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  • Correct way to perform an update using ADO.Net Entity Model in .net 4

    - by sf
    Hi, I just wanted to clarify if this is the appropriate way to perform an update using a designer generated ADO.NET Entity Model. I was wondering if there was a way to perform an update without creating the sqlMenu object. public class MenusRepository { public void UpdateMenu(Menu menu) { // _context is instantiated in constructor Menu sqlMenu = (from m in _context.Menus where m.MenuId == menu.MenuId select m).FirstOrDefault(); if (sqlMenu == null) throw new ArgumentException("Can't update a Menu which does not exist"); // associate values here sqlMenu.Name = menu.Name; _context.SaveChanges(); } }

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  • Wondering why DisplayName attribute is ignored in LabelFor on an overridden property

    - by Lasse Krantz
    Hi, today I got confused when doing a couple of <%=Html.LabelFor(m=>m.MyProperty)%> in ASP.NET MVC 2 and using the [DisplayName("Show this instead of MyProperty")] attribute from System.ComponentModel. As it turned out, when I put the attribute on an overridden property, LabelFor didn't seem to notice it. However, the [Required] attribute works fine on the overridden property, and the generated errormessage actually uses the DisplayNameAttribute. This is some trivial examplecode, the more realistic scenario is that I have a databasemodel separate from the viewmodel, but for convenience, I'd like to inherit from the databasemodel, add View-only properties and decorating the viewmodel with the attributes for the UI. public class POCOWithoutDataAnnotations { public virtual string PleaseOverrideMe { get; set; } } public class EditModel : POCOWithoutDataAnnotations { [Required] [DisplayName("This should be as label for please override me!")] public override string PleaseOverrideMe { get { return base.PleaseOverrideMe; } set { base.PleaseOverrideMe = value; } } [Required] [DisplayName("This property exists only in EditModel")] public string NonOverriddenProp { get; set; } } The strongly typed ViewPage<EditModel> contains: <div class="editor-label"> <%= Html.LabelFor(model => model.PleaseOverrideMe) %> </div> <div class="editor-field"> <%= Html.TextBoxFor(model => model.PleaseOverrideMe) %> <%= Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.PleaseOverrideMe) %> </div> <div class="editor-label"> <%= Html.LabelFor(model => model.NonOverriddenProp) %> </div> <div class="editor-field"> <%= Html.TextBoxFor(model => model.NonOverriddenProp) %> <%= Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.NonOverriddenProp) %> </div> The labels are then displayed as "PleaseOverrideMe" (not using the DisplayNameAttribute) and "This property exists only in EditModel" (using the DisplayNameAttribute) when viewing the page. If I post with empty values, triggering the validation with this ActionMethod: [HttpPost] public ActionResult Edit(EditModel model) { if (!ModelState.IsValid) return View(model); return View("Thanks"); } the <%= Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.PleaseOverrideMe) %> actually uses [DisplayName("This should be as label for please override me!")] attribute, and produces the default errortext "The This should be as label for please override me! field is required." Would some friendly soul shed some light on this?

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  • How do I remove jQuery validation from a form?

    - by Ben
    I'm using the jQuery validation plugin to validate a form, and I'd like to remove the validation and submit the form if a certain link is clicked. I am submitting form with javascript like jQuery('form#listing').submit(), so I must remove the validation rules/function with javascript. The problem is that I can't figure out how to do this. I've tried things like jQuery('form#listing').validate({}); and jQuery('form#listing').validate = null, but with no luck.

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  • Model Binding an IList of selected items only

    - by jeef3
    I have an action method setup: public ActionResult Delete(IList<Product> products) And a table of products in my view. I have got Model Binding working so that on submit I can populate the products list. But I would like to populate it with only the products that are selected via a checkbox. I think I could do it by changing the action method to this: public ActionResult Delete(IList<Product> products, IList<int> toDelete) And passing the list of check boxes to the toDelete but I would really like to avoid changing the method signature if possible. Is there a way to pass only the selected items? Or am I going to have to write a custom ModelBinder?

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  • Who makes software validation? What are the steps of its?

    - by uzay95
    Fill in the X,Y,Z please. Software validation has X,Y,Z steps. Client have to provide X,Y,Z to the developer before starting to write software. When software finished, validation completes with doing X,Y,Z (sign, approval, test pictures, logs etc.). If we buy a general software like invoice management tool or SAP module which can modify/change for every customer, who should make the software validation?

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  • ASP.NET MVC 2 client side validation not working for Html.ValidationMessage()?

    - by JuniorDeveloper
    I'm trying to get a very simple client side validation example to work in ASP.NET MVC 2. I'm using data annotations to set a required property "Surname". When I use the Html.ValidationMessageFor(x = x.Surname) the correct client side validation script is written to the page. But when I use Html.ValidationMessage("Surname") the client side validation is not rendered out until after the page has been posted. Client side validation only starts working after a form post! I can see that the script is updated in the page after a form post. There appears to be a bug in Html.ValidationMessage()?

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  • Why does the data binding in this validation example work?

    - by MartyIX
    I'm wondering how exactly the XAML sample (MSDN sample) works: <Style x:Key="textBoxInError" TargetType="{x:Type TextBox}"> <Style.Triggers> <Trigger Property="Validation.HasError" Value="true"> <Setter Property="ToolTip" Value="{Binding RelativeSource={x:Static RelativeSource.Self}, Path=(Validation.Errors)[0].ErrorContent}"/> </Trigger> </Style.Triggers> </Style> Questions: (Validation.Errors)[0].ErrorContent - Is this code somehow checked by WPF? Because Validation.Errors may be an empty collection and in ordinary C# code this code may throw an exception. If this data-binding returns null for valid input - the null value is then casted to empty string (in a text control for example)? The index 0 corresponds to the first error message. How can I return more error messages from Validate method? Thank you for responses!

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  • Scala and the Java Memory Model

    - by Ben Lings
    The Java Memory Model (since 1.5) treats final fields differently to non-final fields. In particular, provided the this reference doesn't escape during construction, writes to final fields in the constructor are guaranteed to be visible on other threads even if the object is made available to the other thread via a data race. (Writes to non-final fields aren't guaranteed to be visible, so if you improperly publish them, another thread could see them in a partially constructed state.) Is there any documentation on how/if the Scala compiler creates final (rather than non-final) backing fields for classes? I've looked through the language specification and searched the web but can't find any definitive answers. (In comparison the @scala.volatile annotation is documented to mark a field as volatile)

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  • Domain Model and Contracts

    - by devoured elysium
    I am modelling a DVD Rental Store: A Client gives its clientNumber to the System. The System checks whenever the given clientNumber is valid. The Client gives the name of the DVD he wants to rent. ... n. ...I will later have to form an association between a new instance of "RentDVD" class concept to the current Client c. My Domain Model is something like: I've made the Contract for the first and second operations as: Preconditions: none Postconditions: there exists a Client c such that c.clientNumber = clientNumber. Now, I don't know if I should form an association between this Client c and the DVDStore(that I intend to use as front-end). If I don't make the association, how will I later be able to "reference" this same Client? Should I be making an association between Client and a different concept? Thanks

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  • Client-side validation breaks in IE because of PropertyProxyValidator and ScriptManager cooperation.

    - by Eugene
    The specific of the project is in using Enterpise Library for Server side validation and jQuery for client-side validation. So I have the next simple form for example: <asp:Content ID="_mainContent" ContentPlaceHolderID="MainContent" runat="server"> <script src="../../../Scripts/jquery-1.3.2.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="../../../Scripts/jquery.validate.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $("#aspnetForm").validate({ rules: { "<%= _txtProjectName.UniqueID %>": { required: true } } }); }); </script> <asp:TextBox ID="_txtProjectName" runat="server" CssClass="textBoxWithValidator_long" /> <entlib:PropertyProxyValidator id="_validatorProjectName" runat="server" ControlToValidate="_txtProjectName" PropertyName="ProjectName" SourceTypeName="LabManagement.Project.Project" /> <asp:Button CssClass="cell_InlineElement" ID="_btnSave" runat="server" Text="Save" onclick="_btnSave_Click" Width="50px" /> <asp:ScriptManager ID="ScriptManager1" runat="server" EnablePageMethods="true"> </asp:ScriptManager> </asp:Content> The problem is in the next: client-side validation worked correctly before I needed to implement some AJAX.NET feature. So I have to add to the page ScriptManager (the last two lines in the code). But after that the next situation appeared: In InternetExplorer((7) - only in IE !!! - in Firefox everything works correctly) after clicking save button, if left the textbox ProjectName empty the client-side jquery validation appears but (!) the page submits to the server anyway. Some notes: If delete PropertyProxyValidator from the page - the client-side validation works correctly in IE but I need it for specific of the project. It seems that the problem is in the function WebForm_OnSubmit() that is inserted to the form after PropertyProxyValidator adding. ( ... <form name="aspnetForm" method="post" action="Project.aspx?TransType=NewProject" onsubmit="javascript:return WebForm_OnSubmit();" ...>) Could anyone help, please.

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  • Load a model in a Codeigniter library

    - by ci
    Hello, people! I have this piece of code: class MY_Language extends CI_Language { function MY_Language() { parent::CI_Language(); $CI =& get_instance(); $CI->load->model('language_model'); $languages = $this->language_model->get_languages(); print_r($languages); } } But I keep getting "Fatal error: Call to undefined function get_instance() in C:\xampp\htdocs\application\libraries\MY_Language.php on line 44". Any ideas? Thanks in advance!

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  • Codeigniter Model appending word_limiter to result object

    - by yahyaE
    I have a get_all function in my model class in Codeigniter 2.0+. For a given database field name, i need to use word_limiter() in text helper. In view page, i loop result set as object $row->field_name_to_be_limited. With below code, i am trying to do it. But i should include the change $q->$field_name = word_limiter($q->$field_name, 4); into the $q->result. Thanks for help. function get_all($table_name,$orderByField,$ascDesc,$field_name = '') { $this->load->helper('text'); $qOrder = $this->db->order_by($orderByField,$ascDesc); $q = $this->db->get($table_name,$qOrder); if( ! $field_name ==='') $q->$field_name = word_limiter($q->$field_name, 4); return $q->result(); }

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  • Easier way to populate form data and validation data in Code Igniter?

    - by John
    I'm new to code igniter. I'm following the form validation tutorial found at: http://www.codeignitor.com/user_guide/libraries/validation.html I find I am typing too much in the view to get the form to re-populate. For example, here's what one of my INPUT fields look like: <input type="text" name="email" value="<?=$this->validation->email ? $this->validation->email : $array_db_values['email'] ?>" /> Basically, when the form first loads, it should show a value from the database. If the user alters the value and it fails validation, then the form should post the erroneously submitted value. Does code igniter have a "cleaner" way of rendering this kind of output? Otherwise, I'm going to do something like this in my controller: $array_db_values = getdbresults(); if($_POST['submit']) foreach($_POST as $key=>$val) $array_db_values[$key] = $val; That way, if postback data exists, it will always override database values. Then input fields in my view can simply be: <input type="text" name="email" value="<?=$array_db_values['email'] ?>" /> Is there a better/native CI way to handle this scenario?

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  • Why the data binding in this validation example works in WPF?

    - by MartyIX
    I'm wondering how exactly the XAML sample (MSDN sample) works: <Style x:Key="textBoxInError" TargetType="{x:Type TextBox}"> <Style.Triggers> <Trigger Property="Validation.HasError" Value="true"> <Setter Property="ToolTip" Value="{Binding RelativeSource={x:Static RelativeSource.Self}, Path=(Validation.Errors)[0].ErrorContent}"/> </Trigger> </Style.Triggers> </Style> Questions: (Validation.Errors)[0].ErrorContent - Is this code somehow checked by WPF? Because Validation.Errors may be an empty collection and in ordinary C# code this code may throw an exception. If this data-binding returns null for valid input - the null value is then casted to empty string (in a text control for example)? The index 0 corresponds to the first error message. How can I return more error messages from Validate method? Thank you for responses!

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  • Is verification and validation part of testing process?

    - by user970696
    Based on many sources I do not believe the simple definition that aim of testing is to find as many bugs as possible - we test to ensure that it works or that it does not. E.g. followint are goals of testing form ISTQB: Determine that (software products) satisfy specified requirements ( I think its verificication) Demonstrate that (software products) are fit for purpose (I think that is validation) Detect defects I would agree that testing is verification, validation and defect detection. Is that correct?

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  • ASP.NET MVC2 - usage of LINQ-generated class (validation problem)

    - by ile
    There are few things not clear to me about ASP.NET MV2. In database I have table Contacts with several fields, and there is an additional field XmlFields of which type is xml. In that field are stored additional description fields. There are 4 classes: Contact class which corresponds to Contact table and is defined by default when creating LINQ classes ContactListView class which inherits Contact class and has some additional properties ContactXmlView class that contains fields from XmlFields field ContactDetailsView class which merges ContactListView and ContactXmlView into one class and this one is used to display data in view pages ContactListView class has re-defined some properties from Contact class (so that I can add [Required] filter used for validation) - but I get warning message: 'ObjectTest.Models.Contacts.ContactListView.FirstName' hides inherited member 'SA.Model.Contact.FirstName'. Use the new keyword if hiding was intended. ContactDetailsView class is also used in a form when creating new contact and adding it to database. I am not sure if this is correct way, and the warning message confuses me a bit. Any advise about this? Thanks, Ile EDIT According to Jakob's instructions I tried it from scratch: [MetadataType(typeof(Person_Validation))] public partial class Person { } public class Person_Validation { [Required] string FirstName { get; set; } [Required] string LastName { get; set; } [Required] int Age { get; set; } } In Controller I have this: [HttpPost] public ActionResult Create(Person person, FormCollection collection) { if (ModelState.IsValid) { try { personRepository.Add(person); personRepository.Save(); } catch { return View(person); } } return RedirectToAction("Index"); } View: <%@ Page Title="" Language="C#" MasterPageFile="~/Views/Shared/Site.Master" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage<Validate.Models.Person>" %> <asp:Content ID="Content1" ContentPlaceHolderID="TitleContent" runat="server"> Create </asp:Content> <asp:Content ID="Content2" ContentPlaceHolderID="MainContent" runat="server"> <h2>Create</h2> <% using (Html.BeginForm()) {%> <%= Html.ValidationSummary(true) %> <fieldset> <legend>Fields</legend> <div class="editor-label"> <%= Html.LabelFor(model => model.FirstName) %> </div> <div class="editor-field"> <%= Html.TextBoxFor(model => model.FirstName) %> <%= Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.FirstName) %> </div> <div class="editor-label"> <%= Html.LabelFor(model => model.LastName) %> </div> <div class="editor-field"> <%= Html.TextBoxFor(model => model.LastName) %> <%= Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.LastName) %> </div> <div class="editor-label"> <%= Html.LabelFor(model => model.Age) %> </div> <div class="editor-field"> <%= Html.TextBoxFor(model => model.Age) %> <%= Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.Age) %> </div> <p> <input type="submit" value="Create" /> </p> </fieldset> <% } %> <div> <%= Html.ActionLink("Back to List", "Index") %> </div> </asp:Content> When posting new person with no values, nothing happens (page is just reloaded). When posting with some values, person is added to db. I have no idea what am I doing wrong.

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  • Avoiding anemic domain model - a real example

    - by cbp
    I am trying to understand Anemic Domain Models and why they are supposedly an anti-pattern. Here is a real world example. I have an Employee class, which has a ton of properties - name, gender, username, etc public class Employee { public string Name { get; set; } public string Gender { get; set; } public string Username { get; set; } // Etc.. mostly getters and setters } Next we have a system that involves rotating incoming phone calls and website enquiries (known as 'leads') evenly amongst sales staff. This system is quite complex as it involves round-robining enquiries, checking for holidays, employee preferences etc. So this system is currently seperated out into a service: EmployeeLeadRotationService. public class EmployeeLeadRotationService : IEmployeeLeadRotationService { private IEmployeeRepository _employeeRepository; // ...plus lots of other injected repositories and services public void SelectEmployee(ILead lead) { // Etc. lots of complex logic } } Then on the backside of our website enquiry form we have code like this: public void SubmitForm() { var lead = CreateLeadFromFormInput(); var selectedEmployee = Kernel.Get<IEmployeeLeadRotationService>() .SelectEmployee(lead); Response.Write(employee.Name + " will handle your enquiry. Thanks."); } I don't really encounter many problems with this approach, but supposedly this is something that I should run screaming from because it is an Anemic Domain Model. But for me its not clear where the logic in the lead rotation service should go. Should it go in the lead? Should it go in the employee? What about all the injected repositories etc that the rotation service requires - how would they be injected into the employee, given that most of the time when dealing with an employee we don't need any of these repositories?

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  • Strange results about C++11 memory model (Relaxed ordering)

    - by Dancing_bunny
    I was testing the example in the memory model of the Anthony Williams's book "C++ Concurrency" #include<atomic> #include<thread> #include<cassert> std::atomic_bool x,y; std::atomic_int z; void write_x_then_y() { x.store(true, std::memory_order_relaxed); y.store(true, std::memory_order_relaxed); } void read_y_then_x() { while(!y.load(std::memory_order_relaxed)); if(x.load(std::memory_order_relaxed)) { ++z; } } int main() { x = false; y = false; z = 0; std::thread a(write_x_then_y); std::thread b(read_y_then_x); a.join(); b.join(); assert(z.load()!=0); } According to the explanation, relaxed operations on difference variables (here x and y) can be freely reordered. However, I repeated running the problem for more than several days. I never hit the situation that the assertion (assert(z.load()!=0);) fires. I just use the default optimization and compile the code using g++ -std=c++11 -lpthread dataRaceAtomic.cpp Does anyone actually try it and hit the assertion? Could anyone give me an explanation about my test results? BTW, I also tried the version without using the atomic type, I got the same result. Currently, both programs are running healthily. Thanks.

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  • cakephp - form for belongsTo Model

    - by user1511579
    I createt the following model to link 2 relational tables: class Ficha extends AppModel { //public $useTable = 'ficha_seg'; var $primaryKey = 'id_ficha'; var $name = 'Ficha'; var $belongsTo = array( 'Perigo' => array( 'className' => 'Perigo', 'foreignKey' => false, 'conditions' => 'Perigo.id_fichas = Ficha.id_ficha' ) ); } Now, i have a form that requires data from the class Ficha, and then is redirected to another ctp page where i will input the data for the table "Perigos". However, since i'm still a newbie in cakephp i'm having difficult building that second form to insert the data on the table "Perigos". Here goes the code i built at the moment related to the second form: FichasController.php (the method where is it supposed to save the data on the table "Perigos": public function preencher_ficha(){ if ($this->request->is('ficha')) { $this->Ficha->create(); if ($this->Ficha->Perigo->save($this->request->data)) { $last_id=$this->Ficha->getLastInsertID(); $this->Session->setFlash('Your post has been updated '.$last_id.'.'); //$this->redirect(array('action' => 'preencher_ficha')); } else { $this->Session->setFlash('Unable to qualquer coisa your post.'); } } } The preencher_ficha.ctp file with the form: echo $this->Form->create('Ficha->Perigo', array('action' => 'index')); echo $this->Form->input('class_subst', array('label' => 'Classificação:')); echo $this->Form->input('simbolos_perigo', array('label' => 'Símbolos:')); echo $this->Form->input('frases_r', array('label' => 'Frases:')); echo $this->Form->end('Finalizar Ficha'); Here i guess the create part is wrong, but i think i have errors too in the controller part.

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  • Maintaining ViewModel fields with default model binding and failed validation

    - by TonE
    I have an ASP.Net MVC Controller with a 'MapColumns' action along with a corresponding ViewModel and View. I'm using the defaultModelBinder to bind a number of drop down lists to a Dictionary in the ViewModel. The view model also contains an IList field for both source and destination columns which are used to render the view. My question is what to do when validation fails on the Post call to the MapColumns action? Currently the MapColumns view is returned with the ViewModel resulting from the default binding. This contains the Dictionary values but not the two lists used to render the page. What is the best way to re-provide these to the view? I can set them explicitly after failed validation, but if obtaining these values (via GetSourceColumns() and GetDestinationColumns() in the example) carries any overhead this doesn't seem ideal. What I am looking for is a way to retain these lists when they are not bound to the model from the view. Here is some code to illustrate: public class TestViewModel { public Dictionary<string, string> ColumnMappings { get; set; } public List<string> SourceColumns; public List<string> DestinationColumns; } public class TestController : Controller { [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Get)] public ActionResult MapColumns() { var model = new TestViewModel; model.SourceColumns = GetSourceColumns(); model.DestinationColumns = GetDestinationColumns(); return View(model); } [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult MapColumns(TestViewModel model) { if( Validate(model) ) { // Do something with model.ColumnMappings RedirectToAction("Index"); } else { // Here model.SourceColumns and model.DestinationColumns are empty return View(model); } } } The relevant section of MapColumns.aspx: <% int columnCount = 0; foreach(string column in Model.targetColumns) {%> <tr> <td> <input type="hidden" name="ColumnMappings[<%= columnCount %>].Value" value="<%=column %>" /> <%= Html.DropDownList("ColumnMappings[" + columnCount + "].Key", Model.DestinationColumns.AsSelectItemList())%> </td> </tr> <% columnCount++; }%>

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  • How do I call the methods in a model via controller? Zend Framework

    - by Joel
    Hi guys, I've been searching for tutorials to better understand this, but I'm having no luck. Please forgive the lengthy explination, but I want make sure I explain myself well. First, I'm quite new to the MVC structure, though I have been doing tutorials and learning as best I can. I have been moving over a live site into the Zend Framework model. So far, I have all the views within views/scripts/index/example.phtml. So therefore I'm using one IndexController and I have the code in each Action method for each page: IE public function exampleAction() Because I didn't know how to interact with a model, I put all the methods at the bottom of the controller (a fat controller). So basically, I had a working site by using a View and Controller and no model. ... Now I'm trying to learn how to incorporate the Model. So I created a View at: view/scripts/calendar/index.phtml I created a new Controller at: controller/CalendarControllers.php and a new model at: model/Calendar.php The problem is I think I'm not correctly communication with the model (I'm still new to OOP). Can you look over my controller and model and tell me if you see a problem. I'm needing to return an array from runCalendarScript(), but I'm not sure if I can return an array into the object like I'm trying to? I don't really understand how to "run" the runCalendarScript() from the controller? Thanks for any help! I'm stripping out most of the guts of the methods for the sake of brevity: controller: <?php class CalendarController extends Zend_Controller_Action { public function indexAction() { $finishedFeedArray = new Application_Model_Calendar(); $this->view->googleArray = $finishedFeedArray; } } model: <?php class Application_Model_Calendar { public function _runCalendarScript(){ $gcal = $this->_validateCalendarConnection(); $uncleanedFeedArray = $this->_getCalendarFeed($gcal); $finishedFeedArray = $this->_cleanFeed($uncleanedFeedArray); return $finishedFeedArray; } //Validate Google Calendar connection public function _validateCalendarConnection() { ... return $gcal; } //extracts googles calendar object into the $feed object public function _getCalendarFeed($gcal) { ... return $feed; } //cleans the feed to just text, etc protected function _cleanFeed($uncleanedFeedArray) { $contentText = $this->_cleanupText($event); $eventData = $this->_filterEventDetails($contentText); return $cleanedArray; } //Cleans up all formatting of text from Calendar feed public function _cleanupText($event) { ... return $contentText; } //filterEventDetails protected function _filterEventDetails($contentText) { ... return $data; } }

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  • Build model with nested model in rspec integration test

    - by user1116573
    I understand that I can do something like in rspec: let(:project) { Project.new } but in my app a project accepts_nested_attributes_for tasks and when I generate the Project form I build a task along with it using: @project = Project.new @project.tasks.build I need something like: let(:project) { Project.new.tasks.build } but that doesn't seem to work. How can I do this as a let in my rspec test?

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