Search Results

Search found 1125 results on 45 pages for 'webapp'.

Page 37/45 | < Previous Page | 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44  | Next Page >

  • CodeIgniter/PHP - Calling a view from within a view

    - by Jack W-H
    Hi Folks Basically for my webapp I'm trying to organise it a bit better. As it at the moment, every time I want to load a page, I have to do it from my controller like so: $this->load->view('subviews/template/headerview'); $this->load->view('subviews/template/menuview'); $this->load->view('The-View-I-Want-To-Load'); $this->load->view('subviews/template/sidebar'); $this->load->view('subviews/template/footerview'); As you can tell it's not really very efficient. So I thought I'd create one 'master' view - It's called template.php. This is the contents of the template view: <?php $view = $data['view']; $this->load->view('subviews/template/headerview'); $this->load->view('subviews/template/menuview'); $this->load->view($view); $this->load->view('subviews/template/sidebar'); $this->load->view('subviews/template/footerview'); ?> And then I thought I'd be able to call it from a controller like this: $data['view'] = 'homecontent'; $this->load->view('template',$data); Unfortunately I simply cannot make this work. Does anyone have any ways around this or fixes I can put into place? I've tried putting ""s and ''s around $view in template.php but that makes no difference. The usual error is "Undefined variable: data" or "Cannot load view: $view.php" etc. Thanks folks! Jack

    Read the article

  • Dynamic ASP.NET controls using Infragistics

    - by Emil D
    So, in my asp.net webapp I need to dynamically load a custom control, based on the selected value of a dropdown list.That seems to work at first glance, but for some reason all infragistics controls that I have in my custom control appear, but won't work.I get a "Can't init [controlname]" warning in my browser.If I declare my custom control statically, this problem doesn't apprear Here's my code: Markup: <%@ Control Language="C#" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeBehind="GenericReportGUI.ascx.cs" Inherits="GenericReportGUI" %> <%@ Register assembly="Infragistics35.WebUI.Misc.v8.3, Version=8.3.20083.1009,Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=7dd5c3163f2cd0cb" namespace="Infragistics.WebUI.Misc" tagprefix="igmisc" %> <asp:UpdatePanel ID="myUpdatePanel" runat="server" UpdateMode="Conditional"> <ContentTemplate> <igmisc:WebPanel ID="WebPanel1" runat="server"> <Template> <div> <asp:PlaceHolder ID="Placeholder" runat="server"> </asp:PlaceHolder> </div> </Template> </igmisc:WebPanel> </ContentTemplate> </asp:UpdatePanel> Code-behind: public partial class GenericReportGUI : System.Web.UI.UserControl { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { } protected override void OnPreRender( EventArgs e ) { base.OnPreRender(e); loadCustomControl(); } protected void loadCustomControl() { Placeholder.Controls.Clear(); string controlPath = getPath(); //getPath() returns the path to the .ascx file we need to load, based on the selected value of a dropdownlist try { Control newControl = LoadControl( controlPath ); Placeholder.Controls.Add( newControl ); } catch { //if the desired control cannot be loaded, display nothing } myUpdatePanel.Update();//Update the UpdatePanel that contains the custom control } } I'm a total noob when it comes to asp.net, so any help with this issue would be greatly appreciated.

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET 2.0 app runs on Win 2003 in IIS 5 isolation mode but not in (default) IIS 6 mode

    - by Tex
    The app uses DLLImport to call a legacy unmanaged dll. Let's call this dll Unmanaged.dll for the sake of this question. Unmanaged.dll has dependencies on 5 other legacy dll's. All of the legacy dll's are placed in the WebApp/bin/ directory of my ASP.NET application. When IIS is running in 5.0 isolation mode, the app works fine - calls to the legacy dll are processed without error. When IIS is running in the default 6.0 mode, the app is able to initiate the Unmanaged.dll (InitMe()), but dies during a later call to it (ProcessString()). I'm pulling my hair out here. I've moved the unmanaged dll's to various locations, tried all kinds of security settings and searched long and hard for a solution. Help! Sample code: [DllImport("Unmanaged.dll", EntryPoint="initME", CharSet=System.Runtime.InteropServices.CharSet.Ansi, CallingConvention=CallingConvention.Cdecl)] internal static extern int InitME(); //Calls to InitMe work fine - Unmanaged.dll initiates and writes some entries in a dedicated log file [DllImport("Unmanaged.dll", EntryPoint="processString", CharSet=System.Runtime.InteropServices.CharSet.Ansi, CallingConvention=CallingConvention.Cdecl)] internal static extern int ProcessString(string inStream, int inLen, StringBuilder outStream, ref int outLen, int maxLen); //Calls to ProcessString cause the app to crash, without leaving much of a trace that I can find so far

    Read the article

  • Error loading WebappClassLoader in Tomcat

    - by Liron Yahdav
    I tried starting Tomcat and deploying my webapp from NetBeans after adding and configuring a new servlet. I got the following in the Tomcat error log: INFO: Marking servlet MyServlet as unavailable SEVERE: Error loading WebappClassLoader delegate: false repositories: /WEB-INF/classes/ ----------> Parent Classloader: org.apache.catalina.loader.StandardClassLoader@bb6086 MyServlet java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: MyServlet at org.apache.catalina.loader.WebappClassLoader.loadClass(WebappClassLoader.java:1387) at org.apache.catalina.loader.WebappClassLoader.loadClass(WebappClassLoader.java:1233) at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardWrapper.loadServlet(StandardWrapper.java:1095) at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardWrapper.allocate(StandardWrapper.java:809) at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardWrapperValve.invoke(StandardWrapperValve.java:129) at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardContextValve.invoke(StandardContextValve.java:191) at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardHostValve.invoke(StandardHostValve.java:128) at org.apache.catalina.valves.ErrorReportValve.invoke(ErrorReportValve.java:102) at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardEngineValve.invoke(StandardEngineValve.java:109) at org.apache.catalina.connector.CoyoteAdapter.service(CoyoteAdapter.java:293) at org.apache.coyote.http11.Http11Processor.process(Http11Processor.java:849) at org.apache.coyote.http11.Http11Protocol$Http11ConnectionHandler.process(Http11Protocol.java:583) at org.apache.tomcat.util.net.JIoEndpoint$Worker.run(JIoEndpoint.java:454) at java.lang.Thread.run(Thread.java:619) SEVERE: Allocate exception for servlet MyServlet java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: MyServlet at org.apache.catalina.loader.WebappClassLoader.loadClass(WebappClassLoader.java:1387) at org.apache.catalina.loader.WebappClassLoader.loadClass(WebappClassLoader.java:1233) at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardWrapper.loadServlet(StandardWrapper.java:1095) at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardWrapper.allocate(StandardWrapper.java:809) at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardWrapperValve.invoke(StandardWrapperValve.java:129) at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardContextValve.invoke(StandardContextValve.java:191) at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardHostValve.invoke(StandardHostValve.java:128) at org.apache.catalina.valves.ErrorReportValve.invoke(ErrorReportValve.java:102) at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardEngineValve.invoke(StandardEngineValve.java:109) at org.apache.catalina.connector.CoyoteAdapter.service(CoyoteAdapter.java:293) at org.apache.coyote.http11.Http11Processor.process(Http11Processor.java:849) at org.apache.coyote.http11.Http11Protocol$Http11ConnectionHandler.process(Http11Protocol.java:583) at org.apache.tomcat.util.net.JIoEndpoint$Worker.run(JIoEndpoint.java:454) at java.lang.Thread.run(Thread.java:619) I'm using NetBeans 6.8 and Tomcat 6.

    Read the article

  • log4j additivity, category logging level and appender threshold

    - by GBa
    I'm having troubles understanding the relation between additivity, category logging level and appender threshold... here's the scenario (my log4j.properties file): log4j.category.GeneralPurpose.classTypes=INFO, webAppLogger log4j.additivity.GeneralPurpose.classTypes=true log4j.category.GeneralPurpose=ERROR, defaultLogger log4j.additivity.GeneralPurpose=false log4j.appender.webAppLogger=org.apache.log4j.RollingFileAppender log4j.appender.webAppLogger.File=webapps/someWebApp/logs/webApp.log log4j.appender.webAppLogger.MaxFileSize=3000KB log4j.appender.webAppLogger.MaxBackupIndex=10 log4j.appender.webAppLogger.layout=org.apache.log4j.PatternLayout log4j.appender.webAppLogger.layout.ConversionPattern=%d [%t] (%F:%L) %-5p - %m%n log4j.appender.webAppLogger.Encoding=UTF-8 log4j.appender.defaultLogger=org.apache.log4j.RollingFileAppender log4j.appender.defaultLogger.File=logs/server.log log4j.appender.defaultLogger.MaxFileSize=3000KB log4j.appender.defaultLogger.MaxBackupIndex=10 log4j.appender.defaultLogger.layout=org.apache.log4j.PatternLayout log4j.appender.defaultLogger.layout.ConversionPattern=%d [%t] (%F:%L) %-5p - %m%n log4j.appender.defaultLogger.Encoding=UTF-8 insights: category GeneralPurpose.classTypes is INFO category GeneralPurpose.classTypes has additivity TRUE category GeneralPurpose is ERROR category GeneralPurpose has additivity FALSE with the current configuration I would have assumed that INFO messages sent to category GeneralPurpose.classTypes.* would be only logged to webAppLogger since the parent logger (cateogry) is set with ERROR level logging. However, this is not the case, the message is logged twice (one in each log file). Looks like the ERROR logging level for the parent category is not taken into consideration when the event is sent as part of additivity... is my observation correct or am I missing something ? how should I alter the configuration in order to achieve only ERROR level loggings in server.log ? thanks, GBa.

    Read the article

  • How to detect running on WebSphere

    - by Pedro Guedes
    Hi, I'm building a webapp that should run on both Tomcat and WebSphere and I've managed to make almost all the differences into properties with default values that I can override for deployment on the Tomcat server. I need to do yet another override for the authentication provider bean... public void postProcessBeanFactory(ConfigurableListableBeanFactory beanFactory) throws BeansException { if(isWebSphere()){ LOG.warn("Running on WebSphere... not overriding default authentication mechanism."); return; } LOG.info("Running on Tomcat... overriding authentication provider bean ("+AUTHENTICATION_PROVIDER_BEAN+")"); if (beanFactory.containsBean(AUTHENTICATOR_BEAN) && beanFactory.containsBean(POPULATOR_BEAN) && beanFactory.containsBean(USERDETAIL_PROVIDER_BEAN)){ LdapAuthenticator authenticator = (LdapAuthenticator) beanFactory.getBean(AUTHENTICATOR_BEAN); LdapAuthoritiesPopulator populator = (LdapAuthoritiesPopulator) beanFactory.getBean(POPULATOR_BEAN); UserDetailProvider userDetailProvider = (UserDetailProvider) beanFactory.getBean(USERDETAIL_PROVIDER_BEAN); ExtendedLdapAuthenticationProvider override = new ExtendedLdapAuthenticationProvider(authenticator, populator); override.setUserDetailProvider(userDetailProvider); beanFactory.registerSingleton(AUTHENTICATION_PROVIDER_BEAN, override); } else { throw new BeanCreationException("Could not find required beans to assemble overriding object for authentication..."); } } Now my problem is how to implement the isWebSphere() method. I was thinking Class.forName("someWebSphereSpecific"), but is there a better way?

    Read the article

  • Problem with creation of scheduled task from IIS6 on SR2003

    - by Morten Louw Nielsen
    Hi, I am writing a webapplication using .NET. The webapp creates scheduled tasks using the System.Diagnostics.Process class, calling SCHTASKS.EXE with parameters. I have changed the identity on the app pool, to a specific domain user. The domain-user is local administrator on all the four webservers. From webserver01 I am creating tasks on webserver01 to webserver04. It works perfect for 3-5 days, but then it breaks. It gives me the following errormessage in a messagebox: "The application failed to initialize properly (0xc0000142). Click on OK to terminate the application." If I have the system in the broken state, and I change the identity of the app pool to Domain administrator, it works. As I change it back to my domain-user, it breaks again. If I reboot the server, it works again for the same amount of days, but will break again. It seems like a permission-related problem. I just don't understand why it works sometimes, and sometimes doesn't. I hope someone outthere has seen this problem! Looking forward to hear from you! Kind regards, Morten, Denmark

    Read the article

  • MySQL stored procedure, handling multiple cursors and query results

    - by Tirithen
    How can I use two cursors in the same routine? If I remove the second cursor declaration and fetch loop everthing works fine. The routine is used for adding a friend in my webapp. It takes the id of the current user and the email of the friend we want to add as a friend, then it checks if the email has a corresponding user id and if no friend relation exists it will create one. Any other routine solution than this one would be great as well. DROP PROCEDURE IF EXISTS addNewFriend; DELIMITER // CREATE PROCEDURE addNewFriend(IN inUserId INT UNSIGNED, IN inFriendEmail VARCHAR(80)) BEGIN DECLARE tempFriendId INT UNSIGNED DEFAULT 0; DECLARE tempId INT UNSIGNED DEFAULT 0; DECLARE done INT DEFAULT 0; DECLARE cur CURSOR FOR SELECT id FROM users WHERE email = inFriendEmail; DECLARE CONTINUE HANDLER FOR NOT FOUND SET done = 1; OPEN cur; REPEAT FETCH cur INTO tempFriendId; UNTIL done = 1 END REPEAT; CLOSE cur; DECLARE cur CURSOR FOR SELECT user_id FROM users_friends WHERE user_id = tempFriendId OR friend_id = tempFriendId; DECLARE CONTINUE HANDLER FOR NOT FOUND SET done = 1; OPEN cur; REPEAT FETCH cur INTO tempId; UNTIL done = 1 END REPEAT; CLOSE cur; IF tempFriendId != 0 AND tempId != 0 THEN INSERT INTO users_friends (user_id, friend_id) VALUES(inUserId, tempFriendId); END IF; SELECT tempFriendId as friendId; END // DELIMITER ;

    Read the article

  • Executable war file that starts jetty without maven

    - by twilbrand
    I'm trying to make an "executable" war file (java -jar myWarFile.war) that will start up a jetty webserver that hosts the webapp contained in the war file I executed. I found a page that described how to make what I'm looking for: http://eclipsesource.com/blogs/2009/10/02/executable-wars-with-jetty/ however, following that advice along with how I think I'm supposed to make an executable jar (war) isn't working. I have an ant task creating a war with a manifest that looks like: Manifest-Version: 1.0 Ant-Version: Apache Ant 1.7.1 Created-By: 1.5.0_18-b02 (Sun Microsystems Inc.) Main-Class: Start The contents of the war look like: > Start.class > jsp > build.jsp > META-INF > MANIFEST.MF > WEB-INF > lib > jetty-6.1.22.jar > jetty-util.6.1.22.jar When I try to execute the .war file, the error is: Exception in thread "main" java.lang.NoClassDefFoundError: org/mortbay/jetty/Handler Caused by: java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: org.mortbay.jetty.Handler at java.net.URLClassLoader$1.run(URLClassLoader.java:202) at java.security.AccessController.doPrivileged(Native Method) at java.net.URLClassLoader.findClass(URLClassLoader.java:190) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(ClassLoader.java:307) at sun.misc.Launcher$AppClassLoader.loadClass(Launcher.java:301) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(ClassLoader.java:248) Could not find the main class: Start. Program will exit. There appears to be two errors here, one where it seems the jar files can't be found and one where the Start.class can't be found. To fix the first one, I put the jetty .jar files in the base of the war and tried again, same error. I also tried adding the WEB-INF/lib/ to the Class-path attribute of the manifest. That did not work either. Does anyone have any insight as to what I'm doing right/wrong and how I can get this executable war up and running?

    Read the article

  • Java (Tomcat): how to configure a cookieless subdomain to serve static content

    - by Webinator
    One of the tip given by both Google and Yahoo! to speed up webpages loading is to configure a cookieless subdomain to server static content. How do you configure a "cookieless subdomain" using Tomcat in standalone mode (this question is not about how to use Apache to serve static content in a cookieless-way, but about how to do it in Tomcat-standalone mode)? Note that I don't care about filters supporting If-Modified-Since nor care about filters supporting gzipping: the static content I'm serving is forever cacheable (or its name will change) and it is already compressed data (so gzip would only slow down the transfer). Do I need two different Tomcat webapps? (one "cookiefull" and one "cookieless") Do I need two different servlets? (as of now I've got only one dispatcher/controller servlet). Why would a "regular" link to, say, a static image be called in a cookiefull way when it would be on the same domain as the main webapp and then be called in a "cookie-less" way when it is on a subdomain? I don't understand exactly what is going on: is it the browser that decides to append or not cookies to the query? If so, why would it not append the cookies to a static query on a "cookieless" subdomain. Any example as to what is going on behind the scene is most welcome :)

    Read the article

  • Spring scheduler shutdown error

    - by Alex
    During development a SPRING based scheduler in a tomcat container, I always get this logoutput at undeploy webapp or shutdown server: Apr 28, 2010 4:21:33 PM org.apache.catalina.core.StandardService stop INFO: Stopping service Catalina Apr 28, 2010 4:21:33 PM org.apache.catalina.loader.WebappClassLoader clearReferencesThreads SEVERE: A web application appears to have started a thread named [org.springframework.scheduling.quartz.SchedulerFactoryBean#0_Worker-1] but has failed to stop it. This is very likely to create a memory leak. Apr 28, 2010 4:21:33 PM org.apache.catalina.loader.WebappClassLoader clearReferencesThreads SEVERE: A web application appears to have started a thread named [org.springframework.scheduling.quartz.SchedulerFactoryBean#0_Worker-2] but has failed to stop it. This is very likely to create a memory leak. Apr 28, 2010 4:21:33 PM org.apache.catalina.loader.WebappClassLoader clearReferencesThreads SEVERE: A web application appears to have started a thread named [org.springframework.scheduling.quartz.SchedulerFactoryBean#0_Worker-3] but has failed to stop it. This is very likely to create a memory leak. Apr 28, 2010 4:21:33 PM org.apache.catalina.loader.WebappClassLoader clearReferencesThreads SEVERE: A web application appears to have started a thread named [org.springframework.scheduling.quartz.SchedulerFactoryBean#0_Worker-4] but has failed to stop it. This is very likely to create a memory leak. Apr 28, 2010 4:21:33 PM org.apache.catalina.loader.WebappClassLoader clearReferencesThreads SEVERE: A web application appears to have started a thread named [org.springframework.scheduling.quartz.SchedulerFactoryBean#0_Worker-5] but has failed to stop it. This is very likely to create a memory leak. . . . SEVERE: A web application created a ThreadLocal with key of type [org.springframework.core.NamedThreadLocal] (value [Prototype beans currently in creation]) and a value of type [null] (value [null]) but failed to remove it when the web application was stopped. To prevent a memory leak, the ThreadLocal has been forcibly removed. Apr 28, 2010 4:21:34 PM org.apache.coyote.http11.Http11Protocol destroy INFO: Stopping Coyote HTTP/1.1 on http-8606 How can I fix this?

    Read the article

  • Checking for corrupt war file after mvn install

    - by Tauren
    Is there a maven command that will verify that a WAR file is valid and not corrupt? Or is there some other program or technique to validate zip files? I'm on Ubuntu 9.10, so a linux solution is preferred. On occasion, I end up with a corrupt WAR file after doing mvn clean and mvn install on my project. If I extract the WAR file to my hard drive, an error occurs and the file doesn't get extracted. I believe this happens when my system is in a low-memory condition, because this tends to happen only when lots of memory is in use. After rebooting, doing a mvn install always gives a valid WAR file. Because this happens infrequently, I don't typically test the file by uncompressing it. I transfer the 50MB war file to my server and then restart Jetty with it as the root webapp. But when the file is corrupt, I get a java.util.zip.ZipException: invalid block type error. So I'm looking for a quick way to validate the file as soon as mvn install is completed. Is there a maven command to do this? Any other ideas?

    Read the article

  • Changing App.config at Runtime

    - by born to hula
    I'm writing a test winforms / C# / .NET 3.5 application for the system we're developing and we fell in the need to switch between .config files at runtime, but this is turning out to be a nightmare. Here's the scene: the Winforms application is aimed at testing a WebApp, divided into 5 subsystems. The test proccess works with messages being sent between the subsystems, and for this proccess to be sucessful each subsystem got to have its own .config file. For my Test Application I wrote 5 separate configuration files. I wish I was able to switch between these 5 files during runtime, but the problem is: I can programatically edit the application .config file inumerous times, but these changes will only take effect once. I've been searching a long time for a form to address this problem but I still wasn't sucessful. I know the problem definition may be a bit confusing but I would really appreciate it if someone helped me. Thanks in advance! --- UPDATE 01-06-10 --- There's something I didn't mention before. Originally, our system is a Web Application with WCF calls between each subsystem. For performance testing reasons (we're using ANTS 4), we had to create a local copy of the assemblies and reference them from the test project. It may sound a bit wrong, but we couldn't find a satisfying way to measure performance of a remote application. --- End Update --- Here's what I'm doing: public void UpdateAppSettings(string key, string value) { XmlDocument xmlDoc = new XmlDocument(); xmlDoc.Load(AppDomain.CurrentDomain.SetupInformation.ConfigurationFile); foreach (XmlElement item in xmlDoc.DocumentElement) { foreach (XmlNode node in item.ChildNodes) { if (node.Name == key) { node.Attributes[0].Value = value; break; } } } xmlDoc.Save(AppDomain.CurrentDomain.SetupInformation.ConfigurationFile); System.Configuration.ConfigurationManager.RefreshSection("section/subSection"); }

    Read the article

  • Create 2 connection pools using c3p0 in Jetty

    - by Mike
    Hello, I'm trying to set up a maven web project that runs Jetty. In this project, I need 2 JNDIs... my plan is to configure 2 connection pools using c3p0 in Jetty. So, I created WEB-INF/jetty-env.xml, and I have the following:- <Configure class="org.mortbay.jetty.webapp.WebAppContext"> <New id="ds1" class="org.mortbay.jetty.plus.naming.Resource"> <Arg>jdbc/ds1</Arg> <Arg> <New class="com.mchange.v2.c3p0.ComboPooledDataSource"> // ... JTDS to SQL Server - omitted for brevity </New> </Arg> </New> <New id="ds2" class="org.mortbay.jetty.plus.naming.Resource"> <Arg>jdbc/ds2</Arg> <Arg> <New class="com.mchange.v2.c3p0.ComboPooledDataSource"> // ... JTDS to Sybase - omitted for brevity </New> </Arg> </New> </Configure> When I run jetty, I get this exception:- May 14, 2010 1:16:56 PM com.mchange.v2.c3p0.impl.AbstractPoolBackedDataSource getPoolManager INFO: Initializing c3p0 pool... com.mchange.v2.c3p0.ComboPooledDataSource [ acquireIncrement -> ... ... ... Exception in thread "com.mchange.v2.async.ThreadPoolAsynchronousRunner$PoolThread-#0" java.lang.LinkageError: net.sourceforge.jtds.jdbc.DefaultProperties at java.lang.ClassLoader.defineClassImpl(Native Method) at java.lang.ClassLoader.defineClass(ClassLoader.java:258) It seems to me that I can't create 2 connection pools using c3p0. If I remove either one of the connection pool, it worked. What am I doing wrong? How do I create 2 connection pools in Jetty? Thanks much.

    Read the article

  • Java & Maven generating -and using- my own archetype

    - by Random
    Hello again! I have been busy in my project creating a webapp (in struts) that manages maven, using maven-2.2.1-uber.jar link text. The problem comes when the boss says it has to use some archetypes the company has created (so no predefined archetypes for you naughty boy!). So ok, I use the -DarchetypeRepository option (with ServletWrapper I get my complete web direction, becouse the repository will be inside the app), and the log seems to find it, but then the build fails -miserably- with this little text 'Build Failure - The defined artifact is not an archetype' as simple as that. Of course I have a lot of INFO lines that say abslutily nothig related. I have read the maven definitive guide searching for some kind of help, but it has been disapointing at best. My thoughts are thatmaybe I am missing in somewhere of all the folders tree some xml that actually sais maven that my pom.xml is an archetype not a project. But I really, really, can't find anything on the net or in the manuals that explains easy-handed how the archetype:generate (with special parameters) works and where I have to put every folder and/or file. So just to say my thoughts aloud (and hopefully you understand what I am trying to ask): I have a template where I do some xml changes (variables, etc...), then I have to call maen and do an archetype:generate with a variable project. The problem seems to be that my actual confuguration doesn't like what I am doing. After the generation of the archetype, witch luckly will create some directory trees and leave me a POM.xml somewhere I still have to do some variable changes and more xml manage stuff, so it whould be very kind from maven to don't destroy anything in this process. Any ideas why this maven-thing is not happly-ever-after asuming that my archetype is defintly an archetype? Allthought I think the code is ok, it could be wrong, as I am using maven-ubber and I call the actual CSMavenCli.main(String[, ClassWorld), I don't think it is the case this time. Thanks and all! :) Random.

    Read the article

  • PHP, jQuery and Ajax Object Orientation

    - by pastylegs
    I'm a fairly experienced programmer getting my head around PHP and Ajax for the first time, and I'm having a bit of trouble figuring out how to incorperate object oriented PHP into my ajax webapp. I have an admin page (admin.php) that will load and write information (info.xml) from an XML file depending on the users selection of a form on the admin page. I have decided to use an object (ContentManager.php) to manage the loading and writing of the XML file to disk, i.e : class ContentManager{ var $xml_attribute_1 ... function __construct(){ //load the xml file from disk and save its contents into variables $xml_attribute = simplexml_load_file(/path/to/xml) } function get_xml_contents(){ return xml_attribute; } function write_xml($contents_{ } function print_xml(){ } } I create the ContentManager object in admin.php like so <?php include '../includes/CompetitionManager.php'; $cm = new CompetitionManager() ?> <script> ...all my jquery </script> <html> ... all my form elements </html> So now I want to use AJAX to allow the user to retrieve information from the XML file via the ContentManger app using an interface (ajax_handler.php) like so <?php if(_POST[]=="get_a"){ }else if() } ... ?> I understand how this would work if I wasn't using objects, i.e. the hander php file would do a certain action depending on a variable in the .post request, but with my setup, I can't see how I can get a reference to the ContentManager object I have created in admin.php in the ajax_handler.php file? Maybe my understanding of php object scope is flawed. Anyway, if anyone can make sense of what I'm trying to do, I would appreciate some help!

    Read the article

  • WCF Custom Delegation/Authentication without Kerberos

    - by MichaelGG
    I'm building a simple WCF service, probably exposed via HTTPS, using NTLM security. Since not all users are going to be capable of using the service directly, we're writing a simple web front-end for the service. Users will auth with HTML to the web front-end. What we want is a way to delegate the user of the web site all the way to the WCF service. I understand Kerberos delegation can do this, but that's not available to us. What I want to do is make the web front-end account a specially trusted account, so that if a request hits the WCF service authenticated as "DOMAIN\WebApp", we read a WCF message header containing the real identity, then switch the principal to that and continue as normal. Is there any "simple" way of achieving this? Should I give up entirely on this idea, and instead make users "sign-in" to the WCF app and then do complete custom auth? The WCF extensibility and security options seem so vast, I'd like to get a heads up on which path to start heading down.

    Read the article

  • 'License expired' error when dynamically generating Excel docs in ASP.NET

    - by Mac
    Anyone familiar with error below? When I run my webapp to generate a dynamic excel doc from my local machine it works fine but when the same piece of code is invoked on the server I get the below error. It seems like it's a permissions issues since it works on my machine but not the server but I don't know where to start in order to pinpoint the problem. Any guidance/help is greatly appreciated! Server Error in '/' Application. -------------------------------------------------------------------------------- This command is unavailable because the license to use this application has expired. Description: An unhandled exception occurred during the execution of the current web request. Please review the stack trace for more information about the error and where it originated in the code. Exception Details: System.Runtime.InteropServices.COMException: This command is unavailable because the license to use this application has expired. Source Error: An unhandled exception was generated during the execution of the current web request. Information regarding the origin and location of the exception can be identified using the exception stack trace below. Stack Trace: [COMException (0x800a03ec): This command is unavailable because the license to use this application has expired.] Microsoft.Office.Interop.Excel.Workbooks.Add(Object Template) +0 PaymentsReport.Page_Load(Object sender, EventArgs e) +70 System.Web.Util.CalliHelper.EventArgFunctionCaller(IntPtr fp, Object o, Object t, EventArgs e) +15 System.Web.Util.CalliEventHandlerDelegateProxy.Callback(Object sender, EventArgs e) +34 System.Web.UI.Control.OnLoad(EventArgs e) +99 System.Web.UI.Control.LoadRecursive() +47 System.Web.UI.Page.ProcessRequestMain(Boolean includeStagesBeforeAsyncPoint, Boolean includeStagesAfterAsyncPoint) +1061 Office/Excel is installed on the server and I can open/save excel docs on the server. Could it be the version of excel on the server vs. my local machine? If so how can I make sure I have the latest on the server?

    Read the article

  • AjaxControlToolkit Resource Files Not Copied To Output in MSBuild Script

    - by Dario Solera
    I'm new to MSBuild, but I managed to setup the following simple script: <Project ToolsVersion="3.5" DefaultTargets="Compile" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/developer/msbuild/2003"> <PropertyGroup> <Configuration Condition="'$(Configuration)' == ''">Debug</Configuration> </PropertyGroup> <ItemGroup> <SolutionRoot Include=".." /> <BuildArtifacts Include=".\Artifacts\" /> <SolutionFile Include="..\SolutionName.sln" /> </ItemGroup> <Target Name="Clean"> <RemoveDir Directories="@(BuildArtifacts)" /> </Target> <Target Name="Init" DependsOnTargets="Clean"> <MakeDir Directories="@(BuildArtifacts)" /> </Target> <Target Name="Compile" DependsOnTargets="Init"> <MSBuild Projects="@(SolutionFile)" Properties="OutDir=%(BuildArtifacts.FullPath);Configuration=$(Configuration)" /> <MakeDir Directories="%(BuildArtifacts.FullPath)\_PublishedWebsites\RDE.XAP.UnifiedGui.Web\Temp" /> </Target> </Project> The solution has 23 projects, 4 of which are WebApps. Now, the script works fine and the output is generated correctly. The only problem I counter is with two WebApp projects in the solution that use the AJAX Control Toolkit. The toolkit has a set of folders (e.g. ar, it, es, fr) that contain localized resources. These folders are not copied in the bin directory of the WebApps when the solution is built in MSBuild, but they are copied when it is built in Visual Studio. How can I solve this in a clean manner? I know I could write a (quite convoluted) task that copies the directories after the compile, but it does not seem the right solution to me. Also, neither Google, SO and MSDN could provide more details on this kind of issue.

    Read the article

  • express+jade: provided local variable is undefined in view (node.js + express + jade)

    - by Jake
    Hello. I'm implementing a webapp using node.js and express, using the jade template engine. Templates render fine, and can access helpers and dynamic helpers, but not local variables other than the "body" local variable, which is provided by express and is available and defined in my layout.jade. This is some of the code: app.set ('view engine', 'jade'); app.get ("/test", function (req, res) { res.render ('test', { locals: { name: "jake" } }); }); and this is test.jade: p hello =name when I remove the second line (referencing name), the template renders correctly, showing the word "hello" in the web page. When I include the =name, it throws a ReferenceError: 500 ReferenceError: Jade:2 NaN. 'p hello' NaN. '=name' name is not defined NaN. 'p hello' NaN. '=name' I believe I'm following the jade and express examples exactly with respect to local variables. Am I doing something wrong, or could this be a bug in express or jade?

    Read the article

  • Why do Unicode characters show up properly in database, but as ? when printed in Java via Hibernate?

    - by lupefiasco
    I'm writing a webapp, and interfacing with MySQL using Hibernate 3.5. Using "?????? ?????????" as my test string, I can input the string and see that it is properly persisted into the database. However, when I later pull the value out of the database and print to the console as a String, I see "?????? ?????????". If I use new OutputStreamWriter(System.out,"UTF-8"); then I get "„Éá„Çp„ÇØ„Éà„ÉÉ„Éó ·Éò·Éú·Éí·Éö·Éò·É°·É£·É†·Éò"". Why don't I see the original string? These are my hibernate.cfg.xml settings: <property name="hibernate.connection.useUnicode"> true </property> <property name="hibernate.connection.characterEncoding"> UTF-8 </property> <property name="hibernate.connection.charSet"> UTF-8 </property> and this is my database connection string: hibernate.connection.url = jdbc:mysql://localhost/mydatabase?autoReconnect=true&amp;useUnicode=true&amp;characterEncoding=UTF-8

    Read the article

  • Portlet container like pluto or jetspeed on google app engine?

    - by Patrick Cornelissen
    I am trying to build something "portlet server"-ish on the google app engine. (as open source) I'd like to use the JSR168/286 standards, but I think that the restrictions of the app engine will make it somewhere between tricky and impossible. Has anyone tried to run jetspeed or an application that uses pluto internally on the google app engine? Based on my current knowledge of portlets and the google app engine I'm anticipating these problems: A war file with portlets is from the deployment standpoint more or less a complete webapp (yes, I know that it doesn't really work without a portal server). The war file may contain it's own web.xml etc. This makes deployment on the app engine rather difficult, because the apps are not visible to each other, so all portlet containing archives need to be included in the war file of the deployed "app engine based portal server". The "portlets" are (at least in liferay) started as permanent servlet processes, based on their portlet.xmls and web.xmls which is located in the same spot for every portlet archive that is loaded. I think this may be problematic in the app engine, because everything is in one big "web app", so it may be tricky to access the portlet.xmls from each archive. This prevents a 100% compatibility in my opinion. Is here anyone who has any experience with the combination of portlets and the app engine? Do you think it's feasible to modify jetspeed, pluto or any other portlet container to be able to run it on the app engine?

    Read the article

  • Configure IIS7 to server static content through ASP.NET Runtime

    - by Anton Gogolev
    I searched high an low and still cannot find a definite answer. How do I configure IIS 7.0 or a Web Application in IIS so that ASP.NET Runtime will handle all requests -- including ones to static files like *.js, *.gif, etc? What I'm trying to do is as follows. We have kind of SaaSy site, which we can "skin" for every customer. "Skinnig" means developing a custom master page and using a bunch of *.css and other images. Quite naturally, I'm using VirtualPathProvider, which operates like this: public override System.Web.Hosting.VirtualFile GetFile(string virtualPath) { if(PhysicalFileExists(virtualPath)) { var virtualFile = base.GetFile(virtualPath); return virtualFile; } if(VirtualFileExists(virtualPath)) { var brandedVirtualPath = GetBrandedVirtualPath(virtualPath); var absolutePath = HttpContext.Current.Server.MapPath(brandedVirtualPath); Trace.WriteLine(string.Format("Serving '{0}' from '{1}'", brandedVirtualPath, absolutePath), "BrandingAwareVirtualPathProvider"); var virtualFile = new VirtualFile(brandedVirtualPath, absolutePath); return virtualFile; } return null; } The basic idea is as follows: we have a branding folder inside our webapp, which in turn contains folders for each "brand", with "brand" being equal to host name. That is, requests to http://foo.example.com/ should use static files from branding/foo_example_com, whereas http://bar.example.com/ should use content from branding/bar_example_com. Now what I want IIS to do is to forward all requests to static files to StaticFileHandler, which would then use this whole "infrastructure" and serve correct files. However, try as I might, I cannot configure IIS to do this.

    Read the article

  • How do I grant anonymous access to a url using FormsAuthentication?

    - by Brian Bolton
    For the most part, my webapp requires authentication to do anything. There are a few pages, namely the homepage, that I'd like people to be able to access without authenticating. Specifically, I'd like to allow anonymous access to these urls: /home /default.aspx I'm using asp.net MVC and FormsAuthentication. Both urls point to the same view: /home/index.aspx Here is my current configuration in web.config. <authentication mode="Forms"> <forms loginUrl="~/Account/LogOn" timeout="2880" /> </authentication> <authorization> <deny users="?" /> </authorization> Reading the documentation for the authorization tag, it says "Configures the authorization for a Web application, controlling client access to URL resources." It seems like I should be able to use the authorization tag to specify a url and allow access. Something like: <authentication mode="Forms"> <forms loginUrl="~/Account/LogOn" timeout="2880" /> </authentication> <authorization> <deny users="?" /> </authorization> <authorization url="/default.aspx"> <allow users="?" /> </authorization> <authorization url="/home"> <allow users="?" /> </authorization>

    Read the article

  • Dashcode code translation

    - by Alex Mcp
    Hi, a quick, probably easy question whose answer is probably "best practice" I'm following a tutorial for a custom-template mobile Safari webapp, and to change views around this code is used: function btnSave_ClickHandler(event) { var views = document.getElementById('stackLayout'); var front = document.getElementById('mainScreen'); if (views && views.object && front) { views.object.setCurrentView(front, true); } } My question is just about the if conditional statement. What is this triplet saying, and why do each of those things need to be verified before the view can be changed? Does views.object just test to see if the views variable responds to the object method? Why is this important? EDIT - This is/was the main point of this question, and it regards not Javascript as a language and how if loops work, but rather WHY these 3 things specifically need to be checked: Under what scenarios might views and front not exist? I don't typically write my code so redundantly. If the name of my MySQL table isn't changing, I'll just say UPDATE 'mytable' WHERE... instead of the much more verbose (and in my view, redundant) $mytable = "TheSQLTableName"; if ($mytable == an actual table && $mytable exists && entries can be updated){ UPDATE $mytable; } Whereas if the table's name (or in the JS example, the view's names) ARE NOT "hard coded" but are instead a user input or otherwise mutable, I might right my code as the DashCode example has it. So tell me, can these values "go wrong" anyhow? Thanks!

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44  | Next Page >