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• How can I remove HTTP headers with .htaccess in Apache?

  - by Daniel Magliola

  I have a website that is sending out "cache-control" and "pragma" HTTP headers for PHP requests. I'm not doing that in the code, so I'm assuming it's some kind of Apache configuration, as suggested by this question (you don't really need to go there for this question's context) I don't have anything in my .htaccess files, so it's gotta be in Apache's configuration itself, but I can't access that, this is a shared hosting, I only have FTP access to my website's directory. Is there any way that I can add directives to my .htaccess files that will remove the headers added by the global configuration, or otherwise override the directive so that they're not added in the first place? Thank you very much Daniel

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• What is the best way to deserialize generics written with a different version of a signed assembly?

  - by Rick Minerich

  In other cases it has been suggested that you simply add a SerializationBinder which removes the version from the assembly type. However, when using generic collections of a type found in a signed assembly, that type is strictly versioned based on its assembly. Here is what I've found works. internal class WeaklyNamedAssemblyBinder : SerializationBinder { public override Type BindToType(string assemblyName, string typeName) { ResolveEventHandler handler = new ResolveEventHandler(CurrentDomain_AssemblyResolve); AppDomain.CurrentDomain.AssemblyResolve += handler; Type returnedType; try { AssemblyName asmName = new AssemblyName(assemblyName); var assembly = Assembly.Load(asmName); returnedType = assembly.GetType(typeName); } catch { returnedType = null; } finally { AppDomain.CurrentDomain.AssemblyResolve -= handler; } return returnedType; } Assembly CurrentDomain_AssemblyResolve(object sender, ResolveEventArgs args) { string truncatedAssemblyName = args.Name.Split(',')[0]; Assembly assembly = Assembly.Load(truncatedAssemblyName); return assembly; } } However, causing the binding process to change globally seems rather dangerous to me. Strange things could happen if serialization was happening in multiple threads. Perhaps a better solution is to do some regex manipulation of the typeName? What do you think?

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• How do I simulate the usage of a sequence of web pages?

  - by Rory Becker

  I have a simple sequence of web pages written in ASP.Net 3.5 SP1. Page1 - A Logon Form.... txtUsername, txtPassword and cmdLogon Page2 - A Menu (created using DevExpress ASP.Net controls) Page3 - The page redirected to by the server in the event that the user picks the right menu option in Page2 I would like to create a threaded program to simulate many users trying to use this sequence of pages. I have managed to create a host Winforms app which Launches a new thread for each "User" I have further managed to work out the basics of WebRequest enough to perform a request which retrieves the Logon page itself. Dim Request As HttpWebRequest = TryCast(WebRequest.Create("http://MyURL/Logon.aspx"), HttpWebRequest) Dim Response As HttpWebResponse = TryCast(Request.GetResponse(), HttpWebResponse) Dim ResponseStream As StreamReader = New StreamReader(Response.GetResponseStream(), Encoding.GetEncoding(1252)) Dim HTMLResponse As String = ResponseStream.ReadToEnd() Response.Close() ResponseStream.Close() Next I need to simulate the user having entered information into the 2 TextBoxes and pressing logon.... I have a hunch this requires me to add the right sort of "PostData" to the request. before submitting. However I'm also concerned that "ViewState" may be an issue. Am I correct regarding the PostData? How do I add the postData to the request? Do I need to be concerned about Viewstate? Update: While I appreciate that Selenium or similar products are useful for acceptance testing , I find that they are rather clumsy for what amounts to load testing. I would prefer not to load 100 instances of Firefox or IE in order to simulate 100 users hitting my site. This was the reason I was hoping to take the ASPNet HttpWebRequest route.

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• Right way of making muti-site and multi-lingual website on codeigniter

  - by DR.GEWA

  Hi there. Beforehand let me thank you all !! Really guys you help a lot. When I will finish my web site and will have much time on watching how userbase is growing I will come here again and again to answer to another people questions(if I can ) So here is the problem. I made a web-site on CodeIgniter. A social network engine. Something like phpfox, classmates_com or facebook. It's right now somehow not multilingual, So the UI strings are in the view files, and next step will be move them to the language files. I want the user to have ability to change the language. So I assume that in database user will have row "lang_local" which would be by default set to en, and then to any other language he will change . So what is eating my nervs and enery is following. I will make on this engine several demographic social networks,and I would like to manage theese web-sites in centralized manner with one backend . So whenever I would like to make a new web-network, I just add the domain settings install the script in new folder and add it in database sites I see it like this on every table in database like users,comments,messages,categories ,etc I will have a row site_id , and on each query add/update/delete I add a WHERE SITE_ID=XXX and in table sites(site_id,site_name,domain_name) will have all domains , so that in backend I can filter data by website. Is this a good way? What if i will need then to be multiserver, what about load balancing? Who can tell me what would be a right,PROFESSIONAL way? My maximum user limit for a database is something like for start 10.000 in one-two year 100.000users

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• Sharing an external hard drive in Ubuntu using Samba

  - by cambraca

  /media/MYDISK is where my hard drive is mounted automatically. I created a symlink using: ln -s /media/MYDISK /home/camilo/MYDISK chmod 777 /home/camilo/MYDISK I'm setting up smb.conf like this: [myshare1] comment = external disk browsable = yes path = /home/camilo/MYDISK guest ok = yes read only = no create mask = 0775 Also, in the [global] section I tried adding the following lines: follow symlinks = yes wide links = yes unix extensions = no The problem is that when browsing the shared folder in Windows 7, I get a "\\etc\myshare1 is not accessible" error. When pointing the path to a regular folder it works fine. Also, when I point it directly to /media/MYDISK, it shows the same error. EDIT: to make it more interesting, I have no graphical interface, so I need to touch the config files directly..

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• using the ASP.NET Caching API via method annotations in C#

  - by craigmoliver

  In C#, is it possible to decorate a method with an annotation to populate the cache object with the return value of the method? Currently I'm using the following class to cache data objects: public class SiteCache { // 7 days + 6 hours (offset to avoid repeats peak time) private const int KeepForHours = 174; public static void Set(string cacheKey, Object o) { if (o != null) HttpContext.Current.Cache.Insert(cacheKey, o, null, DateTime.Now.AddHours(KeepForHours), TimeSpan.Zero); } public static object Get(string cacheKey) { return HttpContext.Current.Cache[cacheKey]; } public static void Clear(string sKey) { HttpContext.Current.Cache.Remove(sKey); } public static void Clear() { foreach (DictionaryEntry item in HttpContext.Current.Cache) { Clear(item.Key.ToString()); } } } In methods I want to cache I do this: [DataObjectMethod(DataObjectMethodType.Select)] public static SiteSettingsInfo SiteSettings_SelectOne_Name(string Name) { var ck = string.Format("SiteSettings_SelectOne_Name-Name_{0}-", Name.ToLower()); var dt = (DataTable)SiteCache.Get(ck); if (dt == null) { dt = new DataTable(); dt.Load(ModelProvider.SiteSettings_SelectOne_Name(Name)); SiteCache.Set(ck, dt); } var info = new SiteSettingsInfo(); foreach (DataRowView dr in dt.DefaultView) info = SiteSettingsInfo_Load(dr); return info; } Is it possible to separate those concerns like so: (notice the new annotation) [CacheReturnValue] [DataObjectMethod(DataObjectMethodType.Select)] public static SiteSettingsInfo SiteSettings_SelectOne_Name(string Name) { var dt = new DataTable(); dt.Load(ModelProvider.SiteSettings_SelectOne_Name(Name)); var info = new SiteSettingsInfo(); foreach (DataRowView dr in dt.DefaultView) info = SiteSettingsInfo_Load(dr); return info; }

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• Using MEF with exporting project that uses resources (xml) contained in the xap.

  - by JSmyth

  I'm doing a proof of concept app in SL4 using MEF and as part of the app I am importing another xap from an existing Silverlight Project and displaying it in my host project. The problem is that the existing app uses some .xml files (as content) and it uses linq2xml to load these files which are (assumed to be) bundled in the xap. When I compose the application the initalization fails because the host app doesn't contain the xml files. If I copy these xml files into the host project and run it the composition works fine. However, I need to keep the xml files in the original project. Is there a way that I can download a xap and look at it's contents for xml files and then load them into the host xap at runtime so that after the compostion takes place the xml resources that are required can be found? Or should I work out some kind of contract with an import/export to pass the xml files to the host xap? As the people developing the imported xaps (should the project go ahead) are from a different company, I would like to keep changes to the way they develop their apps to a minimum.

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• Pass Variable to Java Method from an Ant Target

  - by user200317

  At the moment I have a .properties file to store settings related to the framework. Example: default.auth.url=http://someserver-at008:8080/ default.screenshots=false default.dumpHTML=false And I have written a class to extract those values and here is the method of that class. public static String getResourceAsStream(String defaultProp) { String defaultPropValue = null; //String keys = null; try { InputStream inputStream = SeleniumDefaultProperties.class.getClassLoader().getResourceAsStream(PROP_FILE); Properties properties = new Properties(); //load the input stream using properties. properties.load(inputStream); defaultPropValue = properties.getProperty(defaultProp); }catch (IOException e) { log.error("Something wrong with .properties file, check the location.", e); } return defaultPropValue; } Throughout the application I use method like follows to just exact property needed, public String getBrowserDefaultCommand() { String bcmd = SeleniumDefaultProperties.getResourceAsStream("default.browser.command"); if(bcmd.equals("")) handleMissingConfigProperties(SeleniumDefaultProperties.getResourceAsStream("default.browser.command")); return bcmd; } But I have not decided do a change to this and use ant and pass a parameter instead of using it from .properties file. I was wondering how could I pass a value to a Java Method using ANT. Non of these classes have Main methods and will not have any main. Due to this I was unable to use it as a java system properties. Thanks in advance.

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• Personal Cache vs Memcache?

  - by Kerry

  I have a personal caching class, which can be seen here ( based off WordPress' ): http://pastie.org/988427 I recently learned about memcache and it said to memcache EVERYTHING: http://highscalability.com/blog/2010/5/17/7-lessons-learned-while-building-reddit-to-270-million-page.html My first thought was just to keep my class with the current functions and make it use memcache instead -- is there any downside to doing this? The main difference I see is that memcache stays on with the server from page to page, while mine is for 1 page load. The problem I see arising, and this is with any system, is that they're dynamic. They change all the time. Whether its search results, visible products, etc. etc. If it's all cached, won't the create a problem? Is there a way to handle this? Obviously if something is bringing back the same results everytime it would be cached, but that's why I was doing it on a per page load basis. I'm sure there is a way to handle this, or is the cache time usually set between 5 minutes and an hour?

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• How to override the default init.tcl

  - by Sean Murphy

  I'm working on a project where I want to make use of TCL as the command interpreter. I have a working c library object which I can load from within the tcl shell but my problem is finding a way to automatically do this while starting a tclsh. Essentially my ultimate goal is to be able to run a script and have it load my library and run some initial startup tcl code before dropping me back to the tclsh command prompt in interactive mode. e.g. tclsh -f myscript.tcl --then-switch-to-interactive or EXPORT TCLINIT=myscript.tcl tclsh The basic goal is to avoid having to distribute tclsh but rather rely in local user installations of tcl. All I would like to distribute is my library, a startup script and a shell command to launch the tclsh with the library preloaded. I've tried using the environment variables TCLINIT and TCL_LIBRARY but they seem to have no effect. The only workable solutions I've found so far are to add "source myscript.tcl" to either the end of /usr/share/tcltk/tcl8.5.init.tcl or ~/.tclshrc However both of these "solutions" are non perfect as they require modification of the default users workspace. It strikes me that there must be a way to handle this in TCL, but my research so far hasn't yielded anything. Does anyone have any suggestions?

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• data replication from a production web server back to the staging web server

  - by Dennis Smith

  Have two web servers, development/staging and production. Code and some documentation is moved from the staging area to production either through on-demand jobs or nightly via a global replication job. The production server of course sits isolated in a DMZ. There is some content that gets uploaded to the live server that needs to be replicated back to staging. Our security team is locking the network down (and they should) and restricting access to the live server. Best suggestions for replication of "live" data back to "stage" and backing up the live server also.

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• AS3 URLRequest in for Loop problem

  - by Adrian

  Hi guys, I read some data from a xml file, everything works great besides urls. I can't figure what's the problem with the "navigateURL" function or with the eventListener... on which square I click it opens the last url from the xml file for(var i:Number = 0; i <= gamesInput.game.length() -1; i++) { var square:square_mc = new square_mc(); //xml values var tGame_name:String = gamesInput.game.name.text()[i];//game name var tGame_id:Number = gamesInput.children()[i].attributes()[2].toXMLString();//game id var tGame_thumbnail:String = thumbPath + gamesInput.game.thumbnail.text()[i];//thumb path var tGame_url:String = gamesInput.game.url.text()[i];//game url addChild(square); square.tgname_txt.text = tGame_name; square.tgurl_txt.text = tGame_url; //load & attach game thumb var getThumb:URLRequest = new URLRequest(tGame_thumbnail); var loadThumb:Loader = new Loader(); loadThumb.load(getThumb); square.addChild(loadThumb); // square.y = squareY; square.x = squareX; squareX += square.width + 10; square.buttonMode = true; this.addEventListener(MouseEvent.CLICK, navigateURL); } function navigateURL(event:MouseEvent):void { var url:URLRequest = new URLRequest(tGame_url); navigateToURL(url, "_blank"); trace(tGame_url); } Many thanks!

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• Codeigniter common templates

  - by Darthg8r

  Let's say that I have a website that has 100 different pages. Each page uses a common header and footer. Inside the header is some dynamic content that comes from a database. I'd like to avoid having to have code in every single controller and action that passes this common code into the view. function index() { // It sucks to have to include this on every controller action. data['title'] = "This is the index page"; data['currentUserName'] = "John Smith"; $this->load->view("main_view", data); } function comments() { // It sucks to have to include this on every controller action. data['title'] = "Comment list"; data['currentUserName'] = "John Smith"; $this->load->view("comment_view", data); } I realize that I could refactor the code so that the common parts are in a single function and the function is called by the action. Doing so would reduce SOME of the pain, but it still doesn't feel right since I'd still have to make a call to that function every time. What's the correct way to handle this?

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• C# How to perform a live xslt transformation on an in memory object?

  - by JL

  I have a function that takes 2 parameters : 1 = XML file, 2 = XSLT file, then performs a transformation and returns the resulting HTML. Here is the function: /// <summary> /// Will apply an XSLT style to any XML file and return the rendered HTML. /// </summary> /// <param name="xmlFileName"> /// The file name of the XML document. /// </param> /// <param name="xslFileName"> /// The file name of the XSL document. /// </param> /// <returns> /// The rendered HTML. /// </returns> public string TransformXml(string xmlFileName, string xslFileName) { var xtr = new XmlTextReader(xmlFileName) { WhitespaceHandling = WhitespaceHandling.None }; var xd = new XmlDocument(); xd.Load(xtr); var xslt = new System.Xml.Xsl.XslCompiledTransform(); xslt.Load(xslFileName); var stm = new MemoryStream(); xslt.Transform(xd, null, stm); stm.Position = 1; var sr = new StreamReader(stm); xtr.Close(); return sr.ReadToEnd(); } I want to change the function not to accept a file for the XML, but instead just an object. The object is exactly compatible with the xslt, if it was serialized to file. But I don't want to have to serialize it to a file first. So to recap : keep the xslt coming from a file, but the xml input should an object I pass and would like to generate the xml from without any file system interaction.

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• Where are the Microsoft downloaded app compat updates stored?

  - by Ian Boyd

  Where are the Microsoft application compatibility update settings stored on a Windows XP, Windows Vista, and Windows 7 computer? Microsoft periodically release application compatibility updates (e.g. KB929427), where they list the shims that should be applied to a program in order to workaround known bugs in the software. Where are these app compat flags stored, and how can i see what shims are being applied? i have a feeling that a recent app compat update included a flag to force a particular piece of software, that we use, to require administrator. Because the task is scheduled to run nightly, and the running user does not have administrative privelages, the task is failing to start. The application is requiring to be elevated. It has the UAC shield overlay. The application has no RT_MANIFEST resource, and the compatibility option Run this program as administrator is disabled (per-user and all users). So all that's left is some secret global setting. i know user-specified compat flags are stored in: HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE \SOFTWARE \Microsoft \Windows NT \CurrentVersion \AppCompatFlags \Layers

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• java.security.AccessControlException : access denied (java.util.PropertyPermission http.agent read)

  - by Stefano Borini

  I have a non-signed java applet interacting with the same host. Every time I click on an element in my page, the applet (which is a third part applet I have no control on) should load data from a URL. I say should, because for some files, I get java.security.AccessControlException : access denied (java.util.PropertyPermission http.agent read) and some other files are correctly loaded. All files are correctly readable and downloadable from the web server, and they are very simple text files. I also found that, in some cases, files that previously returned the error are now loaded and continue to load, so it seems a cache is involved somehow. Does any of you have an idea of what's going on here ? The behavior seems to be absolutely random, and I have no way of performing debug on this thing. Note: I used this applet to perform many other "single shot" file access, and it never gave me any problem. The only apparent difference I have is that now I do it "on-demand" via a javascript event. What could be the cause, in the java of the applet or anywhere else ?

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• Injection of an EJB into a web java class under JBoss 7.1.1

  - by Dobbo

  I am trying to build a website using JBoss 7.1.1 and RESTeasy. I have managed to constructed and deploy and EAR with a both a WAR and an EJB-JAR contained within: voyager-app.ear META-INF/MANIFEST.MF META-INF/application.xml META-INF/jboss-app.xml lib/voyager-lib.jar voyager-adm.war voyager-ejb.jar voyager-web.war So far things are very simple. voyager-adm.war & voyager-lib.jar are empty (just the manifest file) but I know that I'm going to have code for them shortly. There is just one Stateful EJB - HarbourMasterBean (with just a local interface) and a few Database Entity Beans in the EJB jar file: voyager-ejb.jar META-INF/MANIFEST.MF META-INF/persistence.xml com/nutrastat/voyager/db/HarbourMasterBean.class com/nutrastat/voyager/db/HarbourMasterLocal.class com/nutrastat/voyager/db/PortEntity.class com/nutrastat/voyager/db/ShipEntity.class As far as I can tell the EJBs deploy correctly because the database units are created and the log shows that the publication of some HarbourMaster references: java:global/voyager-app/voyager-ejb/harbour-master!com.nutrastat.voyager.db.HarbourMasterLocal java:app/voyager-ejb/harbour-master!com.nutrastat.voyager.db.HarbourMasterLocal java:module/harbour-master!com.nutrastat.voyager.db.HarbourMasterLocal java:global/voyager-app/voyager-ejb/harbour-master java:app/voyager-ejb/harbour-master java:module/harbour-master The problem lies in getting the HarbourMaster EJB injected into my web bean. The reference to it is alway NULL no matter what I try. voyager-web.war META-INF/MANIFEST.MF WEB-INF/web.xml WEB-INF/classes/com/nutrastat/voyager/web/ WEB-INF/classes/com/nutrastat/voyager/web/Ships.class WEB-INF/classes/com/nutrastat/voyager/web/VoyagerApplication.class Ships.java: @Path("fleet") public class Ships { protected transient final Logger log; @EJB private HarbourMasterLocal harbourMaster; public Ships() { log = LoggerFactory.getLogger(getClass()); } @GET @Path("ships") @Produces({"text/plain"}) public String listShips() { if (log.isDebugEnabled()) log.debug("Harbour master value: " + harbourMaster); return "Harbour Master: " + harbourMaster; } } &lt;web-app xmlns="http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/javaee" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xsi:schemaLocation="http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/javaee http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/javaee/web-app_3_0.xsd" version="3.0" &gt; <display-name>Voyager Web Application</display-name> <listener> <listener-class> org.jboss.resteasy.plugins.server.servlet.ResteasyBootstrap </listener-class> </listener> <servlet> <servlet-name>Resteasy</servlet-name> <servlet-class> org.jboss.resteasy.plugins.server.servlet.HttpServletDispatcher </servlet-class> <init-param> <param-name> javax.ws.rs.Application </param-name> <param-value> com.nutrastat.voyager.web.VoyagerApplication </param-value> </init-param> </servlet> <servlet-mapping> <servlet-name>Resteasy</servlet-name> <url-pattern>/*</url-pattern> </servlet-mapping> &lt;/web-app&gt; I have been searching the web for an answer and read a number of places, both on StackOverflow and elsewhere that suggests is can be done, and that the problems lies with configuration. But they post only snippets and I'm never sure if I'm doing things correctly. Many thanks for any help you can provide. Dobbo

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• Are dots legal in the name property of an HTML button

  - by justSteve

  a page with a bit of MVC code: <%=Html.SubmitButton("ChooseWebinar.Submit", "Continue to Registration Details")%><br/> that generates an input button where the '.' is embedded in the name: [rendered html] At page load this control (the submit button) is hidden - when one of two different dropdowns registers a value, the button is shown: function toggleChooseWebinarSubmit() { if ($("#ChooseWebinar_RecordedWebinarId").val() || $("#ChooseWebinar_UpcomingWebinarId").val()) { $("#ChooseWebinar_Submit").show(); } else { $("#ChooseWebinar_Submit").hide(); } I've just received a report from an IE8 user who says that after selecting a value in a dropdown, the button is _not displaying. I can't reproduce the condition (i've tried compatibility mode too). Obviously the show/hide is targeting the 'ID' selector but i can't help but wonder about that period in the control's name. Any known issues? - or perhaps the .change is problematic and the toggle's never getting called: $(window).load(function() { toggleChooseWebinarSubmit(); $("#ChooseWebinar_UpcomingWebinarId").change(function() { if ($(this).val()) { $("#ChooseWebinar_RecordedWebinarId").val(""); } toggleChooseWebinarSubmit(); }); $("#ChooseWebinar_RecordedWebinarId").change(function() { if ($(this).val()) { $("#ChooseWebinar_UpcomingWebinarId").val(""); } toggleChooseWebinarSubmit(); }); }); thx

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• google maps not showing actual map and postcode

  - by Andy

  Im trying to pass a dynamically generated postode to a page. But currently its not showing the map correctly. Any ideas? Heres my head tag <script src="http://www.google.com/jsapi?key=ABQIAAAANQzcZVPOkiHWMZO3zxREGRSlIja3KBL7jZ08tky_uJrV3vVYdxTCwTHJPA2Vn06DLdnCWvRW_w7VYQ" type="text/javascript"></script> <script language="Javascript" type="text/javascript"> var localSearch; var map; var icon; var addressMarkerOptions; google.load("search", "1"); google.load("maps", "2"); google.setOnLoadCallback(initialize); function initialize() { localSearch = new GlocalSearch(); icon = new GIcon(G_DEFAULT_ICON); addressMarkerOptions = { icon:icon , draggable: false}; map = new GMap2(document.getElementById("map")); map.addControl(new GLargeMapControl()); map.addControl(new GMapTypeControl()); plotAddress("OX4 1FJ"); } /** * This takes either a postcode or an address string * */ function plotAddress(address) { localSearch.setSearchCompleteCallback(null, function() { if (localSearch.results[0]) { var resultLat = localSearch.results[0].lat; var resultLng = localSearch.results[0].lng; var point = new GLatLng(resultLat,resultLng); var marker = new GMarker(point, addressMarkerOptions); map.addOverlay(marker); map.setCenter(point, 5, G_NORMAL_MAP); } else { alert('address not found'); } }); localSearch.execute(address + ", UK"); } </script> It slots into the code below: <div id="map">Loading...</div>

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• PHP (CodeIgniter) Pass Object Through Session

  - by FranticPedantic

  I am using PHP5 and CodeIgniter and I am trying to implement a single-sign on feature with facebook (although I don't think that facebook is relevant to the question). I am somewhat of a novice with PHP and definitely one with CodeIgniter, so if you think my approach is just completely off telling me that would be helpful too. So here is in short what I am doing: //Controller 1 $this->load->plugin("facebook"); $facebook = new Facebook(array ( 'appId' => $fbconfig['appid'], 'secret' => $fbconfig['secret'], 'cookie' => true, ) ); $fbsession = $facebook->getSession(); //works fine $this->session->set_userdata('facebook', serialize($facebook); Now I would like to grab that facebook object in a different controller. //Controller 2 $facebook = unserialize($this->session->userdata('facebook')); $fbsession = $facebook->getSession(); Produces the error: Call to undefined method getSession. So I look up more about serialization and think that maybe it just doesn't know what the facebook object's attributes are. So I add in a $this->load->plugin('facebook'); To controller 2 as well and I get a "Cannot redeclare class facebook." I am strongly suspecting that I am misunderstanding sessions here. Do I have to somehow tell PHP what kind of object it is? Thanks for the help.

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• proper use of volatile keyword

  - by luke

  I think i have a pretty good idea about the volatile keyword in java, but i'm thinking about re-factoring some code and i thought it would be a good idea to use it. i have a class that is basically working as a DB Cache. it holds a bunch of objects that it has read from a database, serves requests for those objects, and then occasionally refreshes the database (based on a timeout). Heres the skeleton public class Cache { private HashMap mappings =....; private long last_update_time; private void loadMappingsFromDB() { //.... } private void checkLoad() { if(System.currentTimeMillis() - last_update_time > TIMEOUT) loadMappingsFromDB(); } public Data get(ID id) { checkLoad(); //.. look it up } } So the concern is that loadMappingsFromDB could be a high latency operation and thats not acceptable, So initially i thought that i could spin up a thread on cache startup and then just have it sleep and then update the cache in the background. But then i would need to synchronize my class (or the map). and then i would just be trading an occasional big pause for making every cache access slower. Then i thought why not use volatile i could define the map reference as volatile private volatile HashMap mappings =....; and then in get (or anywhere else that uses the mappings variable) i would just make a local copy of the reference: public Data get(ID id) { HashMap local = mappings; //.. look it up using local } and then the background thread would just load into a temp table and then swap the references in the class HashMap tmp; //load tmp from DB mappings = tmp;//swap variables forcing write barrier Does this approach make sense? and is it actually thread-safe?

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• How do I get many, but not all, property values from View to Presenter in WebFormsMvp?

  - by andrej351

  Hey there, What is the best way to get a number of property values of a business object from the View to the Presenter in a WebFormsMvp page? Here is what i propose: The scenario is, I have a business object called Quote which i would like to load form the database, edit and then save. The Quote class has heaps of properties on it. The form is concerned with about 20 of these properties. I have existing methods to load/save a Quote object to/from the database. I now need to wire this all together. So, in the View_Load handler on my presenter i intend to do something like this: public void View_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { View.Model.Quote = quoteService.Read(quoteId); } And then bind all my controls as follows: <asp:TextBox ID="TotalPriceTextBox" runat="server" Text="<%# Model.Quote.TotalPrice %>" /> All good, the data is on the screen. The user then makes a bunch of changes and hits a "Submit" button. Here is where I'm unsure. I create a class called QuoteEventArgs exposing the 20 properties the form is able to edit. When the View raises the Submit button's event, I set these properties to the values of the controls in the code behind. Then raise the event for the presenter to respond to. The presenter re-loads the Quote object from the database, sets all the properties and saves it to the database. Is this the right way to do this? If not, what is? Cheers, Andrej.

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• Nhibernate join on a table twice

  - by Zuber

  Consider the following Class structure... public class ListViewControl { public int SystemId {get; set;} public List<ControlAction> Actions {get; set;} public List<ControlAction> ListViewActions {get; set;} } public class ControlAction { public string blahBlah {get; set;} } I want to load class ListViewControl eagerly using NHibernate. The mapping using Fluent is as shown below public UIControlMap() { Id(x => x.SystemId); HasMany(x => x.Actions) .KeyColumn("ActionId") .Cascade.AllDeleteOrphan() .AsBag() .Cache.ReadWrite().IncludeAll(); HasMany(x => x.ListViewActions) .KeyColumn("ListViewActionId") .Cascade.AllDeleteOrphan() .AsBag() .Cache.ReadWrite().IncludeAll(); } This is how I am trying to load it eagerly var baseActions = DetachedCriteria.For<ListViewControl>() .CreateCriteria("Actions", JoinType.InnerJoin) .SetFetchMode("BlahBlah", FetchMode.Eager) .SetResultTransformer(new DistinctRootEntityResultTransformer()); var listViewActions = DetachedCriteria.For<ListViewControl>() .CreateCriteria("ListViewActions", JoinType.InnerJoin) .SetFetchMode("BlahBlah", FetchMode.Eager) .SetResultTransformer(new DistinctRootEntityResultTransformer()); var listViews = DetachedCriteria.For<ListViewControl>() .SetFetchMode("Actions", FetchMode.Eager) .SetFetchMode("ListViewActions",FetchMode.Eager) .SetResultTransformer(new DistinctRootEntityResultTransformer()); var result = _session.CreateMultiCriteria() .Add("listViewActions", listViewActions) .Add("baseActions", baseActions) .Add("listViews", listViews) .SetResultTransformer(new DistinctRootEntityResultTransformer()) .GetResult("listViews"); Now, my problem is that the class ListViewControl get the correct records in both Actions and ListViewActions, but there are multiple entries of the same record. The number of records is equal to the number of joins made to the ControlAction table, in this case two. How can I avoid this? If I remove the SetFetchMode from the listViews query, the actions are loaded lazily through a proxy which I don't want.

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• Update to Easy Slider 1.7 made all my JQuery code stop working.

  - by Anders H

  I'm pretty novice as a JQuery user goes. I've got some experience implementing different plugins but would be lost trying to customize my own. I can't share the exact site details with you due to a NDA, so I hope someone can give me a little help. I've got a project due today (Just HTML/CSS/JQuery). It has a lightbox, show/hide login menu and a slider is Easy Slider 1.5. Everything was working together, until I attempted to update to Easy Slider 1.7 (see link on same page, I'm too new to post more than 1 link). When I did so, JQuery stopped working for all the plugins. I've attempted to revert back to the original state, by undoing my work (didn't do much), ad JQuery remains broken. Firebug Error Console shared no errors. I can't find anything in the code no matter how hard I look at it. Can anyone help me troubleshoot this JQuery problem? Delivery is supposed to be tonight for the project. EDIT: Generic header info: <!-- Global Style Sheet --> <link rel="stylesheet" href="style.css" media="screen" type="text/css" /> <!-- Cufon --> <script src="cufon/cufon.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="cufon/gotham_325-gotham_350.font.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <!-- jQuery Javascript --> <script type="text/javascript" language="javascript" src="js/jquery-1.3.2.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" language="javascript" src="js/jquery-ui-1.7.1.custom.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" language="javascript" src="js/jquery.colorbox.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" language="javascript" src="js/global.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" language="javascript" src="js/home.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $(".signin").click(function(e) { e.preventDefault(); $("fieldset#signin_menu").toggle(); $(".signin").toggleClass("menu-open"); }); $("fieldset#signin_menu").mouseup(function() { return false }); $(document).mouseup(function(e) { if($(e.target).parent("a.signin").length==0) { $(".signin").removeClass("menu-open"); $("fieldset#signin_menu").hide(); } }); }); </script> <script src="javascripts/jquery.tipsy.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script type='text/javascript'> $(function() { $('#forgot_username_link').tipsy({gravity: 'w'}); }); </script> <script type="text/javascript" language="javascript" src="js/easySlider1.5.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function(){ $("#slider").easySlider(); }); </script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function(){ $(".regbox").colorbox({iframe:true, innerWidth:270, innerHeight:270}); }); </script>

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• CrystalDecisions.Web reference version changes suddenly when run the webapp

  - by Somebody

  I'm breaking my head with this issue, I have a webapp that has a report using crystal report, in the development pc it works fine, but when copy the same project to another pc, when I load the project (VS 2003) the following msg appears: One or more projects in solution need to be updated to use Crystal Reports XI Release 2. If you choose "Yes", the update will be applied permanently... I choose "Yes" and after that I can see that CrystalDecisions.Web reference has the correct version, and location according to the develpment machine, in this case: 11.5.3300.0. But when run the webapp, I can see when the version and path suddenly changes to: 11.0.3300.0. And when trying to see the report the following error appears: Parser Error Message: The base class includes the field 'CrystalReportViewer1', but its type (CrystalDecisions.Web.CrystalReportViewer) is not compatible with the type of control (CrystalDecisions.Web.CrystalReportViewer). the asp.net has the following: <%@ Register TagPrefix="cr" Namespace="CrystalDecisions.Web" Assembly="CrystalDecisions.Web, Version=11.5.3300.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=692fbea5521e1304" %> How is this possible? what's happening here? EDIT This is what I did: the wrong version (11.0.3300.0) was located at: C:\Program Files\Common Files\Business Objects\3.0\managed and the right version (11.5.3300.0) is located at: C:\Program Files\Business Objects\Common\3.5\managed So I just deleted the files of the wrong solution, and I made it work in my new computer, no more errors when running the webapp, the report shows fine. But when try to do the same thing in production server, a different error came out, now an exception: This report could not be loaded due to the following issue: The type initializer for 'CrystalDecisions.CristalReports.Engine.ReportDocument' threw an exception. Any idea what could be causing this error now? Here is the code: Try Dim cr As New ReportDocument cr.Load(strpath) cr.SetDatabaseLogon("usring", "pwding") Select Case rt Case 1 cr.SummaryInfo.ReportTitle = "RMA Ticket" Case 2 cr.SummaryInfo.ReportTitle = "Service Ticket" End Select 'cr.SummaryInfo.ReportTitle = tt cr.SetParameterValue("TicketNo", tn) 'cr.SummaryInfo.ReportComments = comment CrystalReportViewer1.PrintMode = CrystalDecisions.Web.PrintMode.ActiveX CrystalReportViewer1.ReportSource = cr CrystalReportViewer1.ShowFirstPage() 'cr.Close() 'cr.Dispose() Catch ex As Exception MsgBox1.alert("This report could not be loaded due to the following issue: " & ex.Message) End Try

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