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  • NSFileManager works fine on simulator but not on device

    - by Jenicek
    Hi, I have problem creating directories and files with NSFileManager on the iPhone device. My code, shown below, works fine on the simulator, but not on the device, could you please help me? Gimme some directions where the problem may be, thanks for every reply.. I'm first creating directories this way: NSFileManager *fileMgr = [NSFileManager defaultManager]; NSArray *arPaths = NSSearchPathForDirectoriesInDomains(NSDownloadsDirectory, NSUserDomainMask, YES); NSString *appPath = [[NSString alloc] init]; appPath = [arPaths objectAtIndex:0]; strDownloadsDir = [[NSString alloc] init]; strDownloadsDir = [[appPath stringByAppendingPathComponent:@"/Other"] copy]; if(![fileMgr fileExistsAtPath:strDownloadsDir]) [fileMgr createDirectoryAtPath:strDownloadsDir attributes:nil]; and then I'm trying to create new file in this directory this way: NSString *filePath = [strDownloadsDir stringByAppendingPathComponent:strDlFileName]; //Test whether this file exists, if not, create it NSLog(@"%@", filePath); if(![fileMgr fileExistsAtPath:filePath]) { if([fileMgr createFileAtPath:filePath contents:nil attributes:nil]) NSLog(@"Creating new file at path %@", filePath); else NSLog(@"Failed to create new file."); } It seems that there's something wrong with whole NSFileManager, because when I'm using fileExistAtPath with a path given by this NSArray *arPaths = NSSearchPathForDirectoriesInDomains(NSDownloadsDirectory, NSUserDomainMask, YES); NSString *appPath = [[NSString alloc] init]; appPath = [arPaths objectAtIndex:0]; it is not working too, I tried to change directory to NSDocumentsDirectory but it did not help

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  • Version control a content management system?

    - by Mike
    I have the following directory structure in the CMS application we have written: /application /modules /cms /filemanager /block /pages /sitemap /youtube /rss /skin /backend /default /css /js /images /frontend /default /css /js /images Application contains code specific to the current CMS implementation, i.e code for this specific cms. Modules contain reusable portions of code that we share across projects, such as libraries to work with youtube or rss feeds. We include these as git submodules, so that we can update the module in any website and push the changes back across all other projects. It makes it really easy to apply a change to our code and distribute it. We wanted to turn the CMS into a module so we get the same benefit - we can run the entire project under source control, then update the cms as required through a git-submodule. We have run into a problem however: the cms requires javascript/images/css in order for it to work correctly. Things we have thought about: We could create 2 submodules, one for cms-skin and one for cms, but this means you cannot "git pull" one version without having some idea of which versions of skin work with which versions of cms. i.e version 1.2.2 CMS might have issues with 1.0.3 CMS-Skin We could add the skin to the cms module but this has the following problems: Skin should be available on the document root, module code shouldn't be, and if it is it should probably be secured via .htaccess It doesn't seem to make any sense bundling assets with php code We could create a symlink between /skin/backend/ to go to /modules/cms/skin but does this cause any security problems, and do we want to require something like a symlink for the application to work? We could create a hook for git or a shell script that copies files from modules/cms/skin to skin/backend when an update occurs, but this means we lose the ability to edit CMS core files in a project then push them back How is this typically done in large scale cms's? How is it possible to get the source code for a cms under version control, work on the application for a client, then update the sourcecode as releases and given by the vendor? How do applications like Magento or Drupal do this?

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  • Web application creation in IIS7 via MS.Web.Admin

    - by Jon Ownbey
    I am attempting to create seperate workflow instances as applications in IIS7 using the Microsoft.Web.Administration dll. When it attempts to add the Application to the Site ApplicationsCollection I get a COM error: "Invalid application path\r\n" using (ServerManager manager = new ServerManager()) { var site = manager.Sites.Where(x => x.Name == Properties.Settings.Default.WorkflowWebsiteName).Single(); StringBuilder stringBuilder = new StringBuilder() .Append(m_workflowDefinition.AccountId) .Append("/") .Append(m_workflowDefinition.WorkflowDefinitionId) .Append("/") .Append(m_workflowDefinition.Version) .Append("/"); string virtualPath = stringBuilder.ToString(); string physicalPath = Properties.Settings.Default.ApplicationPoolString + virtualPath.Replace("/", "\\"); if (!Directory.Exists(physicalPath)) Directory.CreateDirectory(physicalPath); //Create the workflow service definition file using (StreamWriter writer = new StreamWriter(Path.Combine(physicalPath, m_workflowDefinition.WorkflowName + WORKFLOW_FILE_EXTENSION))) { writer.Write(m_workflowDefinition.Definition); } //Copy dependencies string dependencyPath = m_workflowDefinition.DependenciesPath; CopyAll(new DirectoryInfo(dependencyPath), new DirectoryInfo(physicalPath)); //Create a new IIS application for the workflow var apps = site.Applications.Where(x => x.Path == virtualPath); if (apps.Count() > 0) { site.Applications.Remove(apps.Single()); } Application app = site.Applications.Add(virtualPath, physicalPath); app.ApplicationPoolName = "Workflow AppPool"; app.EnabledProtocols = PROTOCOLS; manager.CommitChanges(); } The value assigned to virtualPath is like: "something/something/something" and for physicalPath it is "c:\inetpub\wwwroot\Workflow\something\something\something". Any ideas? Any help is greatly appreciated.

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  • Creating a drop-down row in displaytag

    - by bphilipnyc
    I am currently using displaytag for tabular data, but would like to create a "kayak.com-like" interface where when a user clicks a row, the user is shown more details about the particular row without a page refresh. I tried using a decorator to return javascript that would do this. The javascript is executed, but it is only reflected in the column where it was rendered. I am looking to create a new row with the data. e.g.: public class CustomDecorator extends TableDecorator { public String getDetailsRow() { MyObject object = (MyObject)this.getCurrentRowObject(); return "<a onClick=\"myjsfunction(object.getId()); return true\">Details</a>"; } } ...and in the JSP I would have a detailsRow property nested between the display:table tags: <display:column property="detailsRow" sortable="false" /> Any tips on how to create a new row? The solution may be in the way that the javascript is written - I'm not an expert with Javascript, so any tips would be appreciated. Is there a better way to do this with displaytag? I don't know of any explicit integration that displaytag has with javascript (like an "onclick" parameter) either. This is my first question on stackoverflow, btw - so please let me know whether you need more detail.

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  • How can I internationalize strings representing C# enum values?

    - by Duke
    I've seen many questions and answers about mapping strings to enums and vice-versa, but how can I map a series of localized strings to enums? Should I just create an extension method like this that returns the proper string from a resource file? Is there a way to localize attributes (like "Description") that are used in solutions like this? Which is the preferred solution - extension method or attributes. It seems to me that this isn't the intended purpose of attributes. In fact, now that I think about it, if I were to use an extension method an attribute seems like something I'd use to specify a key in a resource file for the localized string I want to use in place of the enum value. EDIT - example: Given the following enum, public enum TransactionTypes { Cheque = 1, BankTransfer = 2, CreditCard = 3 } I would like a way to map each type to a localized string. I started off with an extension method for the enum that uses a switch statement and strongly typed references to the resource file. However, an extension method for every enum doesn't seem like a great solution. I've started following this to create a custom attribute for each enumerated value. The attribute has a base name and key for the resource file containing localized strings. In the above enum, for example, I have this: ... [EnumResourceAttribute("FinancialTransaction", "Cheque")] Cheque = 1, ... Where "FinanacialTransaction" is the resx file and "Cheque" is the string key. I'm trying to create a utility method to which I could pass any value from any enumeration and have it return the localized string representation of that value, assuming the custom attribute is specified. I just can't figure out how to dynamically access a resource file and a key within it.

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  • Proper 'cleartool mkview' for ClearCase Snapshot view creation

    - by Jörg Battermann
    Good afternoon, seems like I am somewhat stuck in CC-land these days, but I have one (hopefully) final question regarding proper CC-handling: When using the CC View Creation Wizard with the two steps / details below, I can create a proper Snapshot view on my machine perfectly fine, however when trying to do the same with the mkview command, it fails... Here are the screenshots of the view creation wizard: Now that results into the (working) following view: cleartool> lsview battjo6r_view2 battjo6r_view2 \\Eh40yd4c\Views\battjo6r_view2.vws cleartool> lsview -long battjo6r_view2 Tag: battjo6r_view2 Global path: \\Eh40yd4c\Views\battjo6r_view2.vws Server host: Eh40yd4c Region: CT_WORK Active: NO View tag uuid:f34cf43f.b4d048df.845d.ed:21:a2:9c:45:ff View on host: Eh40yd4c View server access path: D:\Views\battjo6r_view2.vws View uuid: f34cf43f.b4d048df.845d.ed:21:a2:9c:45:ff View attributes: snapshot View owner: WW005\battjo6r However, when trying to create the view manually via mkview -snapshot -tag battjo6r_view2 -vws \\Eh40yd4c\Views\battjo6r_view2.vws -host Eh40yd4c -hpath D:\Views\battjo6r_view2.vws -gpath \\Eh40yd4c\Views\battjo6r_view2.vws battjo6r_view2 ... I get the following error: cleartool> mkview -snapshot -tag battjo6r_view2 -vws \\Eh40yd4c\Views\battjo6r_view2.vws -host Eh40yd4c -hpath D:\Views\battjo6r_view2.vws -gpath \\Eh40yd4c\Views\battjo6r_view2.vws battjo6r_view2 Created view. Host-local path: Eh40yd4c:D:\Views\battjo6r_view2.vws Global path: \\Eh40yd4c\Views\battjo6r_view2.vws cleartool: Error: Unable to find view by uuid:6f99f7ae.6a5d40e4.ba32.37:8e:e5:a4:ed:18, last known at "<viewhost>:<stg_path>". cleartool: Error: Unable to establish connection to snapshot view "6f99f7ae.6a5d40e4.ba32.37:8e:e5:a4:ed:18": ClearCase object not found cleartool: Warning: Unable to open snapshot view "D:\SnapShotViews\battjo6r_view2". cleartool: Error: Unable to create snapshot view "battjo6r_view2". Removing the view ... Any idea why this is happening? Am I missing something?

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  • UISplitView show different views in the detail pane

    - by Mark
    How can I change the view in the Details pane of the UISplitView so that its a completely different view? Im having a fair amount of trouble understanding how its all wired up and where things should go at the moment, could someone please enlighten me? What I would love to be able to do is to show a specific view based on what the user has selected in the UITableView on the left pane (this view could be an image, or a more complex view of a news article, etc... many different options) then when the user turns the iPad into portrait view, that view that was in the details pane changes to be its equivalent portrait view version. Does this make sense? How on earth would I do that? Just to brainstorm, here is what I was thinking: Create a Split View project Create 2 NIBs for each view: (with accompanying view controllers???) * PortraitNewsStory * LandscapeNewsStory * PortraitImageBrowser * LandscapeImageBrowser * etc... Create a UISplitView control using XCode Capture when a user rotates the iPad (should this be done in the RootViewController.m ?) Change the view of the DetailViewController how should I do this? profit??? Thanks Mark

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  • Generate BitmapSource from UIElement

    - by Joel
    I am attempting to generate a BitmapFrame that is based on a UIElement. Here is my function: private BitmapFrame RenderToBitmap2() { RenderTargetBitmap renderBitmap = new RenderTargetBitmap(200, 200, 96, 96, PixelFormats.Pbgra32); DrawingVisual drawingVisual = new DrawingVisual(); DrawingContext drawingContext = drawingVisual.RenderOpen(); VisualBrush aVisualBrush = new VisualBrush(GenerateTestStackPanel()); drawingContext.DrawRectangle(aVisualBrush, new Pen(Brushes.Green, 2), new Rect(new Size(150, 150))); drawingContext.Close(); renderBitmap.Render(drawingVisual); return BitmapFrame.Create(renderBitmap); } For testing and debugging purposes, I am using an additional function that creates a simple StackFrame that should create a valid visual element that can be represented: private StackPanel GenerateTestStackPanel() { // Create a red Ellipse. Ellipse myEllipse = new Ellipse(); myEllipse.Fill = Brushes.Green; myEllipse.StrokeThickness = 2; myEllipse.Stroke = Brushes.Black; // Set the width and height of the Ellipse. myEllipse.Width = 200; myEllipse.Height = 200; // Add the Ellipse to the StackPanel. StackPanel myStackPanel = new StackPanel(); myStackPanel.Children.Add(myEllipse); return myStackPanel; } For some reason, the VisualBrush is not being rendered in the DrawRetangle(...) function. I can see the green border but nothing else. In addition, if I swap out the VisualBrush with a standard brush, it works great: drawingContext.DrawRectangle(Brushes.Plum, new Pen(Brushes.Green, 2), new Rect(new Size(150, 150))); Thanks in advance! -Joel

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  • Report Model; problem regarding many-to-many relations

    - by Koen
    I'm having trouble setting up a report model to create reports with report builder. I guess I'm doing something wrong when configuring the report model, but it might also due to change of primary entity in report builder. I have 3 tables: Client, Address and Product. The Client has PK ClientNumber. The Address and Product both have a FK relation on ClientNumber. The relation between Client and Address is 1-to-many and also between Client and Product: Product-(many:1)-Client-(1:many)-Address. I've created a report model (mostly auto generate) with these 3 tables, for each table I've made an Entity. Now on the Client Entity , I've got 2 roles, Address and Product. They both have a cardinality of 'OptionalMany', because Client can have multiple Addresses or Products. On both Address and Product I have a Client Role with cardinality 'One', because for each Address or Product, there has to be a Client (tried OptionalOne as well...). Now I'm trying to create a report in Report Builder (2.0) where I select fields from these three entities. I'd like an overview of Clients with their main address and their products, but I don't seem to be able to create a report with fields from both Address and Products in it. I start by selecting attributes from Client, and as soon as I add Product for example the Primary entity changes as if I'm selecting Products (instead of Clients). This is a basic example of a problem I'm facing in a much more complex model. I've tried lots of different things for 2 days, but I can't get it to work. Does anyone have an idea how to cope with this? (Using SSRS 2008)

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  • Legit? Two foreign keys referencing the same primary key.

    - by Ryan
    Hi All, I'm a web developer and have recently started a project with a company. Currently, I'm working with their DBA on getting the schema laid out for the site, and we've come to a disagreement regarding the design on a couple tables, and I'd like some opinions on the matter. Basically, we are working on a site that will implement a "friends" network. All users of the site will be contained in a table tblUsers with (PersonID int identity PK, etc). What I am wanting to do is to create a second table, tblNetwork, that will hold all of the relationships between users, with (NetworkID int identity PK, Owners_PersonID int FK, Friends_PersonID int FK, etc). Or conversely, remove the NetworkID, and have both the Owners_PersonID and Friends_PersonID shared as the Primary key. This is where the DBA has his problem. Saying that "he would only implement this kind of architecture in a data warehousing schema, and not for a website, and this is just another example of web developers trying to take the easy way out." Now obviously, his remark was a bit inflammatory, and that have helped motivate me to find an suitable answer, but more so, I'd just like to know how to do it right. I've been developing databases and programming for over 10 years, have worked with some top-notch minds, and have never heard this kind of argument. What the DBA is wanting to do is instead of storing both the Owners_PersonId and Friends_PersonId in the same table, is to create a third table tblFriends to store the Friends_PersonId, and have the tblNetwork have (NetworkID int identity PK, Owner_PersonID int FK, FriendsID int FK(from TBLFriends)). All that tblFriends would house would be (FriendsID int identity PK, Friends_PersonID(related back to Persons)). To me, creating the third table is just excessive in nature, and does nothing but create an alias for the Friends_PersonID, and cause me to have to add (what I view as unneeded) joins to all my queries, not to mention the extra cycles that will be necessary to perform the join on every query. Thanks for reading, appreciate comments. Ryan

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  • MS Chart in WPF, Setting the DataSource is not creating the Series

    - by Shaik Phakeer
    Hi All, Here I am trying to assign the datasource (using same code given in the sample application) and create a graph, only difference is i am doing it in WPF WindowsFormsHost. due to some reason the datasource is not being assigned properly and i am not able to see the series ("Series 1") being created. wired thing is that it is working in the Windows Forms application but not in the WPF one. am i missing something and can somebody help me? Thanks <Window x:Class="SEDC.MDM.WinUI.WindowsFormsHostWindow" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xmlns:wf="clr-namespace:System.Windows.Forms;assembly=System.Windows.Forms" xmlns:CHR="clr- namespace:System.Windows.Forms.DataVisualization.Charting;assembly=System.Windows.Forms.Dat aVisualization" Title="HostingWfInWpf" Height="230" Width="338"> <Grid x:Name="grid1"> </Grid> </Window> private void drawChartDataBinding() { System.Windows.Forms.Integration.WindowsFormsHost host = new System.Windows.Forms.Integration.WindowsFormsHost(); string fileNameString = @"C:\Users\Shaik\MSChart\WinSamples\WinSamples\data\chartdata.mdb"; // initialize a connection string string myConnectionString = "PROVIDER=Microsoft.Jet.OLEDB.4.0;Data Source=" + fileNameString; // define the database query string mySelectQuery = "SELECT * FROM REPS;"; // create a database connection object using the connection string OleDbConnection myConnection = new OleDbConnection(myConnectionString); // create a database command on the connection using query OleDbCommand myCommand = new OleDbCommand(mySelectQuery, myConnection); Chart Chart1 = new Chart(); // set chart data source Chart1.DataSource = myCommand; // set series members names for the X and Y values Chart1.Series"Series 1".XValueMember = "Name"; Chart1.Series"Series 1".YValueMembers = "Sales"; // data bind to the selected data source Chart1.DataBind(); myCommand.Dispose(); myConnection.Close(); host.Child = Chart1; this.grid1.Children.Add(host); } Shaik

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  • consistency of Trigger Procedure (before row trigger) Postgresql

    - by elgcom
    Using Postgresql. I try to use TRIGGER procedure to make some consistency check on INSERT. The question is ...... whether "BEFORE INSERT FOR EACH ROW" can make sure each row to insert "checked" and "inserted" one after another? do I need extra lock on table to survive from concurrent insert? check for new row1 - insert row1 - check for new row2 - insert row2 -- -- -- unexpired product name is unique. CREATE TABLE product ( "name" VARCHAR(100) NOT NULL, "expired" BOOLEAN NOT NULL ); CREATE OR REPLACE FUNCTION check_consistency() RETURNS TRIGGER AS $$ BEGIN IF EXISTS (SELECT * FROM product WHERE name=NEW.name AND expired='false') THEN RAISE EXCEPTION 'duplicated!!!'; END IF; RETURN NEW; END; $$ LANGUAGE plpgsql; CREATE TRIGGER trigger_check_consistency BEFORE INSERT ON product FOR EACH ROW EXECUTE PROCEDURE check_consistency(); -- INSERT INTO product VALUES("prod1", true); INSERT INTO product VALUES("prod1", false); INSERT INTO product VALUES("prod1", false); // exception! this is OK name | expired ============== p1 | true p1 | true p1 | false This is not OK name | expired ============== p1 | true p1 | false p1 | false or maybe I should ask, how can I use Trigger to implement "Primary" or "Unique" constraint-like SQL.

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  • iPhone: Override UIButton buttonWithType to return subclass

    - by Amagrammer
    I want to be able to create a UIButton with an oversized responsive area. I know that one way to do that is to override the hitTest method in a subclass, but how do I instantiate my custom button object in the first place? [OversizedButton buttonWithType: UIButtonTypeDetailDisclosure]; doesn't work out of the box because buttonWithType returns a UIButton, not an OversizedButton. So it seems like I need to override the buttonWithType method as well. Does anyone know how to do this? @implementation OversizedButton + (id)buttonWithType:(UIButtonType)buttonType { // Construct and return an OversizedButton rather than a UIButton // Needs to handle special types such as UIButtonTypeDetailDisclosure // I NEED TO KNOW HOW TO DO THIS PART } - (UIView *)hitTest:(CGPoint)point withEvent:(UIEvent *)event { // Return results if touch event was in oversized region // I ALREADY KNOW HOW TO DO THIS PART } @end Alternatively, maybe I could create the button using alloc/initWithFrame. But the buttonType property is readonly, so how do you create the custom button types? Note: I know there are other ways to do this, such as having an invisible button behind the visible one. I don't care for that approach and would prefer to avoid it. Any help on the approach described above would be very helpful. Thanks

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  • ASP.NET MVC - Parent-Child Table Relation - how to creat Children in MVC (example request)

    - by adudley
    Hi All. In a standard setup of Parent Child relation, lets say Project and Task. Where a Project is made up of lots of Tasks. So in a standard RDB, we have a Project (ID, Name, Deadline) Task (ID, FK_To_Project, Name, Description, isCompleted) this is all very straight forward. We have an MVC View that views Projects, so we get a nice list of all the project Names next to each deadline. Now we want to CREATE a new PROJECT. The Edit view opens, we type a name, say, 'Make a cup of Tea', with tomorrow as the deadline! Still in this view/web page, I would like a list of all the Child Tasks, in a standard list, with Edit, Delete, and a Create/Add Task button too, just below the 'parent table' details. The simplest way to describe this, is the Parents Table Create/Edit view, with the Childes List View Below it. 1) The ideal solution will also allow my Child Table (Tasks) to have Children also (for more complex scenarios) , and so on, and on, and on. 2) If I navigate away from my Created Project, I don’t want all sorts of random stuff laying around, they went away, it’s gone! 3) I’d expect all the same functionality when Editing an existing project. I’m struggling with the ‘Add New Child’, I had a model dialog (jquery) and all was well, but now when editing an existing child/task, I need to populate the Child Edit, which is a pain and will need loads of java script I think :( How can this be achieved in MVC, does anybody have any examples?

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  • Why are my functional tests failing?

    - by Mongus Pong
    I have generated some scaffolding for my rails app. I am running the generated tests and they are failing. for example test "should create area" do assert_difference('Area.count') do post :create, :area => { :name => 'area1' } end assert_redirected_to area_path(assigns(:area)) end This test is failing saying that : 1) Failure: test_should_create_area(AreasControllerTest) [/test/functional/areas_controller_test.rb:16]: "Area.count" didn't change by 1. <3 expected but was <2. There is only one field in the model : name. I am populating this so it cant be because I am failing to populate the only field. I can run the site and create an area with the name 'area1'. So reality is succeeding, but the test is failing. I cant ask why its failing, because Im sure theres not enough information here for anyone here to know why. Im just stuck at knowing what avenues to go down to work out why the test is failing. Even putting puts into the code dont print out... What steps can I take to track this down?

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  • converting mysql database to sql server

    - by every_answer_gets_a_point
    i have a mysql database: /* MySQL Data Transfer Source Host: 10.0.0.5 Source Database: jnetdata Target Host: 10.0.0.5 Target Database: jnetdata Date: 5/26/2009 12:27:33 PM */ SET FOREIGN_KEY_CHECKS=0; -- ---------------------------- -- Table structure for chavrusas -- ---------------------------- CREATE TABLE `chavrusas` ( `id` int(11) NOT NULL auto_increment, `date_created` datetime default NULL, `luser_id` int(11) default NULL, `ruser_id` int(11) default NULL, `luser_type` varchar(50) default NULL, `ruser_type` varchar(50) default NULL, `SessionDay` varchar(250) default NULL, `SessionTime` datetime default NULL, `WeeklyReminder` tinyint(1) NOT NULL default '0', `reminder_phone` tinyint(1) NOT NULL default '0', `calling_card` varchar(50) default NULL, `active` tinyint(1) NOT NULL default '0', `notes` mediumtext, `ended` tinyint(1) NOT NULL default '0', `end_date` datetime default NULL, `initiated_by_student` tinyint(1) NOT NULL default '0', `initiated_by_volunteer` tinyint(1) NOT NULL default '0', `student_general_reason` varchar(50) default NULL, `volunteer_general_reason` varchar(50) default NULL, `student_reason` varchar(250) default NULL, `volunteer_reason` varchar(250) default NULL, `student_nli` tinyint(1) NOT NULL default '0', `volunteer_nli` tinyint(1) NOT NULL default '0', `jnet_initiated` tinyint(1) default '0', `belongs_to` varchar(50) default NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`id`) ) ENGINE=MyISAM AUTO_INCREMENT=5913 DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1; -- ---------------------------- -- Table structure for tbluseravailability -- ---------------------------- CREATE TABLE `tbluseravailability` ( `availability_id` int(11) NOT NULL auto_increment, `user_id` int(11) NOT NULL, `weekday_id` int(11) NOT NULL, `timeslot_id` int(11) NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (`availability_id`) ) ENGINE=MyISAM AUTO_INCREMENT=10865 DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1; -- ---------------------------- -- Table structure for tblusers -- ---------------------------- CREATE TABLE `tblusers` ( `id` int(11) NOT NULL auto_increment, `password` varchar(50) default NULL, `title` varchar(255) default NULL, `first` varchar(255) default NULL, `last` varchar(255) default NULL, `gender` varchar(255) default NULL, `address` varchar(255) default NULL, `address_2` varchar(255) default NULL, `city` varchar(255) default NULL, `state` varchar(255) default NULL, `postcode` varchar(255) default NULL, `country` varchar(255) default NULL, `email` varchar(255) default NULL, `emailnotes` varchar(255) default NULL, `Home_Phone` varchar(255) default NULL, `Office_Phone` varchar(255) default NULL, `Cell_Phone` varchar(255) default NULL, `Contact_Preference` varchar(255) default NULL, `Birthdate` datetime default NULL, `Age` varchar(255 and it goes on for about 10mb i need to convert it to ms sql, how do i do it?

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  • How to use NInject (or other DI / IoC container) with the model binder in ASP.NET MVC 2 ?

    - by Andrei Rinea
    Let's say I have an User entity and I would want to set it's CreationTime property in the constructor to DateTime.Now. But being a unit test adopter I don't want to access DateTime.Now directly but use an ITimeProvider : public class User { public User(ITimeProvider timeProvider) { // ... this.CreationTime = timeProvider.Now; } // ..... } public interface ITimeProvider { public DateTime Now { get; } } public class TimeProvider : ITimeProvider { public DateTime Now { get { return DateTime.Now; } } } I am using NInject 2 in my ASP.NET MVC 2.0 application. I have a UserController and two Create methods (one for GET and one for POST). The one for GET is straight forward but the one for POST is not so straight and not so forward :P because I need to mess with the model binder to tell it to get a reference of an implementation of ITimeProvider in order to be able to construct an user instance. public class UserController : Controller { [HttpGet] public ViewResult Create() { return View(); } [HttpPost] public ActionResult Create(User user) { // ... } } I would also like to be able to keep all the features of the default model binder. Any chance to solve this simple/elegant/etc? :D

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  • How to Send user to two different web pages when login

    - by Pradeep
    protected static Boolean Authentication(string username, string password) { string sqlstring; sqlstring = "Select Username, Password, UserType from Userprofile WHERE Username='" + username + "' and Password ='" + password + "'"; // create a connection with sqldatabase System.Data.SqlClient.SqlConnection con = new System.Data.SqlClient.SqlConnection( "Data Source=PRADEEP-LAPTOP\\SQLEXPRESS;Initial Catalog=BookStore;Integrated Security=True"); // create a sql command which will user connection string and your select statement string System.Data.SqlClient.SqlCommand comm = new System.Data.SqlClient.SqlCommand(sqlstring, con); // create a sqldatabase reader which will execute the above command to get the values from sqldatabase System.Data.SqlClient.SqlDataReader reader; // open a connection with sqldatabase con.Open(); // execute sql command and store a return values in reade reader = comm.ExecuteReader(); // check if reader hase any value then return true otherwise return false if (reader.Read()) return true; else return false; } Boolean blnresult; blnresult = Authentication(Login2.UserName, Login2.Password); if (blnresult == true) { Session["User_ID"] = getIDFromName(Login2.UserName); Session["Check"] = true; Session["Username"] = Login2.UserName; Response.Redirect("Index.aspx"); } so a user like Staff or even Administrators loging to same Index.aspx. i want to change it to different web pages. how to change sites for each user types. i have seperate user types. and i have taken UserType in the Authentication function.

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  • How to approach ninject container/kernel in inheritance situation

    - by Bas
    I have the following situation: class RuleEngine {} abstract class RuleImplementation {} class RootRule : RuleImplementation {} class Rule1 : RuleImplementation {} class Rule2 : RuleImplementation {} The RuleEngine is injected by Ninject and has a kernel at it's disposal, the role of the RuleEngine is to fire off the root rule, which on it's turn will load all the other rules also using Ninject, but using a different Module and creating a new Kernel. Now my question is, some of the rules require some dependencies which I want to inject using Ninject. What would be the best way to create the kernel for these rules and also still do proper unit testing with it? (the kernel shouldn't become a real pain in my tests) I've been thinking of the following possibilitys: The kernel that I use in the RuleEngine class could be tossed around to RuleImplementation and thus be available for every rule. But tossing around Kernels isn't really something I wish to do. When creating the rules, I could give the kernel (which creates the rules) as a constructor argument for each rule. I could create a method inside the RuleImplementation which creates a kernel and makes it possible for the rules to retrieve the kernel using a get() in the abstract class Whats the convention of passing around/creating kernels? Just create new kernels, or reuse them?

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  • Linq - how does it work??

    - by clarkeyboy
    Hey, I have just been looking into Linq with ASP.Net. It is very neat indeed. I was just wondering - how do all the classes get populated? I mean in ASP.Net, suppose you have a Linq file called Catalogue, and you then use a For loop to loop through Catalogue.Products and print each Product name. How do the details get stored? Does it just go through the Products table on page load and create another instance of class Product for each row, effectively copying an entire table into an array of class Product? If so, I think I have created a system very much like this, in the sense that there is a SiteContent module with an instance of each Manager class - for example there is UserManager, ProductManager, SettingManager and alike. UserManager contains an instance of the User class for each row in the Users table. They also contain methods such as Create, Update and Remove. These Managers and their "Items" are created on every page load. This just makes it nice and easy to access users, products, settings etc in every page as far as I, the developer, am concerned. Any any subsequent pages I need to create, I just need to reference SiteContent.UserManager to access a list of users, rather than executing a query from within that page (ie this method separates out data access from the workings of the page, in the same way as using code behind separates out the workings of the page from how the page is layed out). However the problem is that this technique seems rather slow. I mean it is effectively creating a database on every page load, taking data from another database. I have taken measures such as preventing, for example, the ProductManager from being created if it is not referenced on page load. Therefore it does not load data into storage when it is not needed. My question is basically whether my technique does the exact same thing as Linq, in the sense of duplicating data from tables into properties of classes.. Thanks in advance for any advice or answers about this. Regards, Richard Clarke

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  • [MFC] I can't re-parent a window

    - by John
    Following on from this question, now I have a clearer picture what's going on... I have a MFC application with no main window, which exposes an API to create dialogs. When I call some of these methods repeatedly, the dialogs created are parented to each other instead of all being parented to the desktop... I have no idea why. But anyway even after creation, I am unable to change the parent back to NULL or CWnd::GetDesktopWindow()... if I call SetParent followed by GetParent, nothing has changed. So apart from the really weird question of why Windows is magically parenting each dialog to the last one created, is there anything I'm missing to be able to set these windows as children of the desktop? UPDATED: I have found the reason for all this, but not the solution. From my dialog constructor, we end up in: BOOL CDialog::CreateIndirect(LPCDLGTEMPLATE lpDialogTemplate, CWnd* pParentWnd, void* lpDialogInit, HINSTANCE hInst) { ASSERT(lpDialogTemplate != NULL); if (pParentWnd == NULL) pParentWnd = AfxGetMainWnd(); m_lpDialogInit = lpDialogInit; return CreateDlgIndirect(lpDialogTemplate, pParentWnd, hInst); } Note: if (pParentWnd == NULL)pParentWnd = AfxGetMainWnd(); The call-stack from my dialog constructor looks like this: mfc80d.dll!CDialog::CreateIndirect(const DLGTEMPLATE * lpDialogTemplate=0x005931a8, CWnd * pParentWnd=0x00000000, void * lpDialogInit=0x00000000, HINSTANCE__ * hInst=0x00400000) mfc80d.dll!CDialog::CreateIndirect(void * hDialogTemplate=0x005931a8, CWnd * pParentWnd=0x00000000, HINSTANCE__ * hInst=0x00400000) mfc80d.dll!CDialog::Create(const char * lpszTemplateName=0x0000009d, CWnd * pParentWnd=0x00000000) mfc80d.dll!CDialog::Create(unsigned int nIDTemplate=157, CWnd * pParentWnd=0x00000000) MyApp.exe!CMyDlg::CMyDlg(CWnd * pParent=0x00000000)

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  • Why don't RSpec's methods, "get", "post", "put", "delete" work in a controller spec in a gem (or out

    - by ramon.tayag
    I'm not new to Rails or Rspec, but I'm new to making gems. When I test my controllers, the REST methods "get", "post", "put", "delete" give me an undefined method error. Below you'll find code, but if you prefer to see it in a pastie, click here. Thanks! Here's my spec_helper: $LOAD_PATH.unshift(File.dirname(__FILE__)) $LOAD_PATH.unshift(File.join(File.dirname(__FILE__), '..', 'lib')) require 'rubygems' require 'active_support' unless defined? ActiveSupport # Need this so that mattr_accessor will work in Subscriber module require 'active_record/acts/subscribable' require 'active_record/acts/subscriber' require 'action_view' require 'action_controller' # Since we'll be testing subscriptions controller #require 'action_controller/test_process' require 'spec' require 'spec/autorun' # Need active_support to user mattr_accessor in Subscriber module, and to set the following inflection ActiveSupport::Inflector.inflections do |inflect| inflect.irregular 'dorkus', 'dorkuses' end require 'active_record' # Since we'll be testing a User model which will be available in the app # Tell active record to load the subscribable files ActiveRecord::Base.send(:include, ActiveRecord::Acts::Subscribable) ActiveRecord::Base.send(:include, ActiveRecord::Acts::Subscriber) require 'app/models/user' # The user model we expect in the application require 'app/models/person' require 'app/models/subscription' require 'app/models/dorkus' require 'app/controllers/subscriptions_controller' # The controller we're testing #... more but I think irrelevant My subscriptions_spec: require File.expand_path(File.dirname(__FILE__) + '/../spec_helper') describe SubscriptionsController, "on GET index" do load_schema describe ", when only subscribable params are passed" do it "should list all the subscriptions of the subscribable object" end describe ", when only subscriber params are passed" do it "should list all the subscriptions of the subscriber" do u = User.create d1 = Dorkus.create d2 = Dorkus.create d1.subscribe! u d2.subscribe! u get :index, {:subscriber_type = "User", :subscriber_id = u.id} assigns[:subscriptions].should == u.subscriptions end end end My subscriptions controller: class SubscriptionsController The error: NoMethodError in 'SubscriptionsController on GET index , when only subscriber params are passed should list all the subscriptions of the subscriber' undefined method `get' for # /home/ramon/rails/acts_as_subscribable/spec/controllers/subscriptions_controller_spec.rb:21:

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  • flex and jsf access the same instance of bean

    - by David
    i integrate a flex app in a jsf-icefaces app (in a jspx site with the ice:outputmedia-tag) and want to access the same instance of a bean from flex by remote, that jsf inject. i already connect with blazeds to a java-bean. this bean - like all other beans - get other beans by injection of jsf, but when i access the bean by remote from flex it doesnt hold the injected beans (like localizer and accesmanager, both session scoped) and i can't connect to the jsf session (FacesContext.getCurrentInstance() is null). this is because flex create a new instance of the bean and it’s not the same current instance, that jsf inject, i think. i can connect from flex to the database by create a new entity manager in the java bean, but that's not what i want, because it's again another entity manager...i want persist and get data over the accessmanager-bean. i know exadel fiji and flamingo, but i couldn't work with fiji, because my jsf app include the icefaces components and then it doesn't work with richfaces which fiji needs. and flamingo work only with jboss seam and spring. is it right? i also read about the spring-flex-integration, but the jsf application did not create with spring and i don't want to integrate spring in such a large jsf app. yesterday i read about the FlexFactory interface. this interface i have to implement in my own Factory and set it in the service-config.xml of blazeds as a factory read this. i still implement my own factory but i only get application scoped beans over the servlet context which i get over FlexContext.getServletContext().getAttribute("Bean"); and not session scoped beans... i hope there is a chance to connect throw flex and jsf... thanks!

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  • Any way for a class to prevent outside code from declaring variables of its type?

    - by supercat
    Is it possible for a class of exposing a type for function returns, without allowing users of that class to create variables of that type? A couple usage scenarios: A Fluent interface on a large class; a statement like "foo=bar.WithX(5).WithY(9).WithZ(19);" would be inefficient if it had to create three new instances of the class, but could be much more efficient if the WithX could create one instance, and the other statements could simply use it. A class may wish to support a statement like "foo[19].x = 9;" even when foo itself isn't an array, and does not hold the data in class instances that can be exposed to the public; one way to do that is to have foo[19] return a struct which holds a reference to 'foo' and the value '19', and has a member property 'x' which could call "foo.SetXValue(19, 9);" Such a struct could have a conversion operator to convert itself to the "apparent" type of foo[19]. In both of these scenarios, storing the value returned by a method or property into a variable and then using it more than once would cause strange behavior. It would be desirable if the designer of the class exposing such methods or properties could ensure that callers wouldn't be able to use them more than once. Is there any practical way to accomplish that?

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  • AlertDialog in if-stetement doesn't show()

    - by Steffen Kern
    I have the following code: public void button_login(View view) { // Instantiate an AlertDialog.Builder with its constructor AlertDialog.Builder builder = new AlertDialog.Builder(this); builder.setPositiveButton(R.string.ok, new DialogInterface.OnClickListener() { public void onClick(DialogInterface dialog, int id) { /* User clicked OK button */ } }); // Preserve EditText values. EditText ET_username = (EditText) findViewById(R.id.username); EditText ET_password = (EditText) findViewById(R.id.password); String str_username = ET_username.toString(); String str_password = ET_password.toString(); // Intercept missing username and password. if(str_username.length() == 0) { builder.setMessage(R.string.hint_username_empty); AlertDialog dialog = builder.create(); dialog.show(); } } I have an activity that includes the two EditText-Views and a button. When I click the button the shown method will be called. My problem: The AlertDialog doesnt show up! When I put the create and show at beginning like this: // Instantiate an AlertDialog.Builder with its constructor AlertDialog.Builder builder = new AlertDialog.Builder(this); builder.setPositiveButton(R.string.ok, new DialogInterface.OnClickListener() { public void onClick(DialogInterface dialog, int id) { /* User clicked OK button */ } }); builder.setMessage(R.string.hint_username_empty); AlertDialog dialog = builder.create(); dialog.show(); // Preserve EditText values. EditText ET_username = (EditText) findViewById(R.id.username); EditText ET_password = (EditText) findViewById(R.id.password); String str_username = ET_username.toString(); String str_password = ET_password.toString(); // Intercept missing username and password. if(str_username.length() == 0) { } } Then the Dialog shows up. Any ideas why the dialog doesnt show up in the first place? Greetz, Steffen

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