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• R: disentangling scopes

  - by rescdsk

  Hi, Right now, in my R project, I have functions1.R with doFoo() and doBar(), functions2.R with other functions, and main.R with the main program in it, which first does source('functions1.R'); source('functions2.R'), and then calls the other functions. I've been starting the program from the R GUI in Mac OS X, with source('main.R'). This is fine the first time, but after that, the variables that were defined the first time through the program are defined for the second time functions*.R are sourced, and so the functions get a whole bunch of extra variables defined. I don't want that! I want an "undefined variable" error when my function uses a variable it shouldn't! Twice this has given me very late nights of debugging! So how do other people deal with this sort of problem? Is there something like source(), but that makes an independent namespace that doesn't fall through to the main one? Making a package seems like one solution, but it seems like a big pain in the butt compared to e.g. Python, where a source file is automatically a separate namespace. Any tips? Thank you!

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• keyup bindings not working in Firefox

  - by Jarred

  Hi. You can see my project here - http://www.inluxphoto.com/custom/jsgallery/index.php I am attempting to make the left and right arrow keys move the slideshow. I was able to get it to work in all browsers by following exactly the instructions on the front page of jqueryfordesigners.com (sorry I am only allowed one link). However, it is necessary that the keyup be unbinded until the animation completes, so the user cannot do a quick double tap of the key, which breaks the show. This led me to the following function - function keyCommands() { //Bind Keys according to keyAssignments function keyCommandBind() { $(document.documentElement).bind('keyup', keyAssignments) } //Bind functions to specific keys function keyAssignments() { if (event.keyCode == 37) { leftArrow(); } if (event.keyCode == 39) { rightArrow(); } if (event.keyCode == 32) { spaceBar(); } } function leftArrow() { //unbind, do stuff, rebind } function rightArrow() { //unbind, do stuff, rebind } function spaceBar() { //unbind, do stuff, rebind } keyCommandBind(); } This works in all browsers except Firefox & Camino. Firebug tells me event (ie event.keyCode) is not defined. That's true, it's not defined, and I understand that. However I don't understand why, if it's not defined, does it work in all other browsers. How can I appropriately define this? Or, am I doing it wrong? Any help would be most appreciated, thanks for your time!

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• Linking error while using Qt static built libraries

  - by Kamran Amini

  I hope this is not a duplicate. Recently I'm developing a native C++ application using Qt 4.8.3 and VS2008. Since clients run the application on their naked machines, they need to install VC++ 2008 Redistribution package. So I decided to make it statically linked. I changed my project settings (C/C++ Code Generation Runtime Library) to /MTd. Also I compiled Qt again, this time using following commands for a static building; originally found on this blog Static Qt with static CRT (VS 2008) 1- replaced -MD with -MT in lines QMAKE_CFLAGS_RELEASE and QMAKE_CFLAGS_DEBUG in %QDIR%\mkspecs\win32-msvc2008\qmake.conf 2- nmake confclean 3- configure -static -platform win32-msvc2008 -no-webkit 4- nmake sub-src I compiled Qt successfully. But when I tried again to compile my application, it gave me some strange errors. 1>Linking... 1>qtmaind.lib(qtmain_win.obj) : error LNK2005: "public: bool __thiscall QBasicAtomicInt::deref(void)" (?deref@QBasicAtomicInt@@QAE_NXZ) already defined in QtCored4.lib(QtCored4.dll) 1>qtmaind.lib(qtmain_win.obj) : error LNK2005: "public: bool __thiscall QBasicAtomicInt::operator!=(int)const " (??9QBasicAtomicInt@@QBE_NH@Z) already defined in QtCored4.lib(QtCored4.dll) 1>qtmaind.lib(qtmain_win.obj) : error LNK2005: "public: __thiscall QString::~QString(void)" (??1QString@@QAE@XZ) already defined in QtCored4.lib(QtCored4.dll) I changed some lib files but with each change, situation got worse; for example I tried to use QtCored.lib instead of QtCored4.lib because it is newly created after compilation. I think I've missed something in building static Qt libs. Thanks.

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• Dynamically bind argument and default value to existing function in Javascript

  - by Scott

  Let's suppose you have some function someFunc() already defined in javascript, that may or may not have its own argument set defined. Is it possible to write another function to add a required argument and set that argument to a default for someFunc()? Something like: var someFunc = function(arg1, arg2 ...){ Do stuff...} var addRequired = function(argName, argValue, fn) { Add the required default arg to a function... } addRequired("x", 20, someFunc); Now someFunc would be defined roughly like so: someFunc = function(x, arg1, arg2...) { x = 20; Do stuff... } What I am really seeking is to not only bind a this value to a function (which I already know how to achieve), but also bind another object reference to that same function (the function not being known ahead of time, as a user will define it, but then the user's code has access to this second object reference for use in their own function). So in my simple example above, the "20" value will actually be an object reference. Thanks for any help you can offer.

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• Can I use a property placeholder with Spring EL?

  - by David Easley

  Before upgrading to Spring 3 I had this in my applicationContext.xml file: <bean class="com.northgateis.pole.ws.PolePayloadValidatingInterceptor"> <property name="validateRequest" value="${validateRequest}" /> <property name="validateResponse" value="${validateResponse}" /> </bean> where ${validateRequest) and ${validateRequest) refer to properties that may or may not be defined in my properties file. In Spring 2, if these proeprties were not present in the properties file the setters on the bean were not called and so the defaults hard-coded in PolePayloadValidatingInterceptor were used. After upgrading to Spring 3, it seems the behaviour is different: If the properties are not present in the properties file I get the following exception: SEVERE: Exception sending context initialized event to listener instance of class org.springframework.web.context.ContextLoaderListener org.springframework.beans.factory.BeanDefinitionStoreException: Invalid bean definition with name 'annotationMapping' defined in class path resource [com/northgateis/pole/ws/applicationContext-ws.xml]: Could not resolve placeholder 'validateRequest' at org.springframework.beans.factory.config.PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer.processProperties(PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer.java:272) at org.springframework.beans.factory.config.PropertyResourceConfigurer.postProcessBeanFactory(PropertyResourceConfigurer.java:75) at org.springframework.context.support.AbstractApplicationContext.invokeBeanFactoryPostProcessors(AbstractApplicationContext.java:640) at org.springframework.context.support.AbstractApplicationContext.invokeBeanFactoryPostProcessors(AbstractApplicationContext.java:615) at org.springframework.context.support.AbstractApplicationContext.refresh(AbstractApplicationContext.java:405) at org.springframework.web.context.ContextLoader.createWebApplicationContext(ContextLoader.java:272) I tried dabbling with Spring EL but the following doesn't seem to work: <bean class="com.northgateis.pole.ws.PolePayloadValidatingInterceptor"> <property name="validateRequest" value="${validateRequest?:true}" /> <property name="validateResponse" value="${validateResponse?:false}" /> </bean> The value after the Elvis operator is always used, even when the properties are defined in the proeprties file. Interesting that the syntax is accepted. Any suggestions?

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• Twig templates, inheritances and block usage

  - by user846226

  I've created three templates using Twig. The first one has block A defined in it, the second one extends from the first one, but includes a third template which sets the content of block A. When loading, through the browser, the url which renders b.html.twig, the content in block A (defined by the 3th template) is not positioned block _A is defined. Example: <!-- base.html.twig --> {% block _css '' %} {% block _header '' %} {% block _content '' %} {% block _footer '' %} {% block _js '' %} <!-- layout.html.twig --> <!-- header and footer are placed in the raight zone --> {% extends ::base.html.twig %} {% block _header %} {% render "MyBundleBundle:Header:header" %} {% endblock %} {% block _footer %} {% render "MyBundleBundle:Footer:footer" %} {% endblock %} <!-- my_template.html.twig --> <!-- content is also placed in the right zone but css and js blocks in the included template are not placed where declared in base.html.twig --> {% extends MyBundleBundle::layout.html.twig %} {% block _content %} SOME_CONTENT {% include MyBundleBundle::my_included_template.html.twig %} {% endblock %} <!-- my_included_template.html.twig --> {% block _css %} <link.......................> {% endblock %} {% block _js %} <script..................> {% endblock %} MORE CONTENT BELONGING TO THE INCLUDED TEMPLATE What i expect here is, _css blocks content to appear on top of the page and _js block content at the bottom, but that's not happening. I hope you can see where i'm going wrong, thanks!

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• Does Internet Explorer 7 have a CSS parsing issue with the "background-image" property?

  - by user312003

  Having CSS layout issues with Internet Explorer 7 (big surprise). Upon using the Developer Tools to inspect the CSS, I discovered that some properties defined in the stylesheet are not appearing in the parsed CSS structure... THEN I saw THIS being shown as the parsed value for the background-image property: background-image : url(/trunk/httpdocs/images/layout/HCBL_Homepage_01.jpg); WIDTH: 1200px; pretty much obliterating the width that was defined property. The actual code in the CSS file for this element: div#header { width: 1200px; height: 100px; margin-left: auto; margin-right: auto; background-image: url('/trunk/httpdocs/images/layout/HCBL_Homepage_01.jpg'); background-repeat: no-repeat; } If anyone could offer any insight, or provide a link describing this problem (and maybe a workaround...) I would be very appreciative. Also, I am only interested in this from a parsing of the stylesheet and CSS syntax perspective. I am not concerned with rendering and display issues at the moment; I simply want to get IE 7 (and I have a feeling IE 6 will have similar issues) to recognize and parse ALL of the CSS properties that have been defined in the stylesheet. Thanks in advance guys!

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• PHP import functions

  - by ninuhadida

  Hi, I'm trying to find the best pragmatic approach to import functions on the fly... let me explain. Say I have a directory called functions which has these files: array_select.func.php stat_mediam.func.php stat_mean.func.php ..... I would like to: load each individual file (which has a function defined inside) and use it just like an internal php function.. such as array_pop(), array_shift(), etc. Once I stumbled on a tutorial (which I can't find again now) that compiled user defined functions as part of a PHP installation.. Although that's not a very good solution because on shared/reseller hosting you can't recompile the PHP installation. I don't want to have conflicts with future versions of PHP / other extensions, i.e. if a function named X by me, is suddenly part of the internal php functions (even though it might not have the same functionality per se) I don't want PHP to throw a fatal error because of this and fail miserably. So the best method that I can think of is to check if a function is defined, using function_exists(), if so throw a notice so that it's easy to track in the log files, otherwise define the function. However that will probably translate to having a lot of include/require statement in other files where I need such a function, which I don't really like. Or possibly, read the directory and loop over each *.func.php file and include_once. Though I find this a bit ugly. The question is, have you ever stumbled upon some source code which handled such a case? How was it implemented? Did you ever do something similar? I need as much ideas as possible! :)

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• Why do case class companion objects extend FunctionN?

  - by retronym

  When you create a case class, the compiler creates a corresponding companion object with a few of the case class goodies: an apply factory method matching the primary constructor, equals, hashCode, and copy. Somewhat oddly, this generated object extends FunctionN. scala> case class A(a: Int) defined class A scala> A: (Int => A) res0: (Int) => A = <function1> This is only the case if: There is no manually defined companion object There is exactly one parameter list There are no type arguments The case class isn't abstract. Seems like this was added about two years ago. The latest incarnation is here. Does anyone use this, or know why it was added? It increases the size of the generated bytecode a little with static forwarder methods, and shows up in the #toString() method of the companion objects: scala> case class A() defined class A scala> A.toString res12: java.lang.String = <function0>

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• How to pass a function in a function?

  - by SoulBeaver

  That's an odd title. I would greatly appreciate it if somebody could clarify what exactly I'm asking because I'm not so sure myself. I'm watching the Stanford videos on Programming Paradigms(that teacher is awesome) and I'm up to video five when he started doing this: void *lSearch( void* key, void* base, int elemSize, int n, int (*cmpFn)(void*, void*)) Naturally, I thought to myself, "Oi, I didn't know you could declare a function and define it later!". So I created my own C++ test version. int foo(int (*bar)(void*, void*)); int bar(void* a, void* b); int main(int argc, char** argv) { int *func = 0; foo(bar); cin.get(); return 0; } int foo(int (*bar)(void*, void*)) { int c(10), d(15); int *a = &c; int *b = &d; bar(a, b); return 0; } int bar(void* a, void* b) { cout << "Why hello there." << endl; return 0; } The question about the code is this: it fails if I declare function int *bar as a parameter of foo, but not int (*bar). Why!? Also, the video confuses me in the fact that his lSearch definition void* lSearch( /*params*/ , int (*cmpFn)(void*, void*)) is calling cmpFn in the definition, but when calling the lSearch function lSearch( /*params*/, intCmp ); also calls the defined function int intCmp(void* elem1, void* elem2); and I don't get how that works. Why, in lSearch, is the function called cmpFn, but defined as intCmp, which is of type int, not int* and still works? And why does the function in lSearch not have to have defined parameters?

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• Why is this CHOICE element not getting assigned in my SharePoint Field definition schema?

  - by ccornet

  I defined a new field of the type "Choice" for my web application. It will serve basically as a pseudo-lookup as its contents are defined by the value of a Text field in a list. It is initialized with a dummy choice to begin with (I'm under the impression a choice field needs at least one choice when defined), which is replaced with a real choice later on. But for some reason, this dummy choice is never actually added to the choices! Below is the XML Schema for the field in question. <Field ID="{ALICEH-ASFA-KEGU-IDLISTED}" Name="ddlSystems" Group="Lookup Columns" DisplayName="ddlSystems" Type="Choice" Sealed="FALSE" ReadOnly="FALSE" Hidden="FALSE" FillInChoice="TRUE" DisplaceOnUpgrade="TRUE"> <CHOICES> <CHOICE>BLANULL</CHOICE> </CHOICES> <Default>BLANULL</Default> </Field> Initially, I used a default choice of (a single space), but I changed it to BLANULL so that I can parse an actual word instead of a veritably empty string. Now, even after having uninstalled and reinstalled the feature with this field, I have a choice field that has (still a single space) as the only choice. Even more perplexing, BLANULL is actually listed for the default value in both the UI and the object model! What is causing this problem, and how can I circumvent it so that I don't have to manually set this dummy value each time?

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• Enum "copy" problem

  - by f0b0s

  Hi all! I have a class, let's call it A. It has a enum (E) and a method Foo(E e), with gets E in the arguments. I want to write a wrapper (decorator) W for A. So it'll have its own method Foo(A::E). But I want to have some kind of encapsulation, so this method should defined as Foo(F f), where F is another enum defined in W, that can be converted to A::E. For example: class A { public: enum E { ONE, TWO, THREE }; void Foo(E e); }; class B { //enum F; // ??? void Foo(F f) { a_.Foo(f); } private: A a_; }; How F should be defined? I don't want to copy value like this: enum F { ONE = A::ONE, TWO = A::TWO, THREE = A::THREE }; because its a potential error in the near feature. Is the typedef definition: typedef A::E F; is the best decision? Is it legal?

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• UnicodeEncodeError: 'ascii' codec can't encode character [...]

  - by user1461135

  I have read the HOWTO on Unicode from the official docs and a full, very detailed article as well. Still I don't get it why it throws me this error. Here is what I attempt: I open an XML file that contains chars out of ASCII range (but inside allowed XML range). I do that with cfg = codecs.open(filename, encoding='utf-8, mode='r') which runs fine. Looking at the string with repr() also shows me a unicode string. Now I go ahead and read that with parseString(cfg.read().encode('utf-8'). Of course, my XML file starts with this: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?>. Although I suppose it is not relevant, I also defined utf-8 for my python script, but since I am not writing unicode characters directly in it, this should not apply here. Same for the following line: from __future__ import unicode_literals which also is right at the beginning. Next thing I pass the generated Object to my own class where I read tags into variables like this: xmldata.getElementsByTagName(tagName)[0].firstChild.data and assign it to a variable in my class. Now what perfectly works are those commands (obj is an instance of the class): for element in obj: print element And this command does work as well: print obj.__repr__() I defined __iter__() to just yield every variable while __repr__() uses the typical printf stuff: "%s" % self.varname Both commands print perfectly and can output the unicode character. What does not work is this: print obj And now I am stuck because this throws the dreaded UnicodeEncodeError: 'ascii' codec can't encode character u'\xfc' in position 47: So what am I missing? What am I doing wrong? I am looking for a general solution, I always want to handle strings as unicode, just to avoid any possible errors and write a compatible program. Edit: I also defined this: def __str__(self): return self.__repr__() def __unicode__(self): return self.__repr__() From documentation I got that this

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• Shortcut to create automatic properties using Visual Studio 2008/2010 or Resharper 5

  - by Piers Myers

  I have a class that contains a load of properties that contain results of some calculations e.g: public class Results { public double Result1 { get; set; } public double Result2 { get; set; } } In a different class I am doing calculations to populate the above properties, e.g: public class Calc { private Results Calc() { Results res = new Results(); res.Result1 = ... some calculation res.Result2 = ... some other calculation res.Result3 = ... // not yet defined in 'Results' class return res; } } When I am writing the Calc class, 'Result3' will be highlighted in red as it is not yet defined in the 'Results' class. Currently I am using the Resharper ALT-Enter shortcut, selecting "Create Property 'Result3'" which will create the following code int the 'Results' class: public double Result3 { get { throw new NotImplementedException(); } set { throw new NotImplementedException(); } } Which I need to manually change to: public double Result3 { get; set; } Then I use the CTRL-Shift-Backspace shortcut to take me back to the 'Calc' class. How can I easily create automatic properties in the 'Results' class if they are not yet defined directly from the 'Calc' class?

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• A quick question on data returned by jquery.ajax() call (EDITED)

  - by recipriversexclusion

  EDIT: The original problem was due a stupid syntax mistake somewhere else, whicj I fixed. I have a new problem though, as described below I have the following jquery.ajax call: $.ajax({ type: 'GET', url: servicesUrl + "/" + ID + "/tasks", dataType: "xml", success : createTaskListTable }); The createTaskListTable function is defined as function createTaskListTable(taskListXml) { $(taskListXml).find("Task").each(function(){ alert("Found task") }); // each task } Problem is: this doesn't work, I get an error saying taskListXml is not defined. JQuery documentation states that the success functions gets passed three arguments, the first of which is the data. How can I pass the data returned by .ajax() to my function with a variable name of my own choosing. My problem now is that I'm getting the XML from a previous ajax call! How is this even possible? That previous function is defined as function convertServiceXmlDataToTable(xml), so they don't use the same variable name. Utterly confused. Is this some caching issue? If so, how can I clear the browser cache to get rid of the earlier XML? Thanks!

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• How do I write an RSpec test to unit-test this interesting metaprogramming code?

  - by Kyle Kaitan

  Here's some simple code that, for each argument specified, will add specific get/set methods named after that argument. If you write attr_option :foo, :bar, then you will see #foo/foo= and #bar/bar= instance methods on Config: module Configurator class Config def initialize() @options = {} end def self.attr_option(*args) args.each do |a| if not self.method_defined?(a) define_method "#{a}" do @options[:"#{a}"] ||= {} end define_method "#{a}=" do |v| @options[:"#{a}"] = v end else throw Exception.new("already have attr_option for #{a}") end end end end end So far, so good. I want to write some RSpec tests to verify this code is actually doing what it's supposed to. But there's a problem! If I invoke attr_option :foo in one of the test methods, that method is now forever defined in Config. So a subsequent test will fail when it shouldn't, because foo is already defined: it "should support a specified option" do c = Configurator::Config c.attr_option :foo # ... end it "should support multiple options" do c = Configurator::Config c.attr_option :foo, :bar, :baz # Error! :foo already defined # by a previous test. # ... end Is there a way I can give each test an anonymous "clone" of the Config class which is independent of the others?

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• Running single test class or group with Surefire and TestNG

  - by Slartibartfast

  I want to run single test class from command line using Maven and TestNG Things that doesn't work: mvn -Dtest=ClassName test I have defined groups in pom.xml, and this class isn't in one of those groups. So it got excluded on those grounds. mvn -Dgroups=skipped-group test mvn -Dsurefire.groups=skipped-group test when config is <plugin> <groupId>org.apache.maven.plugins</groupId> <artifactId>maven-surefire-plugin</artifactId> <version>2.7.1</version> <configuration> <groups>functest</groups> </configuration> </plugin> Parameters work fine in there are no groups defined in pom.xml. Similarly, when surefire is configured with <configuration> <includes> <include>**/*UnitTest.java</include> </includes> </configuration> I can add another test with -Dtest parameter, but cannot add group. In any combination, I can narrow down tests to be executed with groups, but not expand them. What's wrong with my configuration? Is there a way to run a single test or group outside of those defined in pom.xml? Tried on Ubuntu 10.04 with Maven 2.2.1, TestNG 5.14.6 and Surefire 2.7.1

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• SWIG interface to receive an opaque struct reference in Java through function argument

  - by Beeo

  I am trying to use SWIG in order to use the Spotify API (libspotify) for Android: https://developer.spotify.com/technologies/libspotify/ I am having trouble defining the SWIG interface file to be able to successfully call the following native C function: sp_error sp_session_create(const sp_session_config * config, sp_session ** sess); Which in C would be called like this: //config struct defined previously sp_session *sess; sp_session_create(&config, &sess); But in Java I would need to call it like this: //config object defined previously sp_session javaSess = new sp_session(); sp_session_create(config, javaSess); sp_session is an opaque struct and is only defined in libspotify's API.h file as: typedef struct sp_session sp_session; I'm expecting the libspotify library to create it and give me a reference to it. The only thing I need that reference for then is to pass to other functions in the API. I believe the answer lies within the SWIG interface and typemaps, but I have been unsuccessful in trying to apply the examples I found in the documentation: http://www.swig.org/Doc2.0/SWIGDocumentation.html#Java_struct_pointer_pointer `http://www.swig.org/Doc2.0/SWIGDocumentation.html#Java_using_typemaps_return_arguments Help!

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• Where to define a filter function for a form field in my Joomla component's preferences

  - by Herman

  I am creating a component in Joomla 2.5. This component has some options that are defined in its config.xml, so they can be set in the preferences of the component. Now I would like to apply a filter to one of these option fields, using the attribute filter="my_filter". In the source code of JForm I saw the following lines at the very end of the implementation of JForm::filterField(): if (strpos($filter, '::') !== false && is_callable(explode('::', $filter))) { $return = call_user_func(explode('::', $filter), $value); } elseif (function_exists($filter)) { $return = call_user_func($filter, $value); } That's what I needed for using a filter function defined by myself! I managed to do this for form fields used in the views of my component. I defined the filter function as MyComponentHelper::my_filter(), where MyComponentHelper is a helper class which I always load in the very base of my component. And in the form's xml I added filter="MyComponentHelper::my_filter" to the fields that have to be filtered. However... when I am trying to apply the filter function to a form field in my component's preferences, I am not in my own component, but in com_config instead, so my helper class is not available! So, therefore, my question: where to define my own filter function in such a way that it can be found and called by JForm::filterField() in com_config?? Help is very much appreciated.

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• How to get the Entire Function from a file

  - by SoLoGHoST

  Ok, I'm reading through a file now, line by line. I know each functions name in the file, since it is defined elsewhere in an XML document. That is what should be this: function function_name Where function_name is the name of the function. I get all of the function definitions from an XML document that I already have put into an array of function names, and I need to grab just those functions from the php file. And rebuild that php file so that it only has those functions in it. That is to say, if a php file has more functions than what is defined in the XML tag, than I need to strip out those functions, and rewrite the .php file with only the functions that the user specified in the XML file. So, the dilemma I face is how to determine the END of a function reading line by line, and I'm aware that functions can have function within them. So I don't want to remove the functions within them. Just functions that are standalone and aren't defined within the accompanying XML file. Any ideas on how to do this?? Thanks :)

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• Call a dynamically generated method on a ILGenerator on the same type

  - by Thiado de Arruda

  Normally, when I want to call a dynamic method in another ILGenerator object that is writing a method on the same type I do the following : generator.Emit(OpCodes.Ldarg_0); // reference to the current object generator.Emit(OpCodes.Ldstr, "someArgument"); generator.Emit(OpCodes.Call, methodBuilder); //this methodbuilder is also defined on this dynamic type. However, I faced the following problem: I cant have a reference to the methodbuilder of the method I want to call, because it is generated by another framework(I only get a reference to the current TypeBuilder). This method is defined as protected virtual(and overriden on the methodbuilder I cant get a reference to) in the base class of the current dynamic type and I can get a reference to it by doing this : generator.Emit(OpCodes.Ldarg_0); // reference to the current object generator.Emit(OpCodes.Ldstr, "someArgument"); generator.Emit(OpCodes.Call, baseType.GetMethod("SomeMethodDefinedInBaseClassThatWasOverridenInThisDynamicType")); The problem is that this calls the method on the base type and not the overriden method. Is there any way I can get a reference to a methodbuilder only having a reference to the typebuilder that defined it? Or is there a way to call a method using ILGenerator without having to pass the 'MethodInfo' object to it?

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• Can't get KnownType to work with WCF

  - by Kelly Cline

  I have an interface and a class defined in separate assemblies, like this: namespace DataInterfaces { public interface IPerson { string Name { get; set; } } } namespace DataObjects { [DataContract] [KnownType( typeof( IPerson ) ) ] public class Person : IPerson { [DataMember] public string Name { get; set; } } } This is my Service Interface: public interface ICalculator { [OperationContract] IPerson GetPerson ( ); } When I update my Service Reference for my Client, I get this in the Reference.cs: public object GetPerson() { return base.Channel.GetPerson(); I was hoping that KnownType would give me IPerson instead of "object" here. I have also tried [KnownType( typeof( Person ) ) ] with the same result. I have control of both client and server, so I have my DataObjects (where Person is defined) and DataInterfaces (where IPerson is defined) assemblies in both places. Is there something obvious I am missing? I thought KnownType was the answer to being able to use interfaces with WCF. ----- FURTHER INFORMATION ----- I removed the KnownType from the Person class and added [ServiceKnownType( typeof( Person ) ) ] to my service interface, as suggested by Richard. The client-side proxy still looks the same, public object GetPerson() { return base.Channel.GetPerson(); , but now it doesn't blow up. The client just has an "object", though, so it has to cast it to IPerson before it is useful. var person = client.GetPerson ( ); Console.WriteLine ( ( ( IPerson ) person ).Name );

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• iphone - grouping UIImageViews x blocking elements

  - by Mike

  I have to rotate several UIImageViews around a specific center. To accomplish this I am using the famous trick of putting these views as subviews of a larger one and rotating that one. The problem is that these subviews have to detect touches, because each one has buttons on it. The hierarchy is like this LARGE_VIEW | |_____ imageView1 | |_________ button1 | |_________ button2 | |_________ button3 | |_____ imageView2 |_________ button4 |_________ button5 |_________ button6 etc So, to make buttons respond to tap, I had to make this; [LARGE_VIEW setUserInteractionEnabled:YES]; [imageView1 setUserInteractionEnabled:YES]; [imageView2 setUserInteractionEnabled:YES]; ImageView1 and 2 are two vertical rows of buttons on each side of the screen. The problem is that there's another view below LARGE_VIEW and this view is not receiving the taps, because LARGE_VIEW is intercepting them first. I don't need LARGE_VIEW to detect any taps except on the two areas where imageView 1 and 2 are. LARGE_VIEW must let pass taps on the area defined by this rect (52, 0, 768-2*52, 1024). ImageView1 and 2 have this size: 52 pixels wide and 1024 pixels high (iPad). ImageView1's rect is: (0, 0, 52, 1024) and ImageView2's rect is: (768-52, 0, 52, 1024) LARGE_VIEW must let pass taps on the area defined by this rect (52, 0, 768-2*52, 1024). How to solve that? I need LARGE_VIEW detect taps on each rect defined on my previous paragraph and pass these taps to its subviews and just let pass taps outside these rects to the app, so other views BELOW, can detect taps too. thanks.

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• useer degined Copy ctor, and copy-ctors further down the chain - compiler bug ? programers brainbug

  - by J.Colmsee

  Hi. i have a little problem, and I am not sure if it's a compiler bug, or stupidity on my side. I have this struct : struct BulletFXData { int time_next_fx_counter; int next_fx_steps; Particle particles[2];//this is the interesting one ParticleManager::ParticleId particle_id[2]; }; The member "Particle particles[2]" has a self-made kind of smart-ptr in it (resource-counted texture-class). this smart-pointer has a default constructor, that initializes to the ptr to 0 (but that is not important) I also have another struct, containing the BulletFXData struct : struct BulletFX { BulletFXData data; BulletFXRenderFunPtr render_fun_ptr; BulletFXUpdateFunPtr update_fun_ptr; BulletFXExplosionFunPtr explode_fun_ptr; BulletFXLifetimeOverFunPtr lifetime_over_fun_ptr; BulletFX( BulletFXData data, BulletFXRenderFunPtr render_fun_ptr, BulletFXUpdateFunPtr update_fun_ptr, BulletFXExplosionFunPtr explode_fun_ptr, BulletFXLifetimeOverFunPtr lifetime_over_fun_ptr) :data(data), render_fun_ptr(render_fun_ptr), update_fun_ptr(update_fun_ptr), explode_fun_ptr(explode_fun_ptr), lifetime_over_fun_ptr(lifetime_over_fun_ptr) { } /* //USER DEFINED copy-ctor. if it's defined things go crazy BulletFX(const BulletFX& rhs) :data(data),//this line of code seems to do a plain memory-copy without calling the right ctors render_fun_ptr(render_fun_ptr), update_fun_ptr(update_fun_ptr), explode_fun_ptr(explode_fun_ptr), lifetime_over_fun_ptr(lifetime_over_fun_ptr) { } */ }; If i use the user-defined copy-ctor my smart-pointer class goes crazy, and it seems that calling the CopyCtor / assignment operator aren't called as they should. So - does this all make sense ? it seems as if my own copy-ctor of struct BulletFX should do exactly what the compiler-generated would, but it seems to forget to call the right constructors down the chain. compiler bug ? me being stupid ? Sorry about the big code, some small example could have illustrated too. but often you guys ask for the real code, so well - here it is :D

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• Web Control added in .master control type not found in child page

  - by turtle

  I have a Web Site project, and within it I have a user Web Control defined in an ascx file. The control is added to the Site.Master, and it shows up correctly on the page and everything is fine. I need to override some of the control's fields on one of the pages that derive from Site.Master. // In OnLoad: MyControlName control = (MyControlName) Page.Master.GetBaseMasterPage().FindControl("controlID")); The issue is that MyControlName doesn't register as a valid Type on the child page. If I add a second instance of the control to the child page directly, the above works as needed, but if the control isn't placed directly on the page, and instead is only defined in the master page, the type is undefined. The control is not in a namespace, and is defined within the project, so I don't know why it is having such an issue location the appropriate type. If I put a breakpoint in the OnLoad, the type listed for the control is ASP.my_control_name_ascx, but using that does not work either. Why can't the child class reference the correct type? Can I fix this? Thanks!

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