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  • Redirect local, not internal, requests using SuSEfirewall2 or an iptables rule

    - by James
    I have a server that is running a web application deployed on Tomcat and is sitting in a test network. We're running SuSE 11 sp1 and have some redirection rules for incoming requests. For example we don't bind port 80 in Tomcat's server.xml file, instead we listen on port 9600 and have a configuration line in SuSEfirewall2 to redirect port 80 to 9640. This is because Tomcat doesn't run as root and can't open up port 80. My web application needs to be able to make requests to port 80 since that is the port it will be using when deployed. What rule can I add so that local requests get redirected by iptables? I tried looking at this question: How do I redirect one port to another on a local computer using iptables? but suggestions there didn't seem to help me. I tried running tcpdump on eth0 and then connecting to my local IP address (not 127.0.0.1, but the actual address) but I didn't see any activity. I did see activity if I connected from an external machine. Then I ran tcmpdump on lo, again tried to connect and this time I saw activity. So this leads me to believe that any requests made to my own IP address locally aren't getting handled by iptables. Just for reference he's what my NAT table looks like now: Chain PREROUTING (policy ACCEPT) target prot opt source destination REDIRECT tcp -- anywhere anywhere tcp dpt:http redir ports 9640 REDIRECT tcp -- anywhere anywhere tcp dpt:xfer redir ports 9640 REDIRECT tcp -- anywhere anywhere tcp dpt:https redir ports 8443 Chain POSTROUTING (policy ACCEPT) target prot opt source destination Chain OUTPUT (policy ACCEPT) target prot opt source destination

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  • IPTables Rule for Google Apps SMTP

    - by XpresServers
    I am trying to add iptables rule to allow traffic on ports 465 & 587 to google apps smtp servers. But I got not luck. My WHMCS installation works fine with google apps when I turn off iptables but iptables turn on itself again and email stop working. Please add rules to allow traffic from port 465 and 587. Following are my IPTables rules grabbed from /etc/sysconfig/iptables # Generated by iptables-save v1.3.5 on Fri Oct 5 01:33:52 2012 *filter :INPUT ACCEPT [2191:434537] :FORWARD ACCEPT [0:0] :OUTPUT ACCEPT [2390:987151] :acctboth - [0:0] -A INPUT -j acctboth -A OUTPUT -p tcp -m multiport --dports 25,465,587 -m owner --gid-owner mailman -j ACCEPT -A OUTPUT -p tcp -m multiport --dports 25,465,587 -m owner --gid-owner mail -j ACCEPT -A OUTPUT -d 127.0.0.1 -p tcp -m multiport --dports 25,465,587 -m owner --uid-owner cpanel -j ACCEPT -A OUTPUT -p tcp -m multiport --dports 25,465,587 -m owner --uid-owner root -j ACCEPT -A OUTPUT -j acctboth -A OUTPUT -o eth0 -p tcp -m tcp --sport 587 -m state --state ESTABLISHED -j ACCEPT -A OUTPUT -o eth0 -p tcp -m tcp --sport 465 -m state --state ESTABLISHED -j ACCEPT <<IN THIS SPACE RULES ARE RELATED TO SPECIFIC IPS ONLY>> -A acctboth -i ! lo COMMIT # Completed on Fri Oct 5 01:33:52 2012 # Generated by iptables-save v1.3.5 on Fri Oct 5 01:33:52 2012 *nat :PREROUTING ACCEPT [196:12398] :POSTROUTING ACCEPT [191:15070] :OUTPUT ACCEPT [190:15010] -A OUTPUT -p tcp -m multiport --dports 25,465,587 -m owner --gid-owner mailman -j RETURN -A OUTPUT -p tcp -m multiport --dports 25,465,587 -m owner --gid-owner mail -j RETURN -A OUTPUT -d 127.0.0.1 -p tcp -m multiport --dports 25,465,587 -m owner --uid-owner cpanel -j RETURN -A OUTPUT -p tcp -m multiport --dports 25,465,587 -m owner --uid-owner root -j RETURN -A OUTPUT -p tcp -m multiport --dports 25,465,587 -j REDIRECT COMMIT # Completed on Fri Oct 5 01:33:52 2012 Thanks Hassan

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  • Pluggable Rules for Entity Framework Code First

    - by Ricardo Peres
    Suppose you want a system that lets you plug custom validation rules on your Entity Framework context. The rules would control whether an entity can be saved, updated or deleted, and would be implemented in plain .NET. Yes, I know I already talked about plugable validation in Entity Framework Code First, but this is a different approach. An example API is in order, first, a ruleset, which will hold the collection of rules: 1: public interface IRuleset : IDisposable 2: { 3: void AddRule<T>(IRule<T> rule); 4: IEnumerable<IRule<T>> GetRules<T>(); 5: } Next, a rule: 1: public interface IRule<T> 2: { 3: Boolean CanSave(T entity, DbContext ctx); 4: Boolean CanUpdate(T entity, DbContext ctx); 5: Boolean CanDelete(T entity, DbContext ctx); 6: String Name 7: { 8: get; 9: } 10: } Let’s analyze what we have, starting with the ruleset: Only has methods for adding a rule, specific to an entity type, and to list all rules of this entity type; By implementing IDisposable, we allow it to be cancelled, by disposing of it when we no longer want its rules to be applied. A rule, on the other hand: Has discrete methods for checking if a given entity can be saved, updated or deleted, which receive as parameters the entity itself and a pointer to the DbContext to which the ruleset was applied; Has a name property for helping us identifying what failed. A ruleset really doesn’t need a public implementation, all we need is its interface. The private (internal) implementation might look like this: 1: sealed class Ruleset : IRuleset 2: { 3: private readonly IDictionary<Type, HashSet<Object>> rules = new Dictionary<Type, HashSet<Object>>(); 4: private ObjectContext octx = null; 5:  6: internal Ruleset(ObjectContext octx) 7: { 8: this.octx = octx; 9: } 10:  11: public void AddRule<T>(IRule<T> rule) 12: { 13: if (this.rules.ContainsKey(typeof(T)) == false) 14: { 15: this.rules[typeof(T)] = new HashSet<Object>(); 16: } 17:  18: this.rules[typeof(T)].Add(rule); 19: } 20:  21: public IEnumerable<IRule<T>> GetRules<T>() 22: { 23: if (this.rules.ContainsKey(typeof(T)) == true) 24: { 25: foreach (IRule<T> rule in this.rules[typeof(T)]) 26: { 27: yield return (rule); 28: } 29: } 30: } 31:  32: public void Dispose() 33: { 34: this.octx.SavingChanges -= RulesExtensions.OnSaving; 35: RulesExtensions.rulesets.Remove(this.octx); 36: this.octx = null; 37:  38: this.rules.Clear(); 39: } 40: } Basically, this implementation: Stores the ObjectContext of the DbContext to which it was created for, this is so that later we can remove the association; Has a collection - a set, actually, which does not allow duplication - of rules indexed by the real Type of an entity (because of proxying, an entity may be of a type that inherits from the class that we declared); Has generic methods for adding and enumerating rules of a given type; Has a Dispose method for cancelling the enforcement of the rules. A (really dumb) rule applied to Product might look like this: 1: class ProductRule : IRule<Product> 2: { 3: #region IRule<Product> Members 4:  5: public String Name 6: { 7: get 8: { 9: return ("Rule 1"); 10: } 11: } 12:  13: public Boolean CanSave(Product entity, DbContext ctx) 14: { 15: return (entity.Price > 10000); 16: } 17:  18: public Boolean CanUpdate(Product entity, DbContext ctx) 19: { 20: return (true); 21: } 22:  23: public Boolean CanDelete(Product entity, DbContext ctx) 24: { 25: return (true); 26: } 27:  28: #endregion 29: } The DbContext is there because we may need to check something else in the database before deciding whether to allow an operation or not. And here’s how to apply this mechanism to any DbContext, without requiring the usage of a subclass, by means of an extension method: 1: public static class RulesExtensions 2: { 3: private static readonly MethodInfo getRulesMethod = typeof(IRuleset).GetMethod("GetRules"); 4: internal static readonly IDictionary<ObjectContext, Tuple<IRuleset, DbContext>> rulesets = new Dictionary<ObjectContext, Tuple<IRuleset, DbContext>>(); 5:  6: private static Type GetRealType(Object entity) 7: { 8: return (entity.GetType().Assembly.IsDynamic == true ? entity.GetType().BaseType : entity.GetType()); 9: } 10:  11: internal static void OnSaving(Object sender, EventArgs e) 12: { 13: ObjectContext octx = sender as ObjectContext; 14: IRuleset ruleset = rulesets[octx].Item1; 15: DbContext ctx = rulesets[octx].Item2; 16:  17: foreach (ObjectStateEntry entry in octx.ObjectStateManager.GetObjectStateEntries(EntityState.Added)) 18: { 19: Object entity = entry.Entity; 20: Type realType = GetRealType(entity); 21:  22: foreach (dynamic rule in (getRulesMethod.MakeGenericMethod(realType).Invoke(ruleset, null) as IEnumerable)) 23: { 24: if (rule.CanSave(entity, ctx) == false) 25: { 26: throw (new Exception(String.Format("Cannot save entity {0} due to rule {1}", entity, rule.Name))); 27: } 28: } 29: } 30:  31: foreach (ObjectStateEntry entry in octx.ObjectStateManager.GetObjectStateEntries(EntityState.Deleted)) 32: { 33: Object entity = entry.Entity; 34: Type realType = GetRealType(entity); 35:  36: foreach (dynamic rule in (getRulesMethod.MakeGenericMethod(realType).Invoke(ruleset, null) as IEnumerable)) 37: { 38: if (rule.CanDelete(entity, ctx) == false) 39: { 40: throw (new Exception(String.Format("Cannot delete entity {0} due to rule {1}", entity, rule.Name))); 41: } 42: } 43: } 44:  45: foreach (ObjectStateEntry entry in octx.ObjectStateManager.GetObjectStateEntries(EntityState.Modified)) 46: { 47: Object entity = entry.Entity; 48: Type realType = GetRealType(entity); 49:  50: foreach (dynamic rule in (getRulesMethod.MakeGenericMethod(realType).Invoke(ruleset, null) as IEnumerable)) 51: { 52: if (rule.CanUpdate(entity, ctx) == false) 53: { 54: throw (new Exception(String.Format("Cannot update entity {0} due to rule {1}", entity, rule.Name))); 55: } 56: } 57: } 58: } 59:  60: public static IRuleset CreateRuleset(this DbContext context) 61: { 62: Tuple<IRuleset, DbContext> ruleset = null; 63: ObjectContext octx = (context as IObjectContextAdapter).ObjectContext; 64:  65: if (rulesets.TryGetValue(octx, out ruleset) == false) 66: { 67: ruleset = rulesets[octx] = new Tuple<IRuleset, DbContext>(new Ruleset(octx), context); 68: 69: octx.SavingChanges += OnSaving; 70: } 71:  72: return (ruleset.Item1); 73: } 74: } It relies on the SavingChanges event of the ObjectContext to intercept the saving operations before they are actually issued. Yes, it uses a bit of dynamic magic! Very handy, by the way! So, let’s put it all together: 1: using (MyContext ctx = new MyContext()) 2: { 3: IRuleset rules = ctx.CreateRuleset(); 4: rules.AddRule(new ProductRule()); 5:  6: ctx.Products.Add(new Product() { Name = "xyz", Price = 50000 }); 7:  8: ctx.SaveChanges(); //an exception is fired here 9:  10: //when we no longer need to apply the rules 11: rules.Dispose(); 12: } Feel free to use it and extend it any way you like, and do give me your feedback! As a final note, this can be easily changed to support plain old Entity Framework (not Code First, that is), if that is what you are using.

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  • Configure mod_wsgi WSGIScriptAlias with mod_rewrite

    - by Lazik
    I want to redirect ex.com to www.ex.com but I still want www.ex.com/ to point to my app.wsgi without it showing up in the url. When I use the conf below and I go to ex.com, I get a 404 error saying can't find www.ex.com/app.wsgi/ If I change the WSGIScriptAlias / /var/www/vhosts/ex/app.wsgi to WSGIScriptAlias /app.wsgi /var/www/vhosts/ex/app.wsgi Then all my url look like www.ex.com/app.wsgi/blabla/... Is it possible to use some kind of rule to redirect ex.com to www.ex.com and still keeping / as the app.wsgi root? my conf file <VirtualHost *:80> ServerName www.ex.com ServerAlias ex.com *.ex.com RewriteEngine On RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} !^www\. RewriteRule ^(.*)$ http://www.%{HTTP_HOST}/$1 [R=301,L] WSGIDaemonProcess ex user=www-data group=www-data processes=1 threads=5 WSGIScriptAlias / /var/www/vhosts/ex/app.wsgi <Directory /var/www/vhosts/ex> WSGIProcessGroup ex WSGIApplicationGroup %{GLOBAL} Order deny,allow Allow from all </Directory> </VirtualHost>

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  • .htaccess RewriteRule Problem

    - by Kunal Gautam
    Before asking question let me tell you some assumptions here there are 5 files on my webserver index.php config.php read.php write.php .htaccess I've wrote following URL rewriting rule in .htaccess RewriteEngine on RewriteRule ^(\w+)$ read.php?id=$1 Now when I type domain.com/xyz it fetch data from read.php?id=xyz thats nice :) But when I type domain.com/index it fetch data from index.php or when i type domain.com/write or domain.com/config or domain.com/read it fetch data from write.php , config.php and read.php respectively I want data to be fectched from read.php?id=index or read.php?id=config or read.php?id=read or read.php?id=write Any one can help me regarding this ? Sorry for my poor english

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  • Can I make Apache drop a connection when matching a URL?

    - by PP
    Using mod_rewrite I can construct a rule to respond with a clean error code (e.g. 404 not found, 410 gone, or 403 unauthorised) when a page is requested that I don't want to serve. But frequently I get completely erroneous requests from hackers scanning my website for vulnerabilities or possibly cross-site scripting attempts. For these customers I do not want to return a clean error - I'd rather do something else like immediately drop the connection with no response or, alternatively, hold the connection open for a lengthy period of time to frustrate the automated process. Any ideas how to accomplish this with Apache? I've read that nginx has the ability to immediately terminate a connection when a particular pattern is matched.

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  • mod_rewrite rules to run fcgi for different subdomains

    - by Anthony Hiscox
    On my shared hosting server (Hostmonster) I have django (actually pinax) setup so that a .htaccess mod_rewrite rule rewrites the request to a pinax.fcgi file: RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteRule ^(.*)$ pinax.fcgi/$1 [QSA,L] What I would like to do is have a different pinax.fcgi file get called depending on the domain used (or subdomain), something like this: RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^subdomain\.domain\.com$ [NC] RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteRule ^(.*)$ pinax2.fcgi/$1 [QSA,L] RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^domain\.com$ [NC] RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteRule ^(.*)$ pinax.fcgi/$1 [QSA,L] This is stored in a .htaccess file in my ROOT public_html folder (not in the public_html/subdomain/ folder), but unfortunately just results in internal redirect errors. How can I write these rules so that they use a different fcgi file for different domains?

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  • Apache 410 Gone instructions not working with mod_alias nor mod_rewrite

    - by Peter Boughton
    Apache 2.2 seems to be ignoring instructions to return a 410 status. This happens for both mod_alias's Redirect (using 410 or gone) and mod_rewrite's RewriteRule (using [G]), being used inside a .htaccess file. This works: Redirect 302 /somewhere /gone But this doesn't: Redirect 410 /somewhere That line is ignored (as if it had been commented) and the request falls through to other rules (which direct it to an unrelated generic error handling script). Similarly, trying to use a RewriteRule with a [G] flag doesn't work, but the same rule rewriting to a script that generates a 410 does - so the rules aren't the problem and it seems instead to be something about 410/gone that isn't behaving. I can workaround it by having a script sending the 410, but that's annoying and I don't get why it's not working. Any ideas?

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  • How to make RewriteCond+RewriteRule change domain2/folder1 to domain1/folder1

    - by gman
    There's actually 2 questions. One is, how do I make RewriteCond+RewriteRule change domain2/folder1 to domain1/folder1 Actually what I want is any domain that tries to access folder1 that is not domain1 gets switched to domain1. So for example domain2.com/domain1/foo - domain1.com/domain1/foo as well as domain3.com/domain1/foo - domain1.com/domain1/foo This is what I tried RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} !^domain1\.com$ [NC] RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI} ^/folder1/ RewriteRule ^/folder1/(.*)$ http://domain1.com/folder1/$1 [L,R=permanent] But that doesn't work. Next I tried some a simpler rule to see if I could narrow down the issue. RewriteCond ${HTTP_HOST} domain2\.com [NC] RewriteRule ^(.*)$ http://google.com/ [L] I though that would make ANY request to domain2.com go to google.com so I tried http://domain2.com/foo but I get domain2.com/foo not google.com If I go to http://domain2.com I get google. Why don't I get there if I go to http://domain2.com/foo? What am I not understanding about mod_rewrite?

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  • mod_rewrite issue | Request exceeded the limit of 10 internal redirects

    - by Chris Anarko Meow
    ok what Im doing normally works but since my rule "includes" itself is giving me issues and can't find a solution after hours working on different options. I have a .htaccess with: RewriteEngine On RewriteBase / RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI} !^/3.15.0/(.*) RewriteRule ^(.*)$ /3.15.0/$1 [L] this is for my software versions, I have a program that can request sometimes versions that are updated and in the server may be behind a couple version so I want to be able to say that whatever is comming in forward to the latest version that in this example is 3.15.0 /var/www/nameblabla/3.15.0 my .htaccess is on /var/www/nameblabla/.htaccess so the first Condition is to ignore request that already has the right path and version.. the second should be to grab all request and forward to 3.15.0... and of course not loose the path to the files I want from inside that should be the same. so far I can only get it to redirect to such directory but will loose the path and others I get the "Request exceeded the limit of 10 internal redirects" I guess this is because Im including the 3.15.0 path Any help or another way to do this with out mod_rewrite?

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  • Redirecting traffic to a https site

    - by Saif
    In our mail server there are multiple virtual email domain hosted. User can use webmail.example.com (this is the first apache virtualhost) to check mail or they can use mail.THEIR-DOMAIN.com. If the put mail.THEIR-DOMAIN.com apache shows the webmail.example.com as it is the first virtualhost and mail.THEIR-DOMAIN.com doesn't exist. Recently we imposed https for webmail.example.com and added this mod_rewrite rule: RewriteEngine On RewriteCond %{HTTPS} off RewriteRule (.*) https://%{HTTP_HOST}%{REQUEST_URI} But now users not getting the default webmail page as they were getting before. How can we redirect all request coming to the URL "mail.ANY-DOMAIN.com" to "https://webmail.example.com"? I've tried the following but it didn't work: RewriteEngine On RewriteCond %{HTTPS} off RewriteRule (mail.*) https://webmail.example.com Thanks for your help in advance.

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  • Redirect non-www ssl traffic to www ssl (apache)

    - by The NinjaSysadmin
    Hello, I'm attempting to get a redirect which is failing, and for some reason I can't think today. I have a vHost file within HTTPD that listens on standard port 80 and port 443. I'm attempting to redirect https://domain.com/(.*) to https://www.domain.com/$1 so that the URL remains intact. My config is as follows: ServerName www.domain.com ServerAlias tempdomain.testdomain.co.uk ServerAlias domain.com My rerwrite rule I'm using is. RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^domain.com$ RewriteRule ^(.*)$ https://www.domain.com$1 [R=301,L] I've also tried removing the . and $ but nothing.. When I visit the url https://domain.com/secure.page?action=comp it doesn't redirect to https://www.domain.com/secure.page?action=comp I do also have other SSL pages, the above was just an example.. Can anyone point out my stupidity.

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  • URL Rewrite Multiple domains under one site. Part II

    I believe I have it Ive been meaning to put together the ultimate outgoing rule for hosting multiple domains under one site.  I finally sat down this week and setup a few test cases, and created one rule to rule them all.  In Part I of this two part series, I covered the incoming rule necessary to host a site in a subfolder of a website, while making it appear as if its in the root of the site.  Part II wont work without applying Part I first, so if you havent read it, I encourage...Did you know that DotNetSlackers also publishes .net articles written by top known .net Authors? We already have over 80 articles in several categories including Silverlight. Take a look: here.

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  • URL Rewrite Multiple domains under one site. Part II

    I believe I have it Ive been meaning to put together the ultimate outgoing rule for hosting multiple domains under one site.  I finally sat down this week and setup a few test cases, and created one rule to rule them all.  In Part I of this two part series, I covered the incoming rule necessary to host a site in a subfolder of a website, while making it appear as if its in the root of the site.  Part II wont work without applying Part I first, so if you havent read it, I encourage...Did you know that DotNetSlackers also publishes .net articles written by top known .net Authors? We already have over 80 articles in several categories including Silverlight. Take a look: here.

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  • RewriteMap syntax Regex

    - by ienabellamy
    in my .htaccess i've tons of directives, with same syntax: RewriteRule ^(.*)/PRODUCT_1.aspx http://www.site.com/product.php?id_product=2891 RewriteRule ^(.*)/PRODUCT_2.aspx http://www.site.com/product.php?id_product=2896 and everything works. Now, i created a RewriteMap in my because i need to increase velocity (20.000 redirect 301 in htaccess no good), so: RewriteEngine On RewriteMap redirects dbm=db:/var/www/html/presta152/prestashop/redirects.db RewriteCond ${redirects:$1} !="" RewriteRule ^(.*)$ ${redirects:$1} [redirect=permanent,last] and my redirects.db is created by redirects.txt, that contains: /PRODUCT_1.aspx http://www.site.com/product.php?id_product=2891 /PRODUCT_2.aspx http://www.site.com/product.php?id_product=2896 this works if i try to call for example: www.site.com/PRODUCT_1.aspx i'm redirected... but if i try to call www.site.com/everythingpossibileinside/PRODUCT_1.aspx the redirect doesn't work. So, in my .htaccess this rule: RewriteRule ^(.*)/PRODUCT_1.aspx http://www.site.com/product.php?id_product=2891 works, but in my RewriteMap no. I think i must change this directive: RewriteRule ^(.*)$ ${redirects:$1} [redirect=permanent,last] i tried, but unsuccessful. Thanks to all.

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  • Apache ReWriteEngine throwing 500 Internal Server Error for too many internal redirects... why?!?!?!

    - by Stephen G
    I'm trying to implement a new ReWrite rule on my local dev machine. I have 13 rules set up already, and all work fine (even as of this writing). However, for some reason the newest one is throwing me 500 Internal Server Errors. The ReWrite rule is: RewriteRule stuff/public_html/vault/mystuff/view/(.*) /stuff/public_html/vault/mystuff/view/index.php?stuff=$1 RewriteRule stuff/public_html/vault/mystuff/view/(.*)/ /stuff/public_html/vault/mystuff/view/index.php?stuff=$1 Checked my apache logs and got this: [Thu Jan 13 22:07:43 2011] [error] [client ::1] mod_rewrite: maximum number of internal redirects reached. Assuming configuration error. Use 'RewriteOptions MaxRedirects' to increase the limit if neccessary., referer: http://localhost:8888/stuff/public_html/vault/mystuff/all/index.php?curr=7 On the script I am trying to redirect to view/index.php?stuff=$1, there is nothing that even remotely resembles a redirect of any kind. I do have a very, very basic session verifier being called at the top of the landing script, which is as follows: //Start session session_start(); //Check whether the session variable SESS_MEMBER_ID is present or not if(!isset($_SESSION['SESS_MEMBER_ID']) || (trim($_SESSION['SESS_MEMBER_ID']) == '')) { header("location: ".$root_http.""); exit(); } However, when I access the page directly, it acts as it should, and there is no redirect. All of my other ReWrite rules and their corresponding landing pages are set up the exact same way. This is blowing my mind. Any help, PLEASE!?

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  • Postgres update rule returning number of rows affected

    - by Lithium
    I have a view table which is a union of two seperate tables (say Table _A and Table _B). I need to be able to update a row in the view table, and it seems the way to do this was through a 'view rule'. All entries in the view table have seperate id's, so an id that exists in table _A won't exist in table _B. I created the following rule: CREATE OR REPLACE RULE view_update AS ON UPDATE TO viewtable DO INSTEAD ( UPDATE _A SET foo = false WHERE old.id = _A.id; UPDATE _B SET foo = false WHERE old.id = _B.id; ); If I do an update on table _B it returns the correct number of rows affected (1). However if I update table _A it returns (0) rows affected even though the data was changed. If I swap out the order of the updates then the same thing happens, but in reverse. How can I solve this problem so that it returns the correct number of rows affected. Thanks.

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  • Rackspace Cloud rewrite jpg causes Session reset

    - by willoller
    This may be the .Net version of this question. I have an image script with the following: ... Response.WriteFile(filename); Response.End(); I am rewriting .jpg files using the following rewrite rule in web.config: <rule name="Image Redirect" stopProcessing="true"> <match url="^product-images/(.*).jpg" /> <conditions> <add input="{REQUEST_URI}" pattern="\.(jp?g|JP?G)$" /> </conditions> <action type="Redirect" redirectType="SeeOther" url="/product-images/ProductImage.aspx?path=product-images/{tolower:{R:1}}.jpg" /> </rule> It basically just rewrites the image path into a query parameter. The problem is that (intermittently of course) Mosso returns a new Asp Session cookie which breaks the whole world. Directly accessing a static .jpg file does not cause this problem. Directly accessing the image script does not cause it either. Only rewriting a .jpg file to the .aspx script causes the Session loss. Things I have tried (From the Rackspace doc How can I bypass the cache?) I added Private cacheability to the image script itself: Response.Cache.SetCacheability(HttpCacheability.Private); I tried adding these cache-disabling nodes to web.config: <staticContent> <clientCache cacheControlMode="DisableCache" /> </staticContent> and <httpProtocol> <customHeaders> <add name="Cache-Control private" value="Cache-Control private" </customHeaders> </httpProtocol> The Solution I need The browser cache cannot be disabled. This means potential solutions involving Cache.SetNoStore() or HttpCacheability.NoCache will not work.

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  • GNU Makefile: multiple outputs from single rule + preventing intermediate files from being deleted

    - by makesaurus
    This is sort of a continuation of question from link text. The problem is that there is a rule generating multiple outputs from a single input, and the command is time-consuming so we would prefer to avoid recomputation. Now there is an additional twist, that we want to keep files from being deleted as intermediate files, and rules involve wildcards to allow for parameters. The solution suggested was that we set up the following rule: file-a.out: program file.in ./program file.in file-a.out file-b.out file-c.out file-b.out: file-a.out @ file-c.out: file-b.out @ Then, calling make file-c.out creates both and we avoid issues with running make in parallel with -j switch. All fine so far. The problem is the following. Because the above solution sets up a chain in the DAG, make considers it differently; the files file-a.out and file-b.out are treated as intermediate files, and they by default get deleted as unnecessary as soon as file-c.out is ready. A way of avoiding that was mentioned somewhere here, and consists of adding file-a.out and file-b.out as dependencies of a target .SECONDARY, which keeps them from being deleted. Unfortunately, this does not solve my case because my rules use wildcard patters; specifically, my rules look more like this: file-a-%.out: program file.in ./program $* file.in file-a-$*.out file-b-$*.out file-c-$*.out file-b-%.out: file-a-%.out @ file-c-%.out: file-b-%.out @ so that one can pass a parameter that gets included in the file name, for example by running make file-c-12.out The solution that make documentation suggests is to add these as implicit rules to the list of dependencies of .PRECIOUS, thus keeping these files from being deleted. The solution with .PRECIOUS works, but it also prevents these files from being deleted when a rule fails and files are incomplete. Is there any other way to make this work?

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  • SQL Server 2008 R2 upgrade fails on upgrade rule check

    - by Tim
    I'm trying to upgrade an evaluation instance of SQL Server 2008 to a fully licensed instance of SQL Server 2008 R2. I made it most of the way through the installer, but I'm getting stopped at the Upgrade Rules page - the SQL Server Analysis Services Upgrade Service Functional Check is failing. The specific error I get: Rule "SQL Server Analysis Services Upgrade Service Functional Check" failed. The current instance of the SQL Server Analysis Services service cannot be upgraded because the Analysis Services service is disabled or not online. Please start the service and then run the upgrade rules check again. Simple enough - just need to start the service. Here's where it gets troublesome. When I open Services and go to start the SQL Server Analysis Services (MSSQLSERVER) service, it provides me the following message: The SQL Server Analysis Services (MSSQLSERVER) service on Local Computer started and then stopped. Some services stop automatically if they are not in use by other services or programs. Trying from the command line as Administrator yields: PS C:\Windows\System32 net start MSSQLServerOLAPService The SQL Server Analysis Services (MSSQLSERVER) service is starting... The SQL Server Analysis Services (MSSQLSERVER) service could not be started. The service did not report an error. More help is available by typing NET HELPMSG 3534. I've tried changing the logon setting of this service to Administrator, a user with admin privileges, and both the Local System and Network Service accounts - nothing works. In addition, when I look at the service through the SQL Server Configuration Manager (also run as Administrator), attempting to change the logon setting for the service results in the message: The server threw an exception. [0x80010105] I have no need for analysis services themselves - all I need is for this one service to be running long enough to do the R2 upgrade, then it can shut down again. Any thoughts on how to get the Analysis Services service running? Update: Checking the event log, I found an error logged to the Application log from the MSSQLServerOLAPService. It has event ID 0, task category (289), and says: The service cannot be started: XML parsing failed at line 1, column 4: Unrecognized input signature.

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  • File does not exist: D:/wamp/www/script/products, referer: http://localhost/script/products/category

    - by Imran Naqvi
    Hi i am getting the following error File does not exist: D:/wamp/www/script/products, referer: http://localhost/script/products/category/product-123.html whenever in apache error log whenever following url http://localhost/script/products/category/product-123.html is parsed through this RewriteRule ^products/([~A-Za-z0-9-"]+)/([~A-Za-z0-9-".]+).html$ index.php?page_type=products&prod=$2 [L] .htaccess rule. Please can someone help me ???? The script and rule is working fine but i am getting that error in apache error log

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  • Clean URLs mod_rewrite & wildcard subdomains

    - by Søren Zet
    I got this url http://domain.com/blogs/directory-param with this rule RewriteBase /blogs/directory/ RewriteRule ^/blogs/directory-([A-Za-z0-9-]+)$ /blogs/directory/index.php?cat=$1 [L] so I get /blogs/directory/index.php?cat=param now my problem is the following: I use wildcards subdomains so every *.domain.com is mapped to domain.com/blogs/ for example soeren.domain.com is mapped to domain.com/blogs and so on... My problem now is I want a rule for soeren.domain.com/directory-param which points to domain.com/blogs/directory?index.php?cat=param Do you have any ideas?

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  • Using - Instead of + in WordPress Search Permalink

    - by poer
    Options +FollowSymLinks RewriteEngine On RewriteCond %{THE_REQUEST} ^[A-Z]+ /(#[^?& ]*)??([^& ]*&)?s=([^& ]+)[^ ]* HTTP/ RewriteRule ^$ http://wordpressblog.com/search/%3? [R=301,L] Currently I use the above .htaccess mod_rewrite rule to convert default WordPress search permalink: http://wordpressblog.com/?s=key+word into nice permalink like this: http://wordpressblog.com/search/key+word My question is: What part of the mod_rewrite rule above that I need to change to get a nicer permalink like this one: http://wordpressblog.com/search/key-word.html Thanks.

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  • HAProxy reqrep remove URI on backend request

    - by Jim
    real quick question regarding HAProxy reqrep. I am trying to rewrite/replace the request that gets sent to the backend. I have the following example domain and URIs http://domain/web1 http://domain/web2 I want web1 to go to backend webfarm1, and web2 to go to webfarm2. Currently this does happen. However I want to strip off the web1 or web2 URI when the request is sent to the backend. Here is my haproxy.cfg frontend webVIP_80 mode http bind :80 #acl routing to backend acl web1_path path_beg /web1 acl web2_path path_beg /web2 #which backend use_backend webfarm1 if web1_path use_backend webfarm2 if web2_path default_backend webfarm1 backend webfarm1 mode http reqrep ^([^\ ]*)\ /web1/(.*) \1\ /\2 balance roundrobin option httpchk HEAD /index HTTP/1.1\r\nHost:\ example.com server webtest1 10.0.0.10:80 weight 5 check slowstart 5000ms server webtest2 10.0.0.20:80 weight 5 check slowstart 5000ms backend webfarm2 mode http reqrep ^([^\ ]*)\ /web2/(.*) \1\ /\2 balance roundrobin option httpchk HEAD /index HTTP/1.1\r\nHost:\ example.com server webtest1-farm2 10.0.0.110:80 weight 5 check slowstart 5000ms server webtest2-farm2 10.0.0.120:80 weight 5 check slowstart 5000ms If I go to http://domain/web1 or http://domain/web2 I see it in the error logs that the request on a server in each backend that the requst is for the resource /web1 or /web2 respectively. Therefore I believe there to be something wrong with my regular expression, even though I copied and pasted it from the Documentation. http://code.google.com/p/haproxy-docs/wiki/reqrep Summary: I'm trying to route traffic based on URI, however I want to strip the URI on the backend side. Go to http://domain/web1 -- backend request of / to webfarm1 Thank you! -Jim

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  • Apache mod_rewrite weird behavior in Internet Explorer

    - by morrty
    I'm attempting to setup redirection for a couple of root domains. Firstly, here is the code in my httpd-vhosts.conf file: <VirtualHost *:80> ServerAdmin ****@example.com ServerName example.com ServerAlias example2.com RewriteEngine On RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} !^192\.168\.0\.1$ # This is our WAN IP RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} !^www\. [NC] RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} !^$ RewriteRule ^/?(.*) http://www.%{HTTP_HOST}/$1 [L,R,NE] </VirtualHost> What this does is redirect the root domain of example.com or example2.com or any host other than www to www.example(2).com The part I'm having a problem with is the RewriteRule itself. the $1 is supposed to match the pattern of the RewriteRule and add it in the substitution. For example: "http://example.com/test.html" should rewrite to "http://www.example.com/test.html" It works in all modern browsers like it's supposed to except for IE8 or IE9 (I didn't test other IE versions). In IE, this works: "http://example.com" to "http://www.example.com" In IE, this does not work: "http://example.com/test.html" to "http://www.example.com/test.html" Does anyone have an explanation for this behavior? I hope I've explained it well enough. Thank you.

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