element: <?php if ($items[0]['view'] == '<br />') : echo "ok"; ?> //doesn't work <?php if ($items[0]['view'] == '&lt;br /&gt;') : echo "ok"; ?> //again doesn't work any tip ? To give you some context: The strings are produced by CKEditor, an editor I'm using in my Drupal back-end. When I leave empty this editor, the tag is displayed on the string as plain text (because I set "plain text" as formatting option in the back-end) Thanks

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  • Is there such a thing as a MemberExpression that handles a many-to-many relationship?

    - by Jaxidian
    We're trying to make it easy to write strongly-typed code in all areas of our system, so rather than setting var sortColumn = "FirstName" we'd like to say sortOption = (p => p.FirstName). This works great if the sortOption is of type Expression<Func<Person, object>> (we actually use generics in our code but that doesn't matter). However, we run into problems for many-to-many relationships because this notation breaks down. Consider this simple code: internal class Business { public IQueryable<Address> Addresses { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } } internal class Address { public State MyState { get; set; } } internal class State { public string Abbreviation { get; set; } public int StateID { get; set; } } Is it possible to have this sort of MemberExpression to identify the StateID column off of a business? Again, the purpose of using this is not to return a StateID object, it's to just identify that property off of that entity (for sorting, filtering, and other purposes). It SEEMS to me that there should be some way to do this, even if it's not quite as pretty as foo = business.Addresses.SomeExtension(a => a.State.StateID);. Is this really possible? If more background is needed, take a look at this old question of mine. We've since updated the code significantly, but this should give you the general detailed idea of the context behind this question.

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  • What are the potential problems with exposing the Facebook API secret?

    - by genehack
    I'm writing a little web utility that posts status updates to Twitter and/or Facebook. That involved creating 'applications' with both those services in order to get API keys and 'secrets'. My question is how protected I really need to keep those secrets -- in order for this to work at all, you seem to need the secret to interact with the authentication part of the service to grant the app access to your account and/or grant it permission to post updates on your behalf. Facebook's documentation says to protect the secret, but at least one other Facebook utility distributes the API key and secret in the source. It's important to note: this isn't your standard Facebook 'application' that runs within the context of Facebook, nor is it a standard "desktop"-style compiled app -- it's a web-based application intended to be run on your own web server. The audience for this is probably small and somewhat more sophisticated than average -- so, one technical alternative would be to require people to obtain their own API key and secret to use the app. That seems like a lot of work, however, and a fairly large barrier to entry to anybody using this. Anybody know or have any insight on what sort of trouble I'm letting myself in for if I put both the secrets and the API keys in the config for my app and check it into Github for all the world to see?

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  • Data transformation question

    - by tkm
    I have data composed of a list of employers and a list of workers. Each has a many-to-many relationship with the other (so an employer can have many workers, and a worker can have many employers). The way the data is retrieved (and given to me) is as follows: each employer has an array of workers. In other words: employer n has: worker x, worker y etc. So I have a bunch of employer objects each containing an array of workers. I need to transform this data (and basically invert the relationship). I need to have a bunch of worker objects, each containing and array of employers. In other words: worker x has: employer n1, employer n2 etc. The context is hypothetical so please don't comment on why I need this or why I am doing it this way. I would really just like help on the algorithm to perform this transformation (there isn't that much data so I would prefer readability over complex optimizations which reduce complexity). (Oh and I am using Java, but pseudocode would be fine). Thanks!

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