Search Results

Search found 10978 results on 440 pages for 'collision testing'.

Page 369/440 | < Previous Page | 365 366 367 368 369 370 371 372 373 374 375 376  | Next Page >

• How to access a TextView element in a BroadcastReceiver

  - by ric03uec

  Hello, I am testing a simple widget in android and using Alarms to update a TextView at regular intervals. The problem is that in the BroadcastReceiver class I cannot access the TextView element, which I want to get updated when the alarm expires. The class is being called properly because the Toast i have put there is giving the appropriate message. The following code is from the class where I configure the widget and set the timers. public void onCreate(Bundle bundle) { super.onCreate(bundle); Intent intent = getIntent(); Bundle extras = intent.getExtras(); if(extras != null){ mWidgetId = extras.getInt(AppWidgetManager.EXTRA_APPWIDGET_ID, AppWidgetManager.INVALID_APPWIDGET_ID); AppWidgetManager appWidgetManager = AppWidgetManager.getInstance(WidgetConfigure.this); RemoteViews views = new RemoteViews(WidgetConfigure.this.getPackageName(), R.layout.widget_layout); views.setTextViewText(R.id.quote, "Widget Loaded From Activity"); appWidgetManager.updateAppWidget(mWidgetId, views); setTimer(); //set the timers... setResult();// set the result... } } Now i want to update the same TextView when the BroadCastReceiver is called after the timer expires. I have tried the code provided in the ExampleAppWidget example provided in android api demos and that isnt working out. How can i set the required text? Thankx in advance

  Read the article

• Mysql select - improve performance

  - by realshadow

  Hey, I am working on an e-shop which sells products only via loans. I display 10 products per page in any category, each product has 3 different price tags - 3 different loan types. Everything went pretty well during testing time, query execution time was perfect, but today when transfered the changes to the production server, the site "collapsed" in about 2 minutes. The query that is used to select loan types sometimes hangs for ~10 seconds and it happens frequently and thus it cant keep up and its hella slow. The table that is used to store the data has approximately 2 milion records and each select looks like this: SELECT * FROM products_loans WHERE KOD IN("X17/Q30-10", "X17/12", "X17/5-24") AND 369.27 BETWEEN CENA_OD AND CENA_DO; 3 loan types and the price that needs to be in range between CENA_OD and CENA_DO, thus 3 rows are returned. But since I need to display 10 products per page, I need to run it trough a modified select using OR, since I didnt find any other solution to this. I have asked about it here, but got no answer. As mentioned in the referencing post, this has to be done separately since there is no column that could be used in a join (except of course price and code, but that ended very, very badly). Here is the show create table, kod and CENA_OD/CENA_DO very indexed via INDEX. CREATE TABLE `products_loans` ( `KOEF_ID` bigint(20) NOT NULL, `KOD` varchar(30) NOT NULL, `AKONTACIA` int(11) NOT NULL, `POCET_SPLATOK` int(11) NOT NULL, `koeficient` decimal(10,2) NOT NULL default '0.00', `CENA_OD` decimal(10,2) default NULL, `CENA_DO` decimal(10,2) default NULL, `PREDAJNA_CENA` decimal(10,2) default NULL, `AKONTACIA_SUMA` decimal(10,2) default NULL, `TYP_VYHODY` varchar(4) default NULL, `stage` smallint(6) NOT NULL default '1', PRIMARY KEY (`KOEF_ID`), KEY `CENA_OD` (`CENA_OD`), KEY `CENA_DO` (`CENA_DO`), KEY `KOD` (`KOD`), KEY `stage` (`stage`) ) ENGINE=InnoDB DEFAULT CHARSET=utf8 And also selecting all loan types and later filtering them trough php doesnt work good, since each type has over 50k records and the select takes too much time as well... Any ides about improving the speed are appreciated.

  Read the article

• How to manage sessions in NHibernate unit tests?

  - by Ben

  I am a little unsure as to how to manage sessions within my nunit test fixtures. In the following test fixture, I am testing a repository. My repository constructor takes in an ISession (since I will be using session per request in my web application). In my test fixture setup I configure NHibernate and build the session factory. In my test setup I create a clean SQLite database for each test executed. [TestFixture] public class SimpleRepository_Fixture { private static ISessionFactory _sessionFactory; private static Configuration _configuration; [TestFixtureSetUp] // called before any tests in fixture are executed public void TestFixtureSetUp() { _configuration = new Configuration(); _configuration.Configure(); _configuration.AddAssembly(typeof(SimpleObject).Assembly); _sessionFactory = _configuration.BuildSessionFactory(); } [SetUp] // called before each test method is called public void SetupContext() { new SchemaExport(_configuration).Execute(true, true, false); } [Test] public void Can_add_new_simpleobject() { var simpleObject = new SimpleObject() { Name = "Object 1" }; using (var session = _sessionFactory.OpenSession()) { var repo = new SimpleObjectRepository(session); repo.Save(simpleObject); } using (var session =_sessionFactory.OpenSession()) { var repo = new SimpleObjectRepository(session); var fromDb = repo.GetById(simpleObject.Id); Assert.IsNotNull(fromDb); Assert.AreNotSame(simpleObject, fromDb); Assert.AreEqual(simpleObject.Name, fromDb.Name); } } } Is this a good approach or should I be handling the sessions differently? Thanks Ben

  Read the article

• Deployment problems of asp.net 3.5 in iis 5.1

  - by peter

  i have microsoft.net 3.5 application and have IIS5.1,,for deploying website do i need to do any thing aother than this 1.In IIS i created virtual directory named SPA and i browsed in to the location where my project is lacated and i added entire project file there( Do i need to add only bin file and login page or i need to add all pages???) 2.In asp.net folder i selected tab version 2.0,, 3.when i browsed i can see all pages when i click login.aspx i am getting this error [SqlException (0x80131904): User does not have permission to perform this action.] System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnection.OnError(SqlException exception, Boolean breakConnection) +821651 System.Data.SqlClient.TdsParser.ThrowExceptionAndWarning(TdsParserStateObject stateObj) +186 System.Data.SqlClient.TdsParser.Run(RunBehavior runBehavior, SqlCommand cmdHandler, SqlDataReader dataStream, BulkCopySimpleResultSet bulkCopyHandler, TdsParserStateObject stateObj) +1932 System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnectionTds.CompleteLogin(Boolean enlistOK) +33 System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnectionTds.AttemptOneLogin(ServerInfo serverInfo, String newPassword, Boolean ignoreSniOpenTimeout, Int64 timerExpire, SqlConnection owningObject) +172 System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnectionTds.LoginNoFailover(String host, String newPassword, Boolean redirectedUserInstance, SqlConnection owningObject, SqlConnectionString connectionOptions, Int64 timerStart) +381 System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnectionTds.OpenLoginEnlist(SqlConnection owningObject, SqlConnectionString connectionOptions, String newPassword, Boolean redirectedUserInstance) +181 System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnectionTds..ctor(DbConnectionPoolIdentity identity, SqlConnectionString connectionOptions, Object providerInfo, String newPassword, SqlConnection owningObject, Boolean redirectedUserInstance) +173 System.Data.SqlClient.SqlConnectionFactory.CreateConnection(DbConnectionOptions options, Object poolGroupProviderInfo, DbConnectionPool pool, DbConnection owningConnection) +133 System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionFactory.CreatePooledConnection(DbConnection owningConnection, DbConnectionPool pool, DbConnectionOptions options) +30 System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionPool.CreateObject(DbConnection owningObject) +424 System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionPool.UserCreateRequest(DbConnection owningObject) +66 System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionPool.GetConnection(DbConnection owningObject) +494 System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionFactory.GetConnection(DbConnection owningConnection) +82 System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionClosed.OpenConnection(DbConnection outerConnection, DbConnectionFactory connectionFactory) +105 System.Data.SqlClient.SqlConnection.Open() +111 ChatTool.LoginForm.Page_Load(Object sender, EventArgs e) in D:\Chat tool_Ameya\ProjectCode\Unisys Project Testing\Unisys Project\Login.aspx.cs:25 System.Web.Util.CalliHelper.EventArgFunctionCaller(IntPtr fp, Object o, Object t, EventArgs e) +15 System.Web.Util.CalliEventHandlerDelegateProxy.Callback(Object sender, EventArgs e) +33 System.Web.UI.Control.OnLoad(EventArgs e) +99 System.Web.UI.Control.LoadRecursive() +47 System.Web.UI.Page.ProcessRequestMain(Boolean includeStagesBeforeAsyncPoint, Boolean includeStagesAfterAsyncPoint) +1436

  Read the article

• ArrayAccess multidimensional (un)set?

  - by anomareh

  I have a class implementing ArrayAccess and I'm trying to get it to work with a multidimensional array. exists and get work. set and unset are giving me a problem though. class ArrayTest implements ArrayAccess { private $_arr = array( 'test' => array( 'bar' => 1, 'baz' => 2 ) ); public function offsetExists($name) { return isset($this->_arr[$name]); } public function offsetSet($name, $value) { $this->_arr[$name] = $value; } public function offsetGet($name) { return $this->_arr[$name]; } public function offsetUnset($name) { unset($this->_arr[$name]); } } $arrTest = new ArrayTest(); isset($arrTest['test']['bar']); // Returns TRUE echo $arrTest['test']['baz']; // Echo's 2 unset($arrTest['test']['bar']; // Error $arrTest['test']['bar'] = 5; // Error I know $_arr could just be made public so you could access it directly, but for my implementation it's not desired and is private. The last 2 lines throw an error: Notice: Indirect modification of overloaded element. I know ArrayAccess just generally doesn't work with multidimensional arrays, but is there anyway around this or any somewhat clean implementation that will allow the desired functionality? The best idea I could come up with is using a character as a separator and testing for it in set and unset and acting accordingly. Though this gets really ugly really fast if you're dealing with a variable depth. Does anyone know why exists and get work so as to maybe copy over the functionality? Thanks for any help anyone can offer.

  Read the article

• String Length Evaluating Incorrectly

  - by Justin R.

  My coworker and I are debugging an issue in a WCF service he's working on where a string's length isn't being evaluated correctly. He is running this method to unit test a method in his WCF service: // Unit test method public void RemoveAppGroupTest() { string addGroup = "TestGroup"; string status = string.Empty; string message = string.Empty; appActiveDirectoryServicesClient.RemoveAppGroup("AOD", addGroup, ref status, ref message); } // Inside the WCF service [OperationBehavior(Impersonation = ImpersonationOption.Required)] public void RemoveAppGroup(string AppName, string GroupName, ref string Status, ref string Message) { string accessOnDemandDomain = "MyDomain"; RemoveAppGroupFromDomain(AppName, accessOnDemandDomain, GroupName, ref Status, ref Message); } public AppActiveDirectoryDomain(string AppName, string DomainName) { if (string.IsNullOrEmpty(AppName)) { throw new ArgumentNullException("AppName", "You must specify an application name"); } } We tried to step into the .NET source code to see what value string.IsNullOrEmpty was receiving, but the IDE printed this message when we attempted to evaluate the variable: 'Cannot obtain value of local or argument 'value' as it is not available at this instruction pointer, possibly because it has been optimized away.' (None of the projects involved have optimizations enabled). So, we decided to try explicitly setting the value of the variable inside the method itself, immediately before the length check -- but that didn't help. // Lets try this again. public AppActiveDirectoryDomain(string AppName, string DomainName) { // Explicitly set the value for testing purposes. AppName = "AOD"; if (AppName == null) { throw new ArgumentNullException("AppName", "You must specify an application name"); } if (AppName.Length == 0) { // This exception gets thrown, even though it obviously isn't a zero length string. throw new ArgumentNullException("AppName", "You must specify an application name"); } } We're really pulling our hair out on this one. Has anyone else experienced behavior like this? Any tips on debugging it?

  Read the article

• Looping through an List to select an Element in Selenium

  - by ChrisMcLellan

  I'm attempting to write a Page Class for Links within the Header of the website I'm testing. I have the following link structure below <ul> <li><a href="/" title="Home">Home</a></li> <li><a href="/AboutUs" title="About Us">About Us</a> </li> <li><a href="/Account" title="Account">Account</a></li> <li><a href="/Account/Orders" title="Orders">Orders</a></li> <li><a href="/AdministrationPortal" title="Administration Portal">Administration Portal</a></li> </ul> What I want to do is store these into a List, then when a user select one of the links, it will take then to the page they should go to. I have started with the following code below List<IWebElement> headerElements = new List<IWebElement>(); headerElements.Add(WebDriver.FindElement(By.LinkText("Home"))); headerElements.Add(WebDriver.FindElement(By.LinkText("About Us"))); headerElements.Add(WebDriver.FindElement(By.LinkText("Account"))); headerElements.Add(WebDriver.FindElement(By.LinkText("Orders"))); headerElements.Add(WebDriver.FindElement(By.LinkText("Administration Portal"))); headerElements.Add(WebDriver.FindElement(By.LinkText("Log in / Register"))); headerElements.Add(WebDriver.FindElement(By.LinkText("Log off"))); I was thinking for using a for loop to do this, would this be the best way. I'm trying to avoid writting methods like the one below for each link public void SelectCreateNewReferralLink() { var selectAboutUsLink = ( new WebDriverWait(WebDriver, new TimeSpan(50))).Until (ExpectedConditions.ElementExists(By.CssSelector("#main > a:nth-of-type(1)"))); selectCreateNewReferralLink.Click(); } I'm using C#, with WebDriver attempting to write this Any Help would be great Thanks Chris

  Read the article

• Facebook Stream.Get -- How to access data in array?

  - by user316841

  On stream.get, I try to echo $feeds["posts"][$i]["attachment"]["href"]; It return the URL, but, in the same array scope where "type" is located (which returns string: video, etc), trying $feeds["posts"][$i]["attachment"]["type"] returns nothing at all! Here's an array through PHP's var_dump: http://pastie.org/930475 So, from testing I suppose this is protected by Facebook? Does that makes sense at all? Here it's full: http://pastie.org/930490, but not all attachment/media/types has values. It's also strange, because I can't access through [attachment][media][href] or [attachment][media][type], and if I try [attachment][media][0][type] or href, it gives me a string offset error. ["attachment"]=> array(8) { ["media"]=> array(1) { [0]=> array(5) { ["href"]=> string(55) "http://www.facebook.com/video/video.php?v=1392999461587" ["alt"]=> string(13) "IN THE STUDIO" ["type"]=> string(5) "video" My question is, is this protected by Facebook? Or we can actually access this array position?

  Read the article

• Is there a useDirtyFlag option for Tomcat 6 cluster configuration?

  - by kevinjansz

  In Tomcat 5.0.x you had the ability to set useDirtyFlag="false" to force replication of the session after every request rather than checking for set/removeAttribute calls. <Cluster className="org.apache.catalina.cluster.tcp.SimpleTcpCluster" managerClassName="org.apache.catalina.cluster.session.SimpleTcpReplicationManager" expireSessionsOnShutdown="false" **useDirtyFlag="false"** doClusterLog="true" clusterLogName="clusterLog"> ... The comments in the server.xml stated this may be used to make the following work: <% HashMap map = (HashMap)session.getAttribute("map"); map.put("key","value"); %> i.e. change the state of an object that has already been put in the session and you can be sure that this object still be replicated to the other nodes in the cluster. According to the Tomcat 6 documentation you only have two "Manager" options - DeltaManager & BackupManager ... neither of these seem to allow this option or anything like it. In my testing the default setup: <Cluster className="org.apache.catalina.ha.tcp.SimpleTcpCluster"/> where you get the DeltaManager by default, it's definitely behaving as useDirtyFlag="true" (as I'd expect). So my question is - is there an equivalent in Tomcat 6? Looking at the source I can see a manager implementation "org.apache.catalina.ha.session.SimpleTcpReplicationManager" which does have the useDirtyFlag but the javadoc comments in this state it's "Tomcat Session Replication for Tomcat 4.0" ... I don't know if this is ok to use - I'm guessing not as it's not mentioned in the main cluster configuration documentation.

  Read the article

• Button Onclick event (which is in codbehind) doesn't get triggered in MVC 2

  - by rksprst

  I had an MVC 1.0 web application that was in VS 2008; I just upgraded the project to VS 2010 which automatically upgraded MVC to 2.0. I have a bunch of viewpages have codebehind files that were manually added. The project worked fine before the upgrade, but now the onclick even't don't get triggered. I.e. I have an asp:button with an onclick event that points to a method in the codebehind. When you click the button, the onclick event doesn't get triggered. In fact, when you look at the Page variable, IsPostBack is false. This is really bizarre and I'm wondering if anyone know what happened and how to fix it. I'm thinking it has something to do with the changes in MVC 2.0; but I'm not sure. Any help is really appreciated, I've been trying to figure this out for a while. (deleting the codebehinds and moving that to the controller is not really an option since there is so many pages, moving back to vs 2008 is a last resort as I want to make use of some of the VS 2010 features like performance testing.)

  Read the article

• (Not So) Silly Objective-C inheritance problem when using property - GCC Bug?

  - by Ben Packard

  Update 2 - Many people are insisting I need to declare an iVar for the property. Some are saying not so, as I am using Modern Runtime (64 bit). I can confirm that I have been successfully using @property without iVars for months now. Therefore, I think the 'correct' answer is an explanation as to why on 64bit I suddenly have to explicitly declare the iVar when (and only when) i'm going to access it from a child class. The only one I've seen so far is a possible GCC bug (thanks Yuji). Not so simple after all... Update - I messed up one line of the original copy and paste - corrected. The @property call was missing (nonatomic, retain) but is a red herring - STILL NEED AN ANSWER! Thanks. I've been scratching my head with this for a couple of hours - I haven't used inheritance much. Here I have set up a simple Test B class that inherits from Test A, where an ivar is declared. But I get the compilation error that the variable is undeclared. This only happens when I add the property and synthesize declarations - works fine without them. TestA Header: #import <Cocoa/Cocoa.h> @interface TestA : NSObject { NSString *testString; } @end TestA Implementation is empty: #import "TestA.h" @implementation TestA @end TestB Header: #import <Cocoa/Cocoa.h> #import "TestA.h" @interface TestB : TestA { } @property (nonatomic, retain) NSString *testProp; @end TestB Implementation (Error - 'testString' is undeclared) #import "TestB.h" @implementation TestB @synthesize testProp; - (void)testing{ NSLog(@"test ivar is %@", testString); } @end

  Read the article

• JUnit confusion: use 'extend Testcase' or '@Test' ?

  - by Rabarberski

  I've found the proper use (or at least the documentation) of JUnit very confusing. This question serves both as a future reference and as a real question. If I've understood correctly, there are two main approaches to create and run a JUnit test: Approach A: create a class that extends TestCase, and start test methods with the word test. When running the class as a JUnit Test (in Eclipse), all methods starting with the word test are automatically run. import junit.framework.TestCase; public class DummyTestA extends TestCase { public void testSum() { int a = 5; int b = 10; int result = a + b; assertEquals(15, result); } } Approach B: create a 'normal' class and prepend a @Test annotation to the method. Note that you do NOT have to start the method with the word test. import org.junit.*; import static org.junit.Assert.*; public class DummyTestB { @Test public void Sum() { int a = 5; int b = 10; int result = a + b; assertEquals(15, result); } } Mixing the two seems not to be a good idea, see e.g. this stackoverflow question: Now, my questions(s): What is the preferred approach, or when would you use one instead of the other? Approach B allows for testing for exceptions by extending the @Test annotation like in @Test(expected = ArithmeticException.class). But how do you test for exceptions when using approach A? When using approach A, you can group a number of test classes in a test suite. TestSuite suite = new TestSuite("All tests");<br/> suite.addTestSuite(DummyTestA.class); suite.addTestSuite(DummyTestAbis.class);` But this can't be used with approach B (since each testclass should subclass TestCase). What is the proper way to group tests for approach B?

  Read the article

• MVC JsonResult not working with chrome?

  - by Karsten Detmold

  i want jquery to take a JsonResult from my MVC controller but it does'nt receive any data! If I put the output into a textfile and enter its link its working so I think my jQuery is fine. Then I was testing with other browsers like chrome and I saw NOTHING. The requested page was just emtpy.. no errors. Also IE seems to have problems receiving my string.. only firefox displays the string but why? public JsonResult jsonLastRequests() { List<Request> requests = new List<Request>(); while (r.Read()) { requests.Add(new Models.Request() { ID = (int)r[0], SiteID = r[1].ToString(), Lat = r[2].ToString(), City = r[4].ToString(), CreationTime = (DateTime)r[5] }); } r.Close(); return Json(requests); } I found out that also if I want to return the JSON as string its not working! Its working with a string in all browsers now.. but jQuery is still not loading anything var url = "http://../jsonLastRequests"; var source = { datatype: "json", datafields: [ { name: 'ID' }, { name: 'SiteID' }, { name: 'Lat' }, { name: 'CreationTime' }, { name: 'City' }, ], id: 'id', url: url }; var dataAdapter = new $.jqx.dataAdapter(source, { downloadComplete: function (data, status, xhr) { }, loadComplete: function (data) { }, loadError: function (xhr, status, error) { } }); I fixed my problem by adding: access-control-allow-origin:*

  Read the article

• Scope of "library" methods

  - by JS

  Hello, I'm apparently laboring under a poor understanding of Python scoping. Perhaps you can help. Background: I'm using the 'if name in "main"' construct to perform "self-tests" in my module(s). Each self test makes calls to the various public methods and prints their results for visual checking as I develop the modules. To keep things "purdy" and manageable, I've created a small method to simplify the testing of method calls: def pprint_vars(var_in): print("%s = '%s'" % (var_in, eval(var_in))) Calling pprint_vars with: pprint_vars('some_variable_name') prints: some_variable_name = 'foo' All fine and good. Problem statement: Not happy to just KISS, I had the brain-drizzle to move my handy-dandy 'pprint_vars' method into a separate file named 'debug_tools.py' and simply import 'debug_tools' whenever I wanted access to 'pprint_vars'. Here's where things fall apart. I would expect import debug_tools foo = bar debug_tools.pprint_vars('foo') to continue working its magic and print: foo = 'bar' Instead, it greets me with: NameError: name 'some_var' is not defined Irrational belief: I believed (apparently mistakenly) that import puts imported methods (more or less) "inline" with the code, and thus the variable scoping rules would remain similar to if the method were defined inline. Plea for help: Can someone please correct my (mis)understanding of scoping regards imports? Thanks, JS

  Read the article

• How can i get HWND of external application's listview? In Windows Api using c++

  - by Marko29

  So i am trying to make app to get content of my explorer listviews and get item text etc.. from it but here are the problems... If i inspect windows explorer folder(using spy++) with listview, just for testing purposes i will use random folder. It shows me that caption of the window is "FolderView" with class "SysListView32" and the top level window where this listview is nested is called "reference", this is also the title of windows explorer folder where all the files are. So what i do is.. HWND hWndLV = FindWindow(NULL, TEXT("reference")); // first i get hwnd of the main window, this is where listview window is also nested according to spy++, thats why i do this first. HWND child = FindWindowEx(hWndLV, NULL,NULL,TEXT("FolderView")); // trying to get hwnd of the listview here but it fails, same happens if i also put the class name along as HWND child = FindWindowEx(hWndLV, NULL,TEXT("SysListView32"),TEXT("FolderView")); I am using bool test = IsWindow(child); to test for fail, also VS debugger shows 0x0000000000 each time so i am sure i am reading results well. So i am stuck on this probably simple thing for most of people:( p.s. i am on vista64(if that matters anyhow) edit: It appears that this function works only if i search the first nested level of a parent window i am searching. So i assume what i need is a way to get handle with some sort of deep nested level search. I also tried to go step by step by defining hwnd of every parent then i use findwindowex on it but oh boy then i get to the point where there are 5 nested windows all with the same name and only one of them contains my listview, so nice uh?

  Read the article

• VirtualBox limits size of .js file, that can be included from guest additions folder?

  - by c69

  This question might belong to SuperUser, but i'll try to ask it here anyway, because i believe, some web developers might encountered this weird behavior. When testing a site for IE8/winXP compatibility on VirtualBox i run into weird issue of $ is undefined, which is caused by jQuery (and jQuery UI) being not included, when referenced by relative path, which resolves to file:/// url. Seemingly because their size was too big (above 200KB). Simply replacing links to those 2 big files to http:// ones solved the issue for me. But here is the question: why did this happen ? is it a misconfiguration ? a bug ? a known design decision ? Details: VirtualBox 4.1.8 host os: win7 64bit, guest os: xp sp3 32 bit guest additions installed, page was launched from VB shared folder the bug was manifesting itself in all browsers (even in opera, which ignores ie security settings, afaik) ie configuration is default script was included like this: <script type="text/javascript" src="js/libs/jquery/jquery-1.7.2.js"> exact size limit was not deducted.

  Read the article

• SQL Server performance issue.

  - by Jit

  Hi Friends, I have been trying to analyze performance issue with SQL Server 2005. We have 30 jobs, one for each databases (30 databases, one per each client). The jobs run at early morning at an interval of 5 minutes. When I run the job individually for testing, for most of the databases it finishes in 7 to 9 minutes. But when these jobs run at early morning, I see few jobs taking 2 to 3 hours to finish and the same takes few minutes as mentioned above if ran independently. We dont have any other job scheduled during that time, other than these 30 jobs. If we restart the server then for 2 or so days all the jobs finishes in few minutes, but over the period of time (from 3rd day suddenly), few jobs start taking hours to finish. What could be the possible reason of performance degradation over the period of time? I verified all the SPs and we uses temp tables and I made sure none of the temp table is left without dropping at the end of SP. Let me know what are the possible reasons for such behavior. Appreciate your time and help. Thanks

  Read the article

• Timer Service in ejb 3.1 - schedule calling timeout problem

  - by Greg

  Hi Guys, I have created simple example with @Singleton, @Schedule and @Timeout annotations to try if they would solve my problem. The scenario is this: EJB calls 'check' function every 5 secconds, and if certain conditions are met it will create single action timer that would invoke some long running process in asynchronous fashion. (it's sort of queue implementation type of thing). It then continues to check, but as long as long running process is there it won't start another one. Below is the code I came up with, but this solution does not work, because it looks like asynchronous call I'm making is in fact blocking my @Schedule method. @Singleton @Startup public class GenerationQueue { private Logger logger = Logger.getLogger(GenerationQueue.class.getName()); private List<String> queue = new ArrayList<String>(); private boolean available = true; @Resource TimerService timerService; @Schedule(persistent=true, minute="*", second="*/5", hour="*") public void checkQueueState() { logger.log(Level.INFO,"Queue state check: "+available+" size: "+queue.size()+", "+new Date()); if (available) { timerService.createSingleActionTimer(new Date(), new TimerConfig(null, false)); } } @Timeout private void generateReport(Timer timer) { logger.info("!!--timeout invoked here "+new Date()); available = false; try { Thread.sleep(1000*60*2); // something that lasts for a bit } catch (Exception e) {} available = true; logger.info("New report generation complete"); } What am I missing here or should I try different aproach? Any ideas most welcome :) Testing with Glassfish 3.0.1 latest build - forgot to mention

  Read the article

• converting a timestring to a duration

  - by radman

  Hi, At the moment I am trying to read in a timestring formatted and create a duration from that. I am currently trying to use the boost date_time time_duration class to read and store the value. boost date_time provides a method time_duration duration_from_string(std::string) that allows a time_duration to be created from a time string and it accepts strings formatted appropriately ("[-]h[h][:mm][:ss][.fff]".). Now this method works fine if you use a correctly formatted time string. However if you submit something invalid like "ham_sandwich" or "100" then you will still be returned a time_duration that is not valid. Specifically if you try to pass it to a standard output stream then an assertion will occur. My question is: Does anyone know how to test the validity of the boost time_duration? and failing that can you suggest another method of reading a timestring and getting a duration from it? Note: I have tried the obvious testing methods that time_duration provides; is_not_a_date_time(), is_special() etc and they don't pick up that there is an issue. Using boost 1.38.0

  Read the article

• How do I protect the trunk from hapless newbies?

  - by Michael Haren

  A coworker relayed the following problem, let's say it's fictional to protect the guilty: A team of 5-10 works on a project which is issue-driven. That is, the typical flow goes like this: a chunk of work (bug, enhancement, etc.) is created as an issue in the issue tracker The issue is assigned to a developer The developer resolves the issue and commits their code changes to the trunk At release time, the frozen, and heavily tested trunk or release branch or whatever is built in release mode and released The problem he's having is that a couple newbies made several bad commits that weren't caught due to an unfortunate chain of events. This was followed by a bad release with a rollback or flurry of hot fixes. One idea we're toying with: Revoke commit access to the trunk for newbies and make them develop on a per-developer branch (we're using SVN): Good: newbies are isolated and can't hurt others Good: committers merge newbie branches with the trunk frequently Good: this enforces rigid code reviews Bad: this is burdensome on the committers (but there's probably no way around it since the code needs reviewed!) Bad: it might make traceability of trunk changes a little tougher since the reviewer would be doing the commit--not too sure on this. Update: Thank you, everyone, for your valuable input. I have concluded that this is far less a code/coder problem than I first presented. The root of the issue is that the release procedure failed to capture and test some poor quality changes to the trunk. Plugging that hole is most important. Relying on the false assumption that code in the trunk is "good" is not the solution. Once that hole--testing--is plugged, mistakes by everyone--newbie or senior--will be caught properly and dealt with accordingly. Next, a greater emphasis on code reviews and mentorship (probably driven by some systematic changes to encourage it) will go a long way toward improving code quality. With those two fixes in place, I don't think something as rigid or draconian as what I proposed above is necessary. Thanks!

  Read the article

• Help with jQuery Ajax calling ASMX which returns string.

  - by Jason Evans

  Hi there. I have the following jQuery ajax call setup: function Testing() { var result = ''; $.ajax({ url: 'BookingUtils.asmx/GetNonBookableSlots', dataType: 'text', error: function(error) { alert('GetNonBookableSlots Error'); }, success: function(data) { alert('GetNonBookableSlots'); result = data; } }); return result; } Here is the web service I'm trying to call: [WebMethod] public string GetNonBookableSlots() { return "fhsdfuhsiufhsd"; } When I run the jQuery code, there is no error or success event fired (none of the alerts are called). In fact, nothing happens at all, the javascript code just moves on to return statement at the end. I put a breakpoint in the web service code and it does get hit, but when I leave that method I end up on the return statement anyway. Can someone give me some tips on how I should be configuring the ajax call correctly, as I feel that I'm doing this wrong. The webservice just needs to return a string, no XML or JSON involved. Cheers. Jas.

  Read the article

• AudioRecord problems with non-HTC devices

  - by Marc

  I'm having troubles using AudioRecord. An example using some of the code derived from the splmeter project: private static final int FREQUENCY = 8000; private static final int CHANNEL = AudioFormat.CHANNEL_CONFIGURATION_MONO; private static final int ENCODING = AudioFormat.ENCODING_PCM_16BIT; private int BUFFSIZE = 50; private AudioRecord recordInstance = null; ... android.os.Process.setThreadPriority(android.os.Process.THREAD_PRIORITY_URGENT_AUDIO); recordInstance = new AudioRecord(MediaRecorder.AudioSource.MIC, FREQUENCY, CHANNEL, ENCODING, 8000); recordInstance.startRecording(); short[] tempBuffer = new short[BUFFSIZE]; int retval = 0; while (this.isRunning) { for (int i = 0; i < BUFFSIZE - 1; i++) { tempBuffer[i] = 0; } retval = recordInstance.read(tempBuffer, 0, BUFFSIZE); ... // process the data } This works on the HTC Dream and the HTC Magic perfectly without any log warnings/errors, but causes problems on the emulators and Nexus One device. On the Nexus one, it simply never returns useful data. I cannot provide any other useful information as I'm having a remote friend do the testing. On the emulators (Android 1.5, 2.1 and 2.2), I get weird errors from the AudioFlinger and Buffer overflows with the AudioRecordThread. I also get a major slowdown in UI responsiveness (even though the recording takes place in a separate thread than the UI). Is there something apparent that I'm doing incorrectly? Do I have to do anything special for the Nexus One hardware?

  Read the article

• Concurrent WCF calls via shared channel

  - by Kent Boogaart

  I have a web tier that forwards calls onto an application tier. The web tier uses a shared, cached channel to do so. The application tier services in question are stateless and have concurrency enabled. But they are not being called concurrently. If I alter the web tier to create a new channel on every call, then I do get concurrent calls onto the application tier. But I wanted to avoid that cost since it is functionally unnecessary for my scenario. I have no session state, and nor do I need to re-authenticate the caller each time. I understand that the creation of the channel factory is far more expensive than than the creation of the channels, but it is still a cost I'd like to avoid if possible. I found this article on MSDN that states: While channels and clients created by the channels are thread-safe, they might not support writing more than one message to the wire concurrently. If you are sending large messages, particularly if streaming, the send operation might block waiting for another send to complete. Firstly, I'm not sending large messages (just a lot of small ones since I'm doing load testing) but am still seeing the blocking behavior. Secondly, this is rather open-ended and unhelpful documentation. It says they "might not" support writing more than one message but doesn't explain the scenarios under which they would support concurrent messages. Can anyone shed some light on this?

  Read the article

• Could my forms be hacked.

  - by Mike Sandman

  Hi there, I posted a question yesterday, which I intend to get back to today however I wrote some JavaScript as a first line of prevention against XSS. However when testing this on my live server I catch some invalid input as the javascript catches the php section. My form uses post and php isn't in my form items (i haven't typed it in). Could this be picking up the form action or something? I'm baffeled, Any ideas Here is my code, it is triggered on the submit button. function validateForBadNess(){ var theShit = new Array("*","^", "$", "(",")","{", "}","[", "]","\", "|", "'","/","?",",","=","","gt","lt", "<","script","`","´","php"); var tagName = new Array(); tagName[0] = "input"; tagName[1] = "select"; tagName[2] = "textbox"; tagName[3] = "textarea"; for (ms=0;ms // loop through the elements of the form var formItems = document.getElementsByTagName(tagName[ms]); for (var xs=0;xs var thisString = formItems[xs].value; // loop through bad array for (zs in theShit){ //alert(thisString + " " + thisString.indexOf(theShit[zs])) if(thisString.indexOf(theShit[zs]) >= 0){ alert("Sorry but the following character: " + theShit[zs] + " is not permitted. Please omit it from your input.\nIf this is part of your password please contact us to heave your password reset.") return false; } } // loop for formitems } // tagName toop } // original condition }

  Read the article

• Overlapping 2 Flash objects and controlling z-index

  - by Magnus Smith

  I have two Flash objects on a webpage (call them A and B), and they overlap so one partially obscures the other. I don't seem to have any control over the z-index, to force B in front of A. Whatever I try, A always 'wins' and stays on the top! I have read many people's posts about problem with getting HTML to show over the top of Flash...but nothing about when your two overlapping items are both Flash objects. I have tried various combinations of wmode=opaque/transparent/window I have tried CSS position:absolute/relative and z-index:0/999 I have tried placing the HTML sections in a different order The problem is the same in IE6 and Firefox 2.0 I do not want to use jQuery in this case In my particular situation B must have position:absolute and wmode=transparent, and sit above A. A needs relative positioning and transparency is not required. However, I have been testing without these restrictions, and I still have no control over the overlap. Are some SWFs (ours are adverts sent by clients) created in such a way as to override any code control of z-index? Thanks for any advice you can give.

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 365 366 367 368 369 370 371 372 373 374 375 376  | Next Page >