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  • Changing url of background image

    - by João Pedro
    I'm doing this interface where I have a lot of buttons that are just a li with a background image like this #menu ul.icons li.nove { background-image:url(images/edit-menu/icons/undo.png); background-size:contain; display:block; margin-top:29px; } <ul class="icons"> <li class="um"></li> <li class="dois"></li> <li class="tres"></li> <li class="quatro"></li> <li class="cinco"></li> <li class="seis"></li> <li class="sete"></li> <li class="oito"></li> <li class="nove"></li> <li class="dez"></li> </ul> I need to create a code where I change the background image of the button when the user clicks it, to show that button its activated, I just need to change url(images/edit-menu/icons/ to url(images/edit-menu/select/ and keep the same filename. I need a way to do this dynamically so I won't have to do it for each of the 10 buttons. Hope I was clear, thanks in advance

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  • Is there a way to stop a UIViewController from being popped from a UINavigationController's stack wh

    - by yabada
    I have a UINavigationController with a root view controller and then I push a UIViewController onto the navigation controller's stack. When the user taps the backBarButtonItem I'd like to be able to have an alert view pop up if there are certain conditions met and cancel the pop of the view controller. For example, the user can make certain selections but some combination of them may be invalid so I want to notify them to make changes. I know that I can prevent the user from making an invalid combination or have an alert view pop up when the invalid combination is selected but I'd rather not do that. The user may be changing selections and may be aware that a certain combination is invalid but I'd rather let them select something that makes the combination invalid then go change something else (and notify them if they haven't made changes before trying to go to the previous screen). For example, if I prevent them from make the invalid combination then they may have to scroll up on a screen, change something, then scroll back down instead of making a selection then scrolling up and changing something. Using viewWillDisappear: doesn't work because, although I can produce an alert view, I cannot figure out a way to prevent the pop from occurring. The alert view pops up but the view controller still pops and they are back to the root view controller (with the alert view displaying). Is there a way to prevent the pop from occurring? If not, is this something worth filing a bug report about or is this unnecessary and/or esoteric?

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  • DotNetNuke and Subversion guidelines

    - by David Stratton
    I've Googled, Binged, and here at StackOverflow, looked through the related questions and searched, but I'm not finding what I'm looking for. I've also searched documentation on DNN. What I'm looking for is any guidance (tutorials, blogs, step-by-step instructions for setting up a repository) etc from people who are experienced in using DotNetNuke with SVN. We use SVN for all our source control, and have no problem with standard applications, because we pretty much built the repository and directory structure to work with our processes. This means when we do web sites, in Visual Studio, we do file based web sites, rather than setting them up in the local IIS. It just makes things easier for us. However, with DNN, it appears that even if you get the source code, it is expecting to be set up in the local IIS, which means additional headaches for us. For example, we are moving all of our source code off our local C drives, and onto a shared drive on a server. This is to enable backups in addition to our normal source control. (This was a management decision). So that means that we need to change the virtual web app when we make the move. Has anyone come up with a good way to work around this? Can DNN be set up so that the developer web server in Visual Studio can be used, so that we can treat it just like any normal web app? Am I missing something obvious? Edit - added I'm willing to accept answers like "We tried it and never got it to work", and "It can't be done" as answers. I'm always open to hearing "It can't be done the way you want. You need to change your procedures to match how it works" if necessary. I guess if you've got experience trying this and just couldn't get it to work, I can learn from your experience that way as well, but some detail would be good.

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  • YAHOO QUERY LANGUAGE BUG!

    - by Damiano
    Hello everybody! Today, I've started with Yahoo Query Language. I would use it to retrive stocks details, so I'm talking about Yahoo Finance. I think there is a bug on this language. This is my query: select * from yahoo.finance.quoteslist where symbol='@^GSPC' I ALWAYS get 51 results! it's impossible, take a look at: http://it.finance.yahoo.com/q/cp?s=^GSPC There are 500 results! I also tried some paging parameters. select * from yahoo.finance.quoteslist(50,30) where symbol='@^GSPC' (to get from 50 to 80) select * from yahoo.finance.quoteslist(100) where symbol='@^GSPC' (to get the first 100 results) select * from yahoo.finance.quoteslist where symbol='@^GSPC' limit 30 offset 50 but ALWAYS the last stock is: <quote symbol="BBY"> <Symbol>BBY</Symbol> <LastTradePriceOnly>41.03</LastTradePriceOnly> <LastTradeDate>5/7/2010</LastTradeDate> <LastTradeTime>4:00pm</LastTradeTime> <Change>-0.48</Change> <Open>41.35</Open> <DaysHigh>42.35</DaysHigh> <DaysLow>39.60</DaysLow> <Volume>14129531</Volume> </quote> Why do I have this kind of problem? Thank you so much for your support! (P.S. I've tested it on Yahoo YQL console)

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  • mysql to xml (DOM question)

    - by Jerry
    Hello guys I am new to php dom and trying to get the mysql data transfer into xml. My current xml output is like this <markers> <city> <name>Seattle</name> <size>medium</size> <name>New York</name> <size>big</size> <city> <markers> but I want to change it to <markers> <city> <name>Seattle</name> <size>medium</size> <city> <city> <name>New York</name> <size>big</size> </city> <city> <markers> my php $dom=new DOMDocument("1.0"); $node=$dom->createElement("markers"); $parnode=$dom->appendChild($node); $firstElement=$dom->createElement("city"); $parnode->appendChild($firstElement); $getLocationQuery=mysql_query("SELECT * FROM location",$connection); header("Content-type:text/xml"); while($row=mysql_fetch_assoc($getLocationQuery)){ foreach ($row as $fieldName=>$value){ $child=$dom->createElement($fieldName); $value=$dom->createTextNode($value); $child->appendChild($value); $firstElement->appendChild($child); } } I can't figure out how to change my php code. Please help me about it. Thanks a lot.

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  • How best to associate code with events in jQuery?

    - by Ned Batchelder
    Suppose I have a <select> element on my HTML page, and I want to run some Javascript when the selection is changed. I'm using jQuery. I have two ways to associate the code with the element. Method 1: jQuery .change() <select id='the_select'> <option value='opt1'>One</option> <option value='opt2'>Two</option> </select> <script> $('#the_select').change(function() { alert('Changed!'); }); </script> Method 2: onChange attribute <select id='the_select' onchange='selectChanged();'> <option value='opt1'>One</option> <option value='opt2'>Two</option> </select> <script> function selectChanged() { alert('Changed!'); } </script> I understand the different modularity here: for example, method 1 keeps code references out of the HTML, but method 2 doesn't need to mention HTML ids in the code. What I don't understand is: are there operational differences between these two that would make me prefer one over the other? For example, are there edge-case browsers where one of these works and the other doesn't? Is the integration with jQuery better for either? Does the late-binding of the code to the event make a difference in the behavior of the page? Which do you pick and why?

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  • WiX built-in WixUI Dialog Sets have horizontal lines that are just a little too short (picture inclu

    - by Coder7862396
    I am creating an installer for my program using WiX (Windows Installer XML). I have used the following code to begin using the built-in WixUI Dialog Sets: <Product ...> <UIRef Id="WixUI_FeatureTree" /> </Product> This, however, creates a dialog set with horizontal lines that are just a little bit too short on every dialog as shown here: I understand that I could create my own set of dialogs to use instead by using software such as SharpSetup and WixEdit but I like the dialogs that WiX creates and only want to make a very small change to them. Is my best option to download the WiX source code and try to modify it? Is there a more simple solution? Perhaps I should contact the developers of WiX to list it as a bug? Maybe they like it that way though. I however think it looks out of place and would like to change it. I am using the latest weekly release of WiX 3.5.

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  • How To Share Information Between Django and Javascript?

    - by Randy
    So I am pretty new to both Django and Javascript (I am using JQuery) and I am wondering if I am doing a hack or if there are more slick ways to send client-side displayed database ids to the django server-side. Here is my process: I have a dataTable (http://datatables.net) that I am displaying rows of data by using the bProcessing option to use AJAX to retrieve records from the database. The URL in my urls.py is something like: url(r'^assets/activitylog/(?P<cid>.*)$', views.getActivityTable_ajax, name="activitylog_table"), and my dataTable ajax-relavant code is something like: "sAjaxSource": "/assets/activitylog/" + getIDFromHTML(), where the javascript function getIDFromHTML() grabs <cid> that is used by the Django view is simply: function getIDFromHTML(){ // Simply return the text in the #release_id div element from the HTML return $("#release_id").html(); }; This is the part that seems "hacky" to me. I am inserting into my template code the database id that I am using in the datatables URL (with display:none in the css) just so I can pass it back to the view. Most of this is necessitated because one cannot use django template tags in the javascript code unless the code is embedded into the HTML itself, which I am not (and will not) do. The only other thing that I have found is to change the URL to get rid of the parameter passed in to: url(r'^assets/activitylog', views.getActivityTable_ajax, name="activitylog_table"), and change the view code to: def getActivityTable_ajax(request): """Returns the activity for a given pid from HTTP GET ajax reqest""" pid = int(urlparse.urlparse(request.META['HTTP_REFERER']).path.split('/')[-1]) # rest of view code here... since the id that I need is on the end of this referer url. This way I don't have to monkey around with embedding the hidden database id into the HTML and passing it back to via ajax the the table population view code. Is it okay to use HTTP_REFERER in the request object in this manner? Am I going about this in the totally wrong way? Thanks in advance!

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  • Spring Security 3.0- Customise basic http Authentication Dialog

    - by gav
    Rather than reading; A user name and password are being requested by http://localhost:8080. The site says: "Spring Security Application" I want to change the prompt, or at least change what the "site says". Does anyone know how to do this via resources.xml? In my Grails App Spring configuration, my current version is as follows; <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <beans:beans xmlns="http://www.springframework.org/schema/security" xmlns:beans="http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xsi:schemaLocation="http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans/spring-beans-3.0.xsd http://www.springframework.org/schema/security http://www.springframework.org/schema/security/spring-security-3.0.xsd"> <http auto-config="true" use-expressions="true"> <http-basic/> <intercept-url pattern="/**" access="isAuthenticated()" /> </http> <authentication-manager alias="authenticationManager"> <authentication-provider> <user-service> <user name="admin" password="admin" authorities="ROLE_ADMIN"/> </user-service> </authentication-provider> </authentication-manager> </beans:beans>

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  • How can I create a "dynamic" WHERE clause?

    - by TheChange
    Hello there, First: Thanks! I finished my other project and the big surprise: now everything works as it should :-) Thanks to some helpful thinkers of SO! So here I go with the next project. I'd like to get something like this: SELECT * FROM tablename WHERE field1=content AND field2=content2 ... As you noticed this can be a very long where-clause. tablename is a static property which does not change. field1, field2 , ... (!) and the contents can change. So I need an option to build up a SQL statement in PL/SQL within a recursive function. I dont really know what to search for, so I ask here for links or even a word to search for.. Please dont start to argue about wether the recursive function is really needed or what its disadvanteges - this is not in question ;-) If you could help me to create something like an SQL-String which will later be able to do a successful SELECT this would be very nice! Iam able to go through the recursive function and make a longer string each time, but I cannot make an SQL statement from it.. Oh, one additional thing: I get the fields and contents by a xmlType (xmldom.domdocument etc) I can get the field and the content for example in a clob from the xmltype

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  • Jquery Bugs?? Long decimal number after two numbers multiply...

    - by Jerry
    Hi all I am working on a shopping site and I am trying to calculate the subtotal of products. I got my price from a array and quantity from getJSON response array. Two of them multiply comes to my subtotal. I can change the quantity and it will comes out different subtotal. However,when I change the quantity to certain number, the final subtotal is like 259.99999999994 or some long decimal number. I use console.log to check the $price and $qty. Both of them are in the correct format ex..299.99 and 6 quantity.I have no idea what happen. I would appreciate it if someone can help me about it. Here is my Jquery code. $(".price").each(function(index, price){ $price=$(this); //get the product id and the price shown on the page var id=$price.closest('tr').attr('id'); var indiPrice=$($price).html(); //take off $ indiPrice=indiPrice.substring(1) //make sure it is number format var aindiPrice=Number(indiPrice); //push into the array productIdPrice[id]=(aindiPrice); var url=update.php $.getJSON( url, {productId:tableId, //tableId is from the other jquery code which refers to qty:qty}, productId function(responseProduct){ $.each(responseProduct, function(productIndex, Qty){ //loop the return data if(productIdPrice[productIndex]){ //get the price from the previous array we create X Qty newSub=productIdPrice[productIndex]*Number(Qty); //productIdPrice[productIndex] are the price like 199.99 or 99.99 // Qty are Quantity like 9 or 10 or 3 sum+=newSub; newSub.toFixed(2); //try to solve the problem with toFixed but didn't work console.log("id: "+productIdPrice[productIndex]) console.log("Qty: "+Qty); console.log(newSub); **//newSub sometime become XXXX.96999999994** }; Thanks again!

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  • Copying a foreign Subversion repository to keep under dependencies

    - by Jonathan Sternberg
    I want to keep dependencies for my project in our own repository, that way we have consistent libraries for the entire team to work with. For example, I want our project to use the Boost libraries. I've seen this done in the past with putting dependencies under a "vendor" or "dependencies" folder. But I still want to be able to update these dependencies. If a new feature appears in a library and we need it, I want to just be able to update that repository within our own repository. I don't want to have to recopy it and put it under version control again. I'd also like for us to have the ability to change dependencies if a small change is needed without stopping us from ever updating the library. I want the ability to do something like 'svn cp', then be able to 'svn merge' in the future. I just tried this with the boost trunk, but I'm not able to get any history using 'svn log' on the copy I made. How do I do this? What is usually done for large projects with dependencies?

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  • Windows mobile 6.0 network settings

    - by Gauls
    Hi I am using Windows mobile 6.0 classic PDA's , I want to use wireless to access my service on the server(Win 2008), what should be my settings in the PDA network management? here's what my settings which works for some PDA's and for some it works for some time and stops? and for some PDA's similar settings does not work at all?? "Programs that connect to the internet..." = ISP "Programs that connect to a private network..." = My Work Network BTW what is this My work network ??? i don't understand as my PDA's use wireless (with proxy) i wud guess ISP to both should work right? but when i change second option to ISP as well the PDA that can connect to internet and server thru PDA IE but not through .netCF application will not get connected at all, but will work fine (apart from .netCF application accessing the server) if i change the second option back to My work network, so basically PDA is not using the first option of ISP at all ?? All i want to know is 1.) correct settings for WM 6.0 classic wirelessly accesing server 2008 with proxy 2) explain what is my work network ? Thanks gauls

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  • Possible to capture all events in a web browser?

    - by David
    I am working on a pet project and am at the research stage. Quick summary I am trying to intercept all form submits, onclick, and every single keydown. My library of choice is either jquery, or jquery + prototypejs. I figure I can batch up the events into a queue/stack and send it back to the server in time interval batches to keep performance relatively stable. Concerns Form submits and change's would be relatively simple.. Something like $("form :inputs").bind("change", function() { ... record event... }); But how to ensure I get precedence over the applications handlers as I have a habit of putting return false on a lot of my form handlers when there is a validation issue. As I understand it, that effectively stops the event in its tracks. My project For my smaller remote clients I will put their products onto a VPS or run it in my home data center. Currently I use a basic authentication system, given a username/password they see the website and then hopefully send me somewhat sane notes on what is broken or should be tweaked. As a better solution, I've written a simple proxy web server that does the above but allows me to have one DNS entry and then depending on credentials it makes an internal request relaying headers and re-writing URLS as needed. Every single html/text or application/* request is compressed and shoved into a sqlite table so I can partially replay what they've done. Now I am shifting to the frontend and would like to capture clicks, keydown's, and submits on everything on the page.

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  • Jquery .Show() .Hide() not working as expected

    - by fizgig07
    I'm trying to use the show and hide to display a different set of select options when a certain report type is selected. I have a couple problems with this: The .show .hide only execute properly if I pass params, slow fast, in the the first result of my conditional statement. If I take out the params or pass params in both results, only one select shows and it never changes.. here's is the code that currently kind of works. if ($('#ReportType').val() == 'PbuseExport') { $('#PbuseServices').show('fast'); $('#ReportServiceDropdown').hide('fast'); } else { $('#PbuseServices').hide(); $('#ReportServiceDropdown').show(); } After i've used this control I am taken to a differnt page. When I use the control again, it reatins the original search values and repopulates the control. Then again I only want to show one select option if a certain report is chosen.. This works correctly if the report type I originally searched on is not the "PbuseExport". If I searched on the report type "PbuseExport", then both selects show on the screen, and only until I change the report type does it show only one select. I know this probably isn't very clear.. Here is the code that handles the change event on the report type drop down. var serviceValue = $("#ReportType").val(); switch (serviceValue) { case 'PbuseExport': $('#PbuseServices').show('fast'); $('#ReportServiceDropdown').hide('fast'); default: $('#PbuseServices').hide(); $('#ReportServiceDropdown').show(); break; }

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  • python gui events out of order

    - by dave
    from Tkinter import * from tkMessageBox import * class Gui: def __init__(self, root): self.container = Frame(root) self.container.grid() self.inputText = Text(self.container, width=50, height=8) self.outputText = Text(self.container, width=50, height=8, bg='#E0E0E0', state=DISABLED) self.inputText.grid(row=0, column=0) self.outputText.grid(row=0, column=1) self.inputText.bind("<Key>", self.translate) def translate(self, event): input = self.inputText.get(0.0, END) output = self.outputText.get(0.0, END) self.outputText.config(state=NORMAL) self.outputText.delete(0.0, END) self.outputText.insert(INSERT, input) self.outputText.config(state=DISABLED) showinfo(message="Input: %s characters\nOutput: %s characters" % (len(input), len(input))) root = Tk() #toplevel object app = Gui(root) #call to the class where gui is defined root.mainloop() #enter event loop Working on a gui in tkinter I'm a little confused as to the sequence the event handlers are run. If you run the above code you'll hopefully see... 1) Editing the text widget triggers the event handler but it seems to fire it off without registering the actual change, 2) Even when the text widget is cleared (ie, keep pressing BackSpace) it still seems to have a one character length string, 3) The output widget only receives its update when the NEXT event trigger is fired despite the fact the data came on the previous event. Is this just how bindings work in tkinter or am i missing something here? The behaviour i would like when updating the input widget is: 1) Show the change, 2) Enter event handler, 3) Update output widget, 4) Show message box.

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  • Calling a function within a jQuery plug-in

    - by Bob Knothe
    I am in the process of creating my first jQuery plug-in that will format numbers automatically to various international formats. There are a couple functions within the plug-in that strips the strings and re-formats the string that needs to be called from another jQuery script. Based on the plug-in structure below (let me know if you need the entire code) can I call and send the parameter(s) to the stripFormat(ii) and targetFormat(ii, iv) functions? Or do I need to change my plug-in structure and if so how? (function($){ var p = $.extend({ aNum: '0123456789', aNeg: '-', aSep: ',', aDec: '.', aInput: '', cPos: 0 }); $.fn.extend({ AutoFormat: function() { return this.each(function() { $(this).keypress(function (e){ code here; }); $(this).keyup(function (e){ code here; }); // Would like to call this function from another jQuery script - see below. function stripFormat(ii){ code here; } // Would like to call this function from another jQuery script - see below. function targetFormat(ii, iv){ code here; } }); } }); })(jQuery); Methods trying to call the plug-in functions: jQuery(function(){ $("input").change(function (){ //temp function to demonstrate the stripFormat() function. document.getElementById(targetElementid).value = targetFormat(targetElementid, targetValue); }); }); I have tried to use these variations without success: document.getElementById(targetElementid).value = $.targetFormat(targetElementid, targetValue); document.getElementById(targetElementid).value = $.autoFormat().targetFormat(targetElementid, targetValue);

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  • Serialized NHibernate Configuration objects - detect out of date or rebuild on demand?

    - by fostandy
    I've been using serialized nhibernate configuration objects (also discussed here and here) to speed up my application startup from about 8s to 1s. I also use fluent-nhibernate, so the path is more like ClassMap class definitions in code fluentconfiguration xml nhibernate configuration configuration serialized to disk. The problem from doing this is that one runs the risk of out of date mappings - if I change the mappings but forget to rebuild the serialized configuration, then I end up using the old mappings without realising it. This does not always result in an immediate and obvious error during testing, and several times the misbehaviour has been a real pain to detect and fix. Does anybody have any idea how I would be able to detect if my classmaps have changed, so that I could either issue an immediate warning/error or rebuild it on demand? At the moment I am comparing timestamps on my compiled assembly against the serialized configuration. This will pickup mapping changes, but unfortunately it generates a massive false positive rate as ANY change to the code results in an out of date flag. I can't move the classmaps to another assembly as they are tightly integrated into the business logic. This has been niggling me for a while so I was wondering if anybody had any suggestions?

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  • C++ iterators, default initialization and what to use as an uninitialized sentinel.

    - by Hassan Syed
    The Context I have a custom template container class put together from a map and vector. The map resolves a string to an ordinal, and the vector resolves an ordinal (only an initial string to ordinal lookup is done, future references are to the vector) to the entry. The entries are modified intrusively to contain a a bool "assigned" and an iterator_type which is a const_iterator to the container class's map. My container class will use RCF's serialization code (which models boost::serialization) to serialize my container classes to nodes in a network. Serializing iterator's is not possible, or a can of worms, and I can easily regenerate them onces the vectors and maps are serialized on the remote site. The Question I need to default initialize, and be able to test that the iterator has not been assigned to (if it is assigned it is valid, if not it is invalid). Since map iterators are not invalidated upon operations performed on it (unless of course items are removed :D) am I to assume that map<x,y>::end() is a valid sentinel (regardless of the state of the map -- i.e., it could be empty) to initialize to ? I will always have access to the parent map, I'm just unsure wheather end() is the same as the map contents change. I don't want to use another level of indirection (--i.e., boost::optional) to achieve my goal, I'd rather forego compiler checks to correct logic, but it would be nice if I didn't need to. Misc This question exists, but most of its content seems non-sense. Assigning a NULL to an iterator is invalid according to g++ and clang++. This is another similar question, but it focuses on the common use-cases of iterators, which generally tends to be using the iterator to iterate, ofcourse in this use-case the state of the container isn't meant to change whilst iteration is going on.

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  • How do I make my program run with different privileges at Windows 7 startup?

    - by iira
    Hi, I am trying to add my program run in Windows 7 startup, but it doesn't work. My program has an embedded UAC manifest. My current way is by adding a string value at HKCU..\Run. I found a manual solution for Vista from http://social.technet.microsoft.com/Forums/en/w7itprosecurity/thread/81c3c1f2-0169-493a-8f87-d300ea708ecf Click Start, right click on Computer and choose “Manage”. Click “Task Scheduler” on the left panel. Click “Create Task” on the right panel. Type a name for the task. Check “Run with highest privileges”. Click Actions tab. Click “New…”. Browse to the program in the “Program/script” box. Click OK. On desktop, right click, choose New and click “Shortcut”. In the box type: schtasks.exe /run /tn TaskName where TaskName is the name of task you put in on the basics tab and click next. Type a name for the shortcut and click Finish. Additionally, you need to run the saved scheduled task shortcut to run the program instead of running the application shortcut to ignore the IAC prompt. When startup the system will run the program via the original shortcut. Therefore you need to change the location to run the saved task. Please: Open Regedit. Find the entry of the startup item in Registry. It will be stored in one of the following branches. HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\SOFTWARE\Microsoft\Windows\CurrentVersion\Run HKEY_USERS.DEFAULT\Software\Microsoft\Windows\CurrentVersion\Run HKEY_CURRENT_USER\Software\Microsoft\Windows\CurrentVersion\Run Double-click on the correct key, change the path to the saved scheduled task you created. Is there any free code to add item with privileges option in scheduled task? I haven't found the free one in torry.net. Thanks a lot.

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  • How to solve the delay problem in animation of sprites ?

    - by srikanth rongali
    My problem is, I did coding for a sprite. It should change it should change it's image from( 1, 2, 3). It should look like count down time to start a game. 1, 2, 3 are 3 png images. But the images are not displayed in equal intervals of time. I mean time between (1 - 2), (2 - 3) is not same. It is random. Please help me with my problem. Help me if there is better solution than what I am doing.(My animation should be like, before any game starts we see count down 1 then 2 then 3 then GO). -(id)init { if((self = [super init])) { [[CCDirector sharedDirector] setAnimationInterval:60.0/60]; [[CCDirector sharedDirector] setDisplayFPS:NO]; CCAnimation* numberAnimation = [CCAnimation animationWithName:@"countDown" delay: 60.0/60]; for( int i=1;i<4;i++) [numberAnimation addFrameWithFilename: [NSString stringWithFormat:@"number_%02d.png", i]]; id numberAction = [CCAnimate actionWithAnimation: numberAnimation restoreOriginalFrame:NO]; id action2 = [CCFadeOut actionWithDuration:0.5f]; CCSprite *number; number = [CCSprite spriteWithFile:@"number.png"]; .... } }

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  • RESTful copy/move operations?

    - by ladenedge
    I am trying to design a RESTful filesystem-like service, and copy/move operations are causing me some trouble. First of all, uploading a new file is done using a PUT to the file's ultimate URL: PUT /folders/42/contents/<name> The question is, what if the new file already resides on the system under a different URL? Copy/move Idea 1: PUTs with custom headers. This is similar to S3's copy. A PUT that looks the same as the upload, but with a custom header: PUT /folders/42/contents/<name> X-custom-source: /files/5 This is nice because it's easy to change the file's name at copy/move time. However, S3 doesn't offer a move operation, perhaps because a move using this scheme won't be idempotent. Copy/move Idea 2: POST to parent folder. This is similar to the Google Docs copy. A POST to the destination folder with XML content describing the source file: POST /folders/42/contents ... <source>/files/5</source> <newName>foo</newName> I might be able to POST to the file's new URL to change its name..? Otherwise I'm stuck with specifying a new name in the XML content, which amplifies the RPCness of this idea. It's also not as consistent with the upload operation as idea 1. Ultimately I'm looking for something that's easy to use and understand, so in addition to criticism of the above, new ideas are certainly welcome!

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  • Concatenate 2 text elements on a line with full-width border using CSS only

    - by Michael Horne
    Okay, I'm a newbie to CSS3, so please be gentle. ;-) I'm working with some Wordpress code (Woocommerce plugin, to be exact), and I'm trying to format a line of code in a sidebar so that 2 separate text items (one in an <a, the other in a <span are all on the same line, the full width of the column, and with a bottom border. It looks something like this (except the bottom border on each text do not go all the way across the enclosing sidebar box): http://www.dalluva.com/temp/browse-catalog.JPG (sorry, I'm new and can't post inline images yet) Here's the code fragment I'm trying to live with (i.e. I don't want to change it): <div class="widget"> ... <ul class="product-categories"> <li class="cat-item"> <a href="http://localhost/dalluva/shop/product-category/books/">Books</a> <span class="count">(5)</span> </li> ... And here's the CSS I have now: .widget ul li a { border-bottom: 1px solid #e9e9e9; line-height:1.0; padding: 5px 0 5px 22px; display: inline-block; } .widget ul li span { border-bottom: 1px solid #e9e9e9; line-height: 1.0; padding: 5px 0 5px 0; display: inline-block; } The output in the image above looks right for this CSS code, but when I change the 'span' CSS to include a width:100%, it causes the span element to wrap to the next line, looking like this: http://www.dalluva.com/temp/browse-catalog-2.JPG I've played with white-space:nowrap, overflow:hidden, etc, but I can't seem to find a way to have both the <a and the <span text on the same line with the border extending the full width of the column. Any suggestions on getting the desired effect through CSS only? Thanks. Michael

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  • Open Select using Javascript/jQuery?

    - by Newbie
    Hello! Is there a way to open a select box using Javascript (and jQuery)? <select style="width:150px;"> <option value="1">1</option> <option value="2">Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetur adipiscing elit. Nunc arcu nunc, rhoncus ac dignissim at, rhoncus ac tellus.</option> <option value="3">3</option> </select> I have to open my select, cause of ie bug. All versions of IE (6,7,8) cut my options. As far as I know, there is no css bugfix for this. At the moment I try to do the following: var original_width = 0; var selected_val = false; if (jQuery.browser.msie) { $('select').click(function(){ if (selected_val == false){ if(original_width == 0) original_width = $(this).width(); $(this).css({ 'position' : 'absolute', 'width' : 'auto' }); }else{ $(this).css({ 'position' : 'relative', 'width' : original_width }); selected_val = false; } }); $('select').blur(function(){ $(this).css({ 'position' : 'relative', 'width' : original_width }); }); $('select').blur(function(){ $(this).css({ 'position' : 'relative', 'width' : original_width }); }); $('select').change(function(){ $(this).css({ 'position' : 'relative', 'width' : original_width }); }); $('select option').click(function(){ $(this).css({ 'position' : 'relative', 'width' : original_width }); selected_val = true; }); } But clicking on my select the first time will change the width of the select but I have to click again to open it.

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  • Named previously unnamed branch

    - by Jab
    It seems naming a previously unnamed branch doesn't really work out. It creates a nasty multiple heads problem that I can't find a solution for. Here is the workflow... UserA starts working on feature that they expect to be small, so they just start working(off the default branch). The change turns out to be a large project and will need multiple contributors. So UserA issues... hg branch "Feature1" and continues working, committing locally s needed. UserA then pulls down the changes from the central repo so he can push. At this point, why does hg heads return 3 heads? It shows 2 for default and 1 for Feature1. The first head for default is the latest change by another user on the branch(irrelevant). The second default head is the commit prior to the hg branch "Feature1" commit. The central repository has rules enforced so that only 1 head per branch is allowed, so forcing a push isn't an option. The repo doesn't want multiple heads on the default branch. UserA should be able to push these changes so that other users can see the Feature1 branch and help out. I can't seem to find a way to "correct" this. I don't think I can re-write the branch of the initial commits for the feature, before it was a named branch. I know the initial changes before the named branch are technically on the default branch, but does that mean they will be heads until that Feature1 branch is merged?

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