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  • SEO: A whois server that work for .SE domains?

    - by Niels Bosma
    I'm developing a small domain checker and I can't get .SE to work: public string Lookup(string domain, RecordType recordType, SeoToolsSettings.Tld tld) { TcpClient tcp = new TcpClient(); tcp.Connect(tld.WhoIsServer, 43); string strDomain = recordType.ToString() + " " + domain + "\r\n"; byte[] bytDomain = Encoding.ASCII.GetBytes(strDomain.ToCharArray()); Stream s = tcp.GetStream(); s.Write(bytDomain, 0, strDomain.Length); StreamReader sr = new StreamReader(tcp.GetStream(), Encoding.ASCII); string strLine = ""; StringBuilder builder = new StringBuilder(); while (null != (strLine = sr.ReadLine())) { builder.AppendLine(strLine); } tcp.Close(); if (tld.WhoIsDelayMs > 0) System.Threading.Thread.Sleep(tld.WhoIsDelayMs); return builder.ToString(); } I've tried whois servers whois.nic-se.se and whois.iis.se put I keep getting: # Copyright (c) 1997- .SE (The Internet Infrastructure Foundation). # All rights reserved. # The information obtained through searches, or otherwise, is protected # by the Swedish Copyright Act (1960:729) and international conventions. # It is also subject to database protection according to the Swedish # Copyright Act. # Any use of this material to target advertising or # similar activities is forbidden and will be prosecuted. # If any of the information below is transferred to a third # party, it must be done in its entirety. This server must # not be used as a backend for a search engine. # Result of search for registered domain names under # the .SE top level domain. # The data is in the UTF-8 character set and the result is # printed with eight bits. "domain google.se" not found. Edit: I've tried changing to UTF8 with no other result. When I try using whois from sysinternals I get the correct result, but not with my code, not even using SE.whois-servers.net. /Niels

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  • JScrollPanel without scrollbars

    - by Erik Itland
    I'm trying to use a JScrollPanel to display a JPanel that might be too big for the containing Jpanel. I don't want to show the scrollbars (yes, this is questionable UI design, but it is my best guess of what the customer wants. We use the same idea other places in the application, and I feel this case have given me enough time to ponder if I can do it in a better way, but if you have a better idea I might accept it an answer.) First attempt: set verticalScrollBarPolicy to NEVER. Result: Scrolling using mouse wheel doesn't work. Second attempt: set the scrollbars to null. Result: Scrolling using mouse wheel doesn't work. Third attempt: set scrollbars visible property to false. Result: It is immidiately set visible by Swing. Fourth attempt: inject a scrollbar where setVisible is overridden to do nothing when called with true. Result: Can't remember exactly, but I think it just didn't work. Fifth attempt: inject a scrollbar where setBounds are overridden. Result: Just didn't look nice. (I might have missed something here, though.) Sixth attempt: ask stackoverflow. Result: Pending. Scrolling works once scrollbars are back.

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  • How to make Facebook Authentication from Silverlight secure?

    - by SondreB
    I have the following scenario I want to complete: Website running some HTTP(S) services that returns data for a user. Same website is additionally hosting a Silverlight 4 app which calls these services. The Silverlight app is integrating with Facebook using the Facebook Developer Toolkit (http://facebooktoolkit.codeplex.com/). I have not fully decided whether I want Facebook-integration to be a "opt-in" option such as Spotify, or if I want to "lock" down my service with Facebook-only authentication. That's another discussion. How do I protect my API Key and Secret that I receive from Facebook in a Silverlight app? To me it's obvious that this is impossible as the code is running on the client, but is there a way I can make it harder or should I just live with the fact that third parties could potentially "act" as my own app? Using the Facebook Developer Toolkit, there is a following C# method in Silverlight that is executed from the JavaScript when the user has fully authenticated with Facebook using the Facebook Connect APIs. [ScriptableMember] public void LoggedIn(string sessionKey, string secret, int expires, long userId) { this.SessionKey = sessionKey; this.UserId = userId; Obvious the problem here is the fact that JavaScript is injection the userId, which is nothing but a simple number. This means anyone could potentially inject a different userId in JavaScript and have my app think it's someone else. This means someone could hijack the data within the services running on my website. The alternative that comes to mind is authenticating the users on my website, this way I'm never exposing any secrets and I can return an auth-cookie to the users after the initial authentication. Though this scenario doesn't work very well in an out-of-browser scenario where the user is running the Silverlight app locally and not from my website.

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  • Rot13 for numbers.

    - by dreeves
    EDIT: Now a Major Motion Blog Post at http://messymatters.com/sealedbids The idea of rot13 is to obscure text, for example to prevent spoilers. It's not meant to be cryptographically secure but to simply make sure that only people who are sure they want to read it will read it. I'd like to do something similar for numbers, for an application involving sealed bids. Roughly I want to send someone my number and trust them to pick their own number, uninfluenced by mine, but then they should be able to reveal mine (purely client-side) when they're ready. They should not require further input from me or any third party. (Added: Note the assumption that the recipient is being trusted not to cheat.) It's not as simple as rot13 because certain numbers, like 1 and 2, will recur often enough that you might remember that, say, 34.2 is really 1. Here's what I'm looking for specifically: A function seal() that maps a real number to a real number (or a string). It should not be deterministic -- seal(7) should not map to the same thing every time. But the corresponding function unseal() should be deterministic -- unseal(seal(x)) should equal x for all x. I don't want seal or unseal to call any webservices or even get the system time (because I don't want to assume synchronized clocks). (Added: It's fine to assume that all bids will be less than some maximum, known to everyone, say a million.) Sanity check: > seal(7) 482.2382 # some random-seeming number or string. > seal(7) 71.9217 # a completely different random-seeming number or string. > unseal(seal(7)) 7 # we always recover the original number by unsealing.

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  • xml appending issue

    - by 3gwebtrain
    Any one help me? i have the xml with 2 steps. example : Type of Company: Architects may be self-employed. Workspace – Indoors/outdoors: Architects work both. Environment Travel: Architects often visit construction sites to review the progress of projects. People: They work a lot with other professionals involved in the construction project including engineers, contractors, surveyors and landscape architects. Casual: They usually work in a casual and comfortable environment. Hours: The hours are varied based on the project they are working on. Physically demanding: They stand on their feet. Tools: Computers - Architects Assist clients in obtaining construction bids Observe, inspect and monitor building work in my funcation i am using "list.each" to append to ul+index. it works fine. And my problem is while i append the "list.each", the "sublistgroup" should not append to "list.each", insted the "sublistgroup" need to make "ul" and in the ul i need the "sublist" became childrens.. my code is here... i konw that, i am doing some wrong way.. pls any one correct it and let me know.. $(function(){ $.get('career-utility.xml',function(myData){ $(myData).find('listgroup').each(function(index){ var count = index; var listGroup = $(this); var listGroupTitle = $(this).attr('title'); var shortNote = $(this).attr('shortnote'); var subLink = $(this).find('sublist'); var firstList = $(this).find('list'); $('.grouplist').append('<div class="list-group"><h3>'+listGroupTitle+'</h3><ul class="level-one level' + count + '"></ul></div>'); firstList.each(function(listnum){ var subList = $(this).text(); var subListLeveltwo = $(this).find('sublist').text(); if(subListLeveltwo==''){ $('<li>'+subList+'</li>').appendTo('ul.level'+count+''); } else{ $('<li class="new">'+subList+'</li>').appendTo('ul.level'+count+''); } }) }) }) })

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  • Makefile trickery using VPATH and include.

    - by roe
    Hi, I'm playing around with make files and the VPATH variable. Basically, I'm grabbing source files from a few different places (specified by the VPATH), and compile them into the current directory using simply a list of .o-files that I want. So far so good, now I'm generating dependency information into a file called '.depend' and including that. Gnumake will attempt to use the rules defined so far to create the included file if it doesn't exist, so that's ok. Basically, my makefile looks like this. VPATH=A/source:B/source:C/source objects=first.o second.o third.o executable: $(objects) .depend: $(objects:.o=.c) $(CC) -MM $^ > $@ include .depend Now for the real question, can I suppress the generation of the .depend file in any way? I'm currently working in a clearcase environment - sloooow, so I'd prefer to have it a bit more under control when to update the dependency information. It's more or less an academic exercise as I could just wrap the thing in a script which is touching the .depend file before executing make (thus making it more recent than any source file), but it'd interesting to know if I can somehow suppress it using 'pure' make. I cannot remove the dependency to the source files (i.e. using simply .depend:), as I'm depending on the $^ variable to do the VPATH resolution for me. If there'd be any way to only update dependencies as a result of updated #include directives, that'd be even better of course.. But I'm not holding my breath for that one.. :)

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  • JConsole does not connect when a program is waiting for a console input

    - by Calm Storm
    Hi, I have a problem similar to the one mentioned here. I have a program which launches a selenium browser and refreshes it every 2 seconds. My idea here was to monitor the memory usage of my application as the page is being hit. This console program does a "System.in.read" and when a user presses enter key, this stops the browser refresh thread. I run the program and it runs as I would expect it to. But when I fire jconsole and attach it to the process, it looks like jconsole waits forever to attach. This is because of the "System.in.read", apparently as shown in the JConsole source. In my code it makes perfect sense for me to terminte the browser when user presses something so is there any alternative available at all ? (Posted code sample below) package com.ekanathk; import java.util.ArrayList; import java.util.List; import org.junit.Test; public class MultiThread { @Test public void testSimple() throws Exception { List<Integer> x = new ArrayList<Integer>(); for(int i = 0; i < 1000; i++) { x.add(i); } System.out.print("Press Enter to stop (try attach a jconsole now...."); System.in.read(); } } The problem here seems to be that any System.in.read (either in Main thread or any threads) seems to completely block jconsole. I guess the problem essentially boils down to multiple threads requesting system inputs at the same time? Is there a solution ?

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  • kick off a map reduce job from my java/mysql webapp

    - by Brian
    Hi guys, I need a bit of archecture advice. I have a java based webapp, with a JPA based ORM backed onto a mysql relational database. Now, as part of the application I have a batch job that compares thousands of database records with each other. This job has become too time consuming and needs to be parallelized. I'm looking at using mapreduce and hadoop in order to do this. However, I'm not too sure about how to integrate this into my current architecture. I think the easiest initial solution is to find a way to push data from mysql into hadoop jobs. I have done some initial research on this and found the following relevant information and possibilities: 1) https://issues.apache.org/jira/browse/HADOOP-2536 this gives an interesting overview of some inbuilt JDBC support 2) This article http://architects.dzone.com/articles/tools-moving-sql-database describes some third party tools to move data from mysql to hadoop. To be honest I'm just starting out with learning about hbase and hadoop but I really don't know how to integrate this into my webapp. Any advice is greatly appreciated. cheers, Brian

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  • How can I choose different hints for different joins for a single table in a query hint?

    - by RenderIn
    Suppose I have the following query: select * from A, B, C, D where A.x = B.x and B.y = C.y and A.z = D.z I have indexes on A.x and B.x and B.y and C.y and D.z There is no index on A.z. How can I give a hint to this query to use an INDEX hint on A.x but a USE_HASH hint on A.z? It seems like hints only take the table name, not the specific join, so when using a single table with multiple joins I can only specify a single strategy for all of them. Alternative, suppose I'm using a LEADING or ORDERED hint on the above query. Both of these hints only take a table name as well, so how can I ensure that the A.x = B.x join takes place before the A.z = D.z one? I realize in this case I could list D first, but imagine D subsequently joins to E and that the D-E join is the last one I want in the entire query. A third configuration -- Suppose I want the A.x join to be the first of the entire query, and I want the A.z join to be the last one. How can I use a hint to have a single join from A to take place, followed by the B-C join, and the A-D join last?

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  • Obj-C: ++variable is increasing by two instead of one

    - by Eli Garfinkel
    I am writing a program that asks users yes/no questions to help them decide how to vote in an election. I have a variable representing the question number called questionnumber. Each time I go through the switch-break loop, I add 1 to the questionnumber variable so that the next question will be displayed. This works fine for the first two questions. But then it skips the third question and moves on to the fourth. When I have more questions in the list, it skips every other question. Somewhere, for some reasons, the questionnumber variable is increasing when I don't want it to. Please look at the code below and tell me what I'm doing wrong. Thank you! Eli import "MainView.h" import @implementation MainView @synthesize Question; @synthesize mispar; int conservative = 0; int liberal = 0; int questionnumber = 1; (IBAction)agreebutton:(id)sender { ++liberal; } (IBAction)disagreebutton:(id)sender { ++conservative; } (IBAction)nextbutton:(id)sender { ++questionnumber; switch (questionnumber) { case 2: Question.text = @"Congress should pass a law that would ban Americans from earning more than one hundred million dollars in any given year."; break; case 3: Question.text = @"It is not fair to admit people to a university or employ them on the basis of merit alone. Factors such as race, gender, class, and sexual orientation must also be considered."; break; case 4: Question.text = @"There are two Americas - one for the rich and one for the poor."; break; case 5: Question.text = @"Top quality health care should be free for all."; break; default: break; } } @end

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  • show/hide a link if certain jquery ui tab is selected.

    - by Mark
    When #my-text-link is clicked, i need to select tab 5 and when tab 5 is selected i need to hide #my-text-link. hope this makes sense, heres the code, and also what I have done so far, please feel free to show me a better way. Thanks in advance var $tabs = $('.tabbed').tabs(); // first tab selected $('#my-text-link').click(function() { // bind click event to link $tabs.tabs('select', 4); // switch to third tab $('#my-text-link').hide(); return false; }); <a href="#" id="my-text-link"></a> <ul> <li class="one"><a href="#tabs-1" title="Summary"></a></li> <li class="two"><a href="#tabs-2" title="Detailed Info"></a></li> <li class="three"><a href="#tabs-3" title="Images"></a></li> <li class="four"><a href="#tabs-4" title="Reviews"></a></li> <li class="five"><a href="#tabs-5" title="Dates &amp; Prices"></a></li> </ul> <div id="tabs-1"></div> <div id="tabs-2"></div> <div id="tabs-3"></div> <div id="tabs-4"></div> <div id="tabs-5"></div>

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  • Which is a good way to maintain resources for Internationalization in .Net

    - by ashtee
    I have thought of three approaches to create and maintain resources in .Net projects for WinForms using Visual Studio 2008. (I am sure there should be more than three ways.) I need to decide on one before starting to implement internationalization for our product. Have individual sets of resource files (resx) for each windows form or piece of UI (a custom control) in each .net project. These are auto generated by Visual Studio when Localizable property is set to true in the form or control properties. Have one resource file per .net project. This is added manually and updated manually with the resource strings and messages. Have one resource manager project that has resources for all the components for a set of .net projects. Personally, I do not like the first approach as it creates numerous resources files. The only advantage we get in this approach is that we do not need to set text in UI elements manually. I like second and third approach as they are easy to maintain and there is only one set of resources that you need to handle. So no duplication of strings and messages. Easy for the translators also. What are your thoughts? Please share.

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  • BitBlting multiple images to buffer

    - by Anonymous
    So I've made a class which draws a transparant image to a buffer. the buffer is a HDC which has been used blackness on. What I am trying to do is draw three images to this buffer. Which means I am using this function three times. After that's done, I output it to the screen (using SRCCOPYing the buffer). But what I get to see is just the third image and blackness. void draw_buffer(HDC buffer, int draw_x, int draw_y) { BitBlt(this-main, draw_x, draw_y, this-img_width, this-img_height, this-image, this-mask_x, this-mask_y, SRCAND); BitBlt(this-main, draw_x, draw_y, this-img_width, this-img_height, this-image, this-img_x, this-img_y, SRCPAINT); BitBlt(buffer, 0, 0, 800, 600, this-main, 0, 0, SRCCOPY); } At initiation, this-main becomes this: this->main = CreateCompatibleDC(GetDC(0)); this->bitmap = CreateCompatibleBitmap(GetDC(0),800,600); SelectObject(this->main, this->bitmap); What is wrong with my code?

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  • Datatable add new column and values speed issue

    - by Cine
    I am having some speed issue with my datatables. In this particular case I am using it as holder of data, it is never used in GUI or any other scenario that actually uses any of the fancy features. In my speed trace, this particular constructor was showing up as a heavy user of time when my database is ~40k rows. The main user was set_Item of DataTable. protected myclass(DataTable dataTable, DataColumn idColumn) { this.dataTable = dataTable; IdColumn = idColumn ?? this.dataTable.Columns.Add(string.Format("SYS_{0}_SYS", Guid.NewGuid()), Type.GetType("System.Int32")); JobIdColumn = this.dataTable.Columns.Add(string.Format("SYS_{0}_SYS", Guid.NewGuid()), Type.GetType("System.Int32")); IsNewColumn = this.dataTable.Columns.Add(string.Format("SYS_{0}_SYS", Guid.NewGuid()), Type.GetType("System.Int32")); int id = 1; foreach (DataRow r in this.dataTable.Rows) { r[JobIdColumn] = id++; r[IsNewColumn] = (r[IdColumn] == null || r[IdColumn].ToString() == string.Empty) ? 1 : 0; } Digging deeper into the trace, it turns out that set_Item calls EndEdit, which brings my thoughts to the transaction support of the DataTable, for which I have no usage for in my scenario. So my solution to this was to open editing on all of the rows and never close them again. _dt.BeginLoadData(); foreach (DataRow row in _dt.Rows) row.BeginEdit(); Is there a better solution? This feels too much like a big giant hack that will eventually come and bite me. You might suggest that I dont use DataTable at all, but I have already considered that and rejected it due to the amount of effort that would be required to reimplement with a custom class. The main reason it is a datatable is that it is ancient code (.net 1.1 time) and I dont want to spend that much time changing it, and it is also because the original table comes out of a third party component.

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  • WCF contracts - namespaces and SerializationExceptions

    - by qntmfred
    I am using a third party web service that offers the following calls and responses http://api.athirdparty.com/rest/foo?apikey=1234 <response> <foo>this is a foo</foo> </response> and http://api.athirdparty.com/rest/bar?apikey=1234 <response> <bar>this is a bar</bar> </response> This is the contract and supporting types I wrote [ServiceContract] [XmlSerializerFormat] public interface IFooBarService { [OperationContract] [WebGet( BodyStyle = WebMessageBodyStyle.Bare, ResponseFormat = WebMessageFormat.Xml, UriTemplate = "foo?key={apikey}")] FooResponse GetFoo(string apikey); [OperationContract] [WebGet( BodyStyle = WebMessageBodyStyle.Bare, ResponseFormat = WebMessageFormat.Xml, UriTemplate = "bar?key={apikey}")] BarResponse GetBar(string apikey); } [XmlRoot("response")] public class FooResponse { [XmlElement("foo")] public string Foo { get; set; } } [XmlRoot("response")] public class BarResponse { [XmlElement("bar")] public string Bar { get; set; } } and then my client looks like this static void Main(string[] args) { using (WebChannelFactory<IFooBarService> cf = new WebChannelFactory<IFooBarService>("thirdparty")) { var channel = cf.CreateChannel(); FooResponse result = channel.GetFoo("1234"); } } When I run this I get the following exception Unable to deserialize XML body with root name 'response' and root namespace '' (for operation 'GetFoo' and contract ('IFooBarService', 'http://tempuri.org/')) using XmlSerializer. Ensure that the type corresponding to the XML is added to the known types collection of the service. If I comment out the GetBar operation from IFooBarService, it works fine. I know I'm missing an important concept here - just don't know quite what to look for. What is the proper way to construct my contract types, so that they can be properly deserialized?

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  • How do I add a default namespace with no prefix using XMLSerializer

    - by OldBob
    Hi Using C# and .Net 3.5; I am trying to generate an XML document that contains the default namespace without a prefix using XMLSerializer. eg. <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <MyRecord ID="9266" xmlns="http://www.website.com/MyRecord"> <List> <SpecificItem> using the following code string xmlizedString = null; MemoryStream memoryStream = new MemoryStream(); XmlSerializer xs = new XmlSerializer(typeof(ExportMyRecord)); XmlSerializerNamespaces xmlnsEmpty = new XmlSerializerNamespaces(); xmlnsEmpty.Add(string.Empty, string.Empty); XmlTextWriter xmlTextWriter = new XmlTextWriter(memoryStream, Encoding.UTF8); xs.Serialize(xmlTextWriter, myRecord, xmlnsEmpty); memoryStream = (MemoryStream)xmlTextWriter.BaseStream; xmlizedString = this.UTF8ByteArrayToString(memoryStream.ToArray()); and class structure [Serializable] [XmlRoot("MyRecord")] public class ExportMyRecord { [XmlAttribute("ID")] public int ID { get; set; } Now, I've tried various options XmlSerializer xs = new XmlSerializer(typeof(ExportMyRecord),"http://www.website.com/MyRecord"); or [XmlRoot(Namespace = "http://www.website.com/MyRecord", ElementName="MyRecord")] gives me <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <q1:MylRecord ID="9266" xmlns:q1="http://www.website.com/MyRecord"> <q1:List> <q1:SpecificItem> I need the XML to have the namespace without the prefix as it's going to a third party provider and they reject all other alternatives. Any suggestions? No responses so far. Has anyone experienced this or know how to solve it?

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  • passing java mail message object from between applications

    - by jezhilvalan
    I'm using java mail api 1.4.1 to obtain new emails. Two classes are being used to obtain emails and then parsing it. "GetMail" class communicates with mail server(Gmail,yahoo etc) and obtains the message object. Then the message object is passed to yet another class "MailFormatter" class, which then parses the message object, obtains the email headers (From,To,Subject etc) and then it parses the Multipart content to obtain the main body and attachments.Since both "Mail getting" and "Mail formatting" process are very resource intensive, these classes are going to be implemented as separate web applications.This application is going to monitor new emails for numerous email ids.If these ("GetMail" and "MailFormatter") are implemented as separate web applications, how can I pass the message object from "GetMail" app to "MailFormatter" app ? Is there a way through which I can persist the obtained message object in a certain location (a location which is common to both "GetMail" and "MailFormatter" applications), so that "GetMail" can persist the message object in that location, and then "MailFormatter" app can read "Message" objects from that location and carry out the parsing process. Message objects cannot be serialized. If they cannot be serialized how can I persist the state of java mail message object? please do help me to resolve this issue.

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  • TCP: Address already in use exception - possible causes for client port? NO PORT EXHAUSTION

    - by TomTom
    Hello, stupid problem. I get those from a client connecting to a server. Sadly, the setup is complicated making debugging complex - and we run out of options. The environment: *Client/Server system, both running on the same machine. The client is actually a service doing some database manipulation at specific times. * The cnonection comes from C# going through OleDb to an EasySoft JDBC driver to a custom written JDBC server that then hosts logic in C++. Yeah, compelx - but the third party supplier decided to expose the extension mechanisms for their server through a JDBC interface. Not a lot can be done here ;) The Symptom: At (ir)regular intervals we get a "Address already in use: connect" told from the JDBC driver. They seem to come from one particular service we run. Now, I did read all the stuff about port exhaustion. This is why we have a little tool running now that counts ports and their states every minute. Last time this happened, we had an astonishing 370 ports in use, with the count rising to about 900 AFTER the error. We aleady patched the registry (it is a windows machine) to allow more than the 5000 client ports standard, but even then, we are far far from that limit to start with. Which is why I am asking here. Ayneone an ide what ELSE could cause this? It is a Windows 2003 Server machine, 64 bit. The only other thing I can see that may cause it (but this functionality is supposedly disabled) is Symantec Endpoint Protection that is installed on the server - and being capable of actinc as a firewall, it could possibly intercept network traffic. I dont want to open a can of worms by pointing to Symantec prematurely (if pointing to Symantec can ever be seen as such). So, anyone an idea what else may be the cause? Thanks

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  • Calculate total batch upload transfer percent with limited information

    - by GONeale
    Hi there, I have a system which uploads to a server file by file and displays a progress bar on file upload progress, then underneath a second progress bar which I want to indicate percentage of batch complete across all files queued to upload. Information and algorithms I can work out are: Bytes Sent / Total Bytes To Send = First progress bar (eg. 512KB of 1024KB (50%)) That works fine. However supposing I have two other files left to upload, but both file sizes are unknown (as this is only known once the file is about to commence upload, at which point it is compressed and file size is determined) how would I go about making my third progress bar? I didn't think this would be possible as I would need "Total Bytes Sent" / "Total Bytes To Send", to replicate the logic of my first progress bar on a larger scale, however I did get a version working: "Current file number we are on" / "total number of files to send" returning the percentage through the batch, however obviously will not incrementally update and it's pretty crude. So on further thinking I thought if I could incorporate the current file % with this algorithm I could perhaps get the correct progress percentage of my batch's current point. I tried this algorithm, but alas to no such avail (sorry to any math heads, it's probably quite apparent why it won't work) ("Current file number we are on" / "total number of files to send") * ("Bytes Sent" / "Total Bytes To Send") For example I thought I was on the right track when testing with this example: 2/3 (2nd of 3rd file) = 66% (this is right so far) but then when I added * 0.20 (for indicating only 20% of 2nd file has uploaded) we went back to 13%. What I need is only a little over 33%! I did try the inverse at 0.80 and a (2/3 * (2/3 * 0.2)) Can this be done without knowing entire bytes in batch to upload? Please help! Thank you!

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  • Problems with GData Request Token

    - by Dan Delgado
    We have successfully used GData libraries to access a user's Google Docs. But we encountered problems when many users log in to our site and authorize our web app at the same time or successively. Here's what happens: First user successful logs in, authorizes our web app via OAuth and is able to add rubric (or google spreadsheet). Second user, immediately after first user adds a rubric, successfully logs in then webapp fails on authorize (Token not given. I tried to log it.) Third user fails on login. Fourth user was able to log in, authorize via OAuth, and create rubrics successfully. Fifth user was able to log in but like the second user, gets an invalid token on authorize (Token not given.) And the list goes on. Results were unpredicatable. Below is an excerpt of the stack trace we get when the fail scenario happens: Nested in org.springframework.web.util.NestedServletException: Request processing failed; nested exception is java.lang.NullPointerException: java.lang.NullPointerException at com.google.gdata.client.authn.oauth.OAuthUtil.normalizeParameters(OAuthUtil.java:158) at com.google.gdata.client.authn.oauth.OAuthUtil.getSignatureBaseString(OAuthUtil.java:81) at com.google.gdata.client.authn.oauth.OAuthHelper.addCommonRequestParameters(OAuthHelper.java:649) at com.google.gdata.client.authn.oauth.OAuthHelper.getOAuthUrl(OAuthHelper.java:592) at com.google.gdata.client.authn.oauth.OAuthHelper.getUnauthorizedRequestToken(OAuthHelper.java:276) at com.projectrix.controller.OAuthController.authorize(OAuthController.java:59) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke0(Native Method) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(Unknown Source) at sun.reflect.DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(Unknown Source) at java.lang.reflect.Method.invoke(Method.java:40) Help!

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  • mysql prevent displaying a row ONE which has reference in another row TWO but no reference in row THREE

    - by Jayapal Chandran
    I have a table like the following id | name | pid 1 | sam | NULL 2 | sams ref | 1 3 | pam | NULL For the first time the first row gets inserted which will have pid as null I insert a row which is related to the first row and then i insert a row which is new and which may be referred by another row in future. now i want only the third row to be displayed and not the first and second row as the second row contains the reference of first row. so if any row has a reference to another row then both the rows should not be displayed. Only rows which is not having any reference should be displayed. BESIDES, IS IT A GOOD PRACTICE? PLEASE ADVICE ON THIS. Edited When i updated in server the query is always giving empty result. here is what i have and this one When pid is NULL then that row should appear but when another entry in the same table with pid as its parent id or any other rows id appears then both the rows should not appear. so if any pid has been referred then both the rows should not appear. here only one row will refer another row and not more than that. in my localhost i have mysql version 5.0.1 or something like that but when i installed xampp in another system it had 5.5 and in the live server it was 5.3 so in version around 5.0 the query is returning rows but in higher versions it is returning empty rows. so now i this case how to make a query?

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  • Continuous Integration with 64-bit Sharepoint and TFS 2008?

    - by Hirvox
    I've set up a 64-bit TFS 2008 build server with Sharepoint, continuous integration and out-of-the-box MSTest. Unit tests for plain business logic classes run just fine and test results are published into TFS. However, any test that uses Sharepoint's API fails horribly, SPFarm.Local returning null and so on. Is there a way to fix this? The tests run fine in an otherwise identical 32-bit development environment (Windows Server 2008 under Hyper-V, Sharepoint patched up to June 2009 cumulative update) from both Visual Studio and command line, so the problem is not about improper use of SPContext.Current or any other part of the API that needs to be run in a web server context. I've ruled out permissions issues, because the build agent account can deploy the solution and create site collections just fine with stsadm. The next culprit could be that the unit tests were being run with a 32-bit process, which couldn't access the 64-bit Sharepoint API properly. I tried a workaround, but it has the side effect of disabling TFS support in MSTest. Do I have to wait for 2010 versions of MS tools (and hope for the best) or is there a third-party test framework available that runs natively in 64 bit and can publish test results into TFS 2008?

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  • (ASP.NET) Problem with a repeater nested in a repeater, how to know when it is a itemCommand?

    - by NoProblemBabe
    I have the following problem: Keeping in mind the following structure: <repeater> <updatepanel> <div> <link id="fatherLink" /> </div> <div> <repeater> <link id="childLink"/> </repeater> <div> </updatepanel> </repeater> right? I am using updatepanel, so, when i click in the fatherlink, i put a click method in the server side, so it populates it's child repeater. no problems in there, but I need that the childLink to perform a action on the server side, like take in account some data and then sending to a given page to do something else. When doing this I happen to notice that there are three situations: 1 - First server call, is not a postback it populates the father repeater (no problems here). 2 - Second server call, when the father link is clicked i populate the child repeater. Something like a "fatherLink_Click" function (no problems here). 3 - Third server call, when the child is clicked: i can't seem to know that it is the child's item command, so i can't stop it from databinding all over again, which kills my itemcommand event... (the problem). What can I do?

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  • BITS, TakeOwnership, and Kerberos / Windows Integrated Authentication

    - by Charlie Flowers
    We're using BITS to upload files from machines in our retail locations to our servers. BITS will stop transferring a file if the user who owns the BITS job logs off. Therefore, we're using a Windows Service running as LocalSystem to submit the jobs to BITS and be the job owner. This allows transfers to continue 24/7. However, it raises a question about authentication. We want the BITS server extensions in IIS to use Kerberos to authenticate the client machine. As far as I can tell, that leaves us with only 2 options, both of which are not ideal: Either we create an "ImageUploader" account and store its username/password in a config file that the Windows Service uses as credentials for the BITS job, or we ask the logged on user who creates the BITS job for his password, and then use his credentials for the BITS job. I guess the third option is not to use Kerberos, and maybe go with Basic Auth plus SSL. I'm sure I'm wrong and there's a better option. Is there? Thanks in advance.

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  • .NET - A way to add my own clipboard format to existing formats

    - by A9S6
    I have a Excel addin that displays some structures on the worksheet. Users can copy the structures and paste them in another worksheet or another application which is handled by the Clipboard formats. When a user copies the structure, I convert the structure into a specific format and put it on the clipboard using the DataObject::SetData(). Please note that when a copy is initiated in Excel, it puts a number of formats on the clipboard (see image). The problem is that there is a third party application that depends on the data on the clipboard(Copy from Excel and paste into this 3rd party app) but the funny thing is that I am not sure which format it depends on. I need to preserve the existing formats that Excel has put up there and also add my own format to it. Currently when I use the Clipboard class in .NET (taking the DataObject and calling SetData inside it), all the other formats are replaced by new ones. I then tried to create a new DataObject, copy the existing format data to this data object and then set this data object in the Clipboard. This works fine but it takes time to copy the data. // Copying existing data in clipboard to our new DataObject IDataObject existingDataObject = Clipboard.GetDataObject(); DataObject dataObject = new DataObject(); string[] existingFormats = existingDataObject.GetFormats(); foreach (string existingFormat in existingFormats) dataObject.SetData(existingFormat, existingDataObject.GetData(existingFormat)); I am looking for a solution to just access the existing DataObject and quietly add my own data to it without affecting other formats. Excel Clipboard Formats - (Ignore the Native Format)

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