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  • How to continuously scroll content within a DIV using jQuery?

    - by Camsoft
    Aim The aim is to a have a container DIV with a fixed height and width and have the HTML content within that DIV automatically scroll vertically continuously. Question Basically I've created the code below using jQuery to scroll (move) the child DIV vertically upwards until its outside the bounding parent box where the animation then completes which triggers an event handler which resets the position of the child DIV and starts the process again. This works fine, so the content scrolls up leaving a blank space and then starts from the bottom again and scrolls up. The problem I have is that the requirements for this is for the content to appear as if it was continuously repeating, see below diagram to better explain this, is there a way to do this? (I don't want to use 3rd party plug ins or libraries other than jQuery): What I have so far The HTML: <div id="scrollingContainer"> <div class="scroller"> <h1>This is a title</h1> <p>Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetur adipiscing elit. Suspendisse at orci mi, id gravida tellus. Integer malesuada ante sit amet enim pulvinar congue. Donec pulvinar dolor et arcu posuere feugiat id et felis.</p> <p>More content....</p> </div> </div> The CSS: #scrollingContainer{ height: 300px; width: 300px; overflow: hidden; } #scrollingContainer DIV.scroller{ position: relative; } The JavaScript: /** * Scrolls the content DIV */ function scroll() { if($('DIV.scroller').height() > $('#scrollingContainer').height()) { var t = $('DIV.scroller').position().top + $('DIV.scroller').height(); /* Animate */ $('DIV.scroller').animate( { top: '-=' + t + 'px' } , 4000, 'linear', animationComplete); } } function animationComplete() { $(this).css('top', $('#scrollingContainer').height()); scroll(); }

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  • Data sharing amongst JPA Entities

    - by Nick
    Setup: I have a simple web app that has a handfull of forms, each on a separate page. These forms represent patient data. There is a one-to-one relationship between patient and all these forms/entities. Each form maps directly to a db table and a JPA entity, maybe not the best architecture but it works and is simple. Question: If form/entity A and form/entity B share a common chunk of data (one of more fields), what is the best way to handle that in JPA. I.E. - If the data gets inserted via form A, I need it to show up in form B as existing data and vice versa. In other words its logical for both entities to contain that data. I believe I will have to move the common data into its own entity and define the relationships that way, but I have tried many different ways and none gets me all the way, at least with basic JPA. Can this be done through pure JPA relationships or will I have to write a bunch of code to make this happen manually. Not looking for code specifically, just the correct way to model this data. Thanks.

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  • Silverlight 4 race condition with DataGrid master details control

    - by Simon_Weaver
    Basically I want a DataGrid (master) and details (textbox), where DataGrid is disabled during edit of details (forcing people to save/cancel)... Here's what I have... I have a DataGrid which serves as my master data. <data:DataGrid IsEnabled="{Binding CanLoad,ElementName=dsReminders}" ItemsSource="{Binding Data, ElementName=dsReminders}" > Its data comes from a DomainDataSource: <riaControls:DomainDataSource Name="dsReminders" AutoLoad="True" ... I have a bound Textbox which is the 'details' (very simple right now). There are buttons (Save/Cancel) which should be enabled when user tries to edit the text. Unfortunately Silverlight doesn't support UpdateSourceTrigger=PropertyChanged so I have to raise an event: <TextBox Text="{Binding SelectedItem.AcknowledgedNote, Mode=TwoWay, UpdateSourceTrigger=Explicit, ElementName=gridReminders}" TextChanged="txtAcknowledgedNote_TextChanged"/> The event to handle this calls BindingExpression.UpdateSource to update the source immediately: private void txtAcknowledgedNote_TextChanged(object sender, TextChangedEventArgs e) { BindingExpression be = txtAcknowledgedNote.GetBindingExpression(TextBox.TextProperty); be.UpdateSource(); } IN other words - typing in the textbox causes CanLoad of the DomainDataSource to become False (because we're editing). This in turn disables the DataGrid (IsEnabled is bound to it) and enables 'Cancel' and 'Save' buttons. However I'm running up against a race condition if I move quickly through rows in the DataGrid (just clicking random rows). The TextChanged presumably is being called on the textbox and confusing the DomainDataSource which then thinks there's been a change. So how should I disable the DataGrid while editing without having the race condition? One obvious solution would be to use KeyDown events to trigger the call to UpdateSource but I always hate having to do that.

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  • Strange C++ performance difference?

    - by STingRaySC
    I just stumbled upon a change that seems to have counterintuitive performance ramifications. Can anyone provide a possible explanation for this behavior? Original code: for (int i = 0; i < ct; ++i) { // do some stuff... int iFreq = getFreq(i); double dFreq = iFreq; if (iFreq != 0) { // do some stuff with iFreq... // do some calculations with dFreq... } } While cleaning up this code during a "performance pass," I decided to move the definition of dFreq inside the if block, as it was only used inside the if. There are several calculations involving dFreq so I didn't eliminate it entirely as it does save the cost of multiple run-time conversions from int to double. I expected no performance difference, or if any at all, a negligible improvement. However, the perfomance decreased by nearly 10%. I have measured this many times, and this is indeed the only change I've made. The code snippet shown above executes inside a couple other loops. I get very consistent timings across runs and can definitely confirm that the change I'm describing decreases performance by ~10%. I would expect performance to increase because the int to double conversion would only occur when iFreq != 0. Chnaged code: for (int i = 0; i < ct; ++i) { // do some stuff... int iFreq = getFreq(i); if (iFreq != 0) { // do some stuff with iFreq... double dFreq = iFreq; // do some stuff with dFreq... } } Can anyone explain this? I am using VC++ 9.0 with /O2. I just want to understand what I'm not accounting for here.

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  • DWM and painting unresponsive apps

    - by Doug Kavendek
    In Vista and later, if an app becomes unresponsive, the Desktop Window Manager is able to handle redrawing it when necessary (move a window over it, drag it around, etc.) because it has kept a pixel buffer for it. Windows also tries to detect when an app has become unresponsive after some timeout, and tries to make the best of the situation -- I believe it dims out the window, adds "Not Responding" to its title bar, and perhaps some other effects. Now, we have a skinned app that uses window regions and layered windows, and it doesn't play well with these effects. We've been developing on XP, but have noticed a strange effect when testing on Vista. At some points the app may spend a few moments on some calculation or callback, and if it passes the unresponsive threshold (I've read that it's a five second timeout, but I cannot find a link), a strange graphical problem occurs: any pixels that would be 100% transparent due to the window regions turn black, which effectively makes the window rectangular again, with a black background. There seem to be other anomalies, with the original window's pixels being shifted a bit in some child dialogs. I am working on reducing such delays (ideally Windows will never need to step in like this), and trying to maintain responsiveness while it's busy, but I'd still like to figure out what is causing it to render like that, as I can't guarantee I can eliminate all delays. Basically, I just would like to know what Windows is doing when this happens, and how I can make my app behave properly with it. Skinned apps have to still work on Vista and later, so I need to figure out what I'm doing that's non-standard. I don't even know exactly how to look for information into how Windows now handles unresponsive apps, as my searches only return people having issues with apps that are unresponsive, or very rudimentary explanations of what the DWM does with such apps. Heck I'm not even 100% sure it's the DWM responsible, but it seems likely. Any potential leads? Photo of problem; screen shots won't capture the effect (note that the white dialog's buffer is shifted -- it is shifted exactly by the distance it has been offset from the main (blue) window):

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  • NAnt not running NUnit tests

    - by ctford
    I'm using NUnit 2.5 and NAnt 0.85 to compile a .NET 3.5 library. Because NAnt 0.85 doesn't support .NET 3.5 out of the box, I've added an entry for the 3.5 framework to NAnt.exe.config. 'MyLibrary' builds, but when I hit the "test" target to execute the NUnit tests, none of them seem to run. [nunit2] Tests run: 0, Failures: 0, Not run: 0, Time: 0.012 seconds Here are the entries in my NAnt.build file for the building and running the tests: <target name="build_tests" depends="build_core"> <mkdir dir="Target" /> <csc target="library" output="Target\Test.dll" debug="true"> <references> <include name="Target\MyLibrary.dll"/> <include name="Libraries\nunit.framework.dll"/> </references> <sources> <include name="Test\**\*.cs" /> </sources> </csc> </target> <target name="test" depends="build_tests"> <nunit2> <formatter type="Plain" /> <test assemblyname="Target\Test.dll" /> </nunit2> </target> Is there some versioning issue I need to be aware of? Test.dll runs fine in the NUnit GUI. The testing dll is definitely being found, because if I move it I get the following error: Failure executing test(s). If you assembly is not build using NUnit 2.2.8.0... Could not load file or assembly 'Test' or one of its dependencies... I would be grateful if anyone could point me in the right direction or describe a similary situation they have encountered. Edit I have since tried it with NAnt 0.86 beta 1, and the same problem occurs.

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  • Subversion versus Vault

    - by WebDude
    I'm currently reviewing the benefits of moving from SVN to a SourceGear Vault. Has anyone got advice or a link to a detailed comparison between the two? Bear in mind I would have to move my current Source Control system across which works strongly in SVN's favor Here is some info I have found out thus far from my own investigations. I have been taking some time tests between the two and vault seems to perform most operations much faster. Time tests used the same server as the repository, the same workstation client, and the same project. Time Comparisons SVN Add/Commit    12:30 Get Latest Revision    5:35 Tagging/Labelling    0:01 Branching    N/A - I don't think true branching exists in SVN Vault Add/Commit    4:45 Get Latest Revision    0:51 Tagging/Labelling    0:30 Branching    3:23 (can't get this to format correctly) I also found an online source comparing some other points. This is the kind of information i'm looking for. Usage Comparisons Subversion is edit/merge/commit only. Vault allows you to do either edit/merge/commit or checkout/edit/checkin. Vault looks and acts just like VSS, which makes the learning curve effectively zero for VSS users. Vault has a VS plugin, but it only works if you're going to run in checkout-mode. Subversion has clients for pretty much every OS you can imagine; Vault has a GUI client for Windows and a command line client for Mono. Both will support remote work, since both use HTTP as their transport (Subversion uses extended DAV, Vault uses SOAP). Subversion installation, especially w/ Apache, is more complex. Subversion has a lot of third party support. Vault has just a few things. My question Has anyone got advice or a link to a detailed comparison between the two?

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  • Virtual Lan on the Cloud -- Help Confirm my understanding?

    - by marfarma
    [Note: Tried to post this over at ServerFault, but I don't have enough 'points' for more than one link. Powers that be, move this question over there.] Please give this a quick read and let me know if I'm missing something before I start trying to make this work. I'm not a systems admin professional, and I'd hate to end up banging my head into the wall if I can avoid it. Goals: Create a 'road-warrior' capable star shaped virtual LAN for consultants who spend the majority of their time on client sites, and who's firm has no physical network or servers. Enable CIFS access to a cloud-server based installation of Alfresco Allow Eventual implementation of some form of single-sign-on ( OpenLDAP server ) access to Alfresco and other server applications implemented in the future Given: All Servers will live in the public internet cloud (Rackspace Cloud Servers) OpenVPN Server will be a Linux disto, probably Ubuntu 9.x, installed on same server as Alfresco (at least to start) Staff will access server applications and resources from client sites, hotels, trains, planes, coffee shops or their homes over various ISP, using their company laptops or personal home desktops. Based on my Research thus far, to accomplish this, I'll need: OpenVPN with Bridging Enabled to create a star shaped "virtual" LAN http://openvpn.net/index.php/open-source/documentation/miscellaneous/76-ethernet-bridging.html A Road Warrior Network Configuration, as described in this Shorewall article (lower down the page) http://www.shorewall.net/OPENVPN.html Configure bridge addressesing (probably DHCP) http://openvpn.net/index.php/open-source/faq.html#bridge-addressing Configure CIFS / Samba to accept VPN IP address http://serverfault.com/questions/137933/howto-access-samba-share-over-vpn-tunnel Set up Client software, with keys configured for access (potentially through a OpenVPN-Sa client portal) http://www.openvpn.net/index.php/access-server/download-openvpn-as/221-installation-overview.html

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  • Unable to connect to UNC share with WindowsIdentity.Impersonate, but works fine using LogonUser

    - by Rob
    Hopefully I'm not missing something obvious here, but I have a class that needs to create some directories on a UNC share and then move files to the new directory. When we connect using LogonUser things work fine with no errors, but when we try and use the user indicated by Integrated Windows authentication we run into problems. Here's some working and non-working code to give you an idea what is going on. The following works and logs the requested information: [DllImport("advapi32.dll", SetLastError = true)] private static extern bool LogonUser(string lpszUsername, string lpszDomain, string lpszPassword, int dwLogonType, int dwLogonProvider, out IntPtr phToken); [DllImport("kernel32.dll", CharSet = CharSet.Auto)] private static extern bool CloseHandle(IntPtr handle); IntPtr token; WindowsIdentity wi; if (LogonUser("user", "network", "password", 8, // LOGON32_LOGON_NETWORK_CLEARTEXT 0, // LOGON32_PROVIDER_DEFAULT out token)) { wi = new WindowsIdentity(token); WindowsImpersonationContext wic = wi.Impersonate(); Logging.LogMessage(System.Security.Principal.WindowsIdentity.GetCurrent().Name); Logging.LogMessage(path); DirectoryInfo info = new DirectoryInfo(path); Logging.LogMessage(info.Exists.ToString()); Logging.LogMessage(info.Name); Logging.LogMessage("LastAccessTime:" + info.LastAccessTime.ToString()); Logging.LogMessage("LastWriteTime:" + info.LastWriteTime.ToString()); wic.Undo(); CloseHandle(token); } The following fails and gives an error message indicating the network name is not available, but the correct user name is indicated by GetCurrent().Name: WindowsIdentity identity = (WindowsIdentity)HttpContext.Current.User.Identity; using (identity.Impersonate()) { Logging.LogMessage(System.Security.Principal.WindowsIdentity.GetCurrent().Name); Logging.LogMessage(path); DirectoryInfo info = new DirectoryInfo(path); Logging.LogMessage(info.Exists.ToString()); Logging.LogMessage(info.Name); Logging.LogMessage("LastAccessTime:" + info.LastAccessTime.ToString()); Logging.LogMessage("LastWriteTime:" + info.LastWriteTime.ToString()); }

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  • Not all TFS Build type files are getting copied

    - by k4k4sh1
    Because I have several builds sharing some assemblies containing common build tasks, I have one TFSBuild.proj for all builds and import different targets depending on the build, like the following: <Project DefaultTargets="DesktopBuild" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/developer/msbuild/2003" ToolsVersion="3.5"> <Import Project="Build_1.targets" Condition="'$(BuildDefinition)'=='Build_1'" /> <Import Project="Build_2.targets" Condition="'$(BuildDefinition)'=='Build_2'" /> <Import Project="Build_3.targets" Condition="'$(BuildDefinition)'=='Build_3'" /> </Project> Each target for a particular build has your usual content for a build type file, but in my case, I also reference some tasks inside assemblies checked into the same folder as TFSBuild.proj in source control. I wanted to add folders to contain some test build targets, since my folder was getting a bit full and cluttered. The following illustrates what I mean. $(TFS project)\build\ TFSBuild.proj Build_1.targets ... Assembly1.dll Assembly2.dll ... Folder\ Test_target_1.targets .... When I stated my build, however, I found that Test_target_1.targets and other files in Folder were not being copied to the build directory, while TFSBuild.proj and other files in the root level, as it were, of the build type folder were being copied. This caused my test build to not be able to reference files inside Folder, causing my build to immediately fail. I realize the simplest work-around would be to get rid of Folder and move all of its contents up to the build folder, but I would really like to have Folder if at all possible. Thanks for your help in advance.

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  • Apache Tomcat under Windows: Changing webapps default directory

    - by Maerch
    I am deploying my Java application with Ant. Unfortunately my test deployment on the local machine doesn't work because of Vista. The Program Files directionaries are protected and i don't want to start Ant or Eclipse as an Admin. So i had the idea to move my webapps folder to a workspace subfolder, so i can use relative paths in Ant as well. The solutions seems to be to modify the Host element in the server.xml. With Linux it isn't such a deal: <Host name="localhost" appBase="/path/to/webapps" unpackWARs="true" autoDeploy="true" xmlValidation="false" xmlNamespaceAware="false"> But with Windows i don't get it right. I tried every possible combinations i could imagine, like: C://Users//maerch//Workspaces//Tomcat6.0_webapps C:/Users/maerch/Workspaces/Tomcat6.0_webapps C:\Users\maerch\Workspaces\Tomcat6.0_webapps C:\\Users\\maerch\\Workspaces\\Tomcat6.0_webapps C://Users//maerch//Workspaces//Tomcat6.0_webapps\\ C:/Users/maerch/Workspaces/Tomcat6.0_webapps/ C:\Users\maerch\Workspaces\Tomcat6.0_webapps\ C:\\Users\\maerch\\Workspaces\\Tomcat6.0_webapps\\ The path is also correct, but it doesn't work. There are also no error messages in the log files neither the browser shows a 404 message or anything else. Just a white page without title and so on. Can anyone help?

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  • Dynamically manipulate php cookies with javascript/jquery

    - by pundit
    Hi guys, I'm currently building a dynamic menu bar(vertical and horizontal). in the default position its vertical. the user have the option to show the horizontal position and hide and vertical. I am currently doing that with javascript/ jquery. in order to keep the menu bar in the horizontal position i am keeping a count with a cookie. the problem is that when i use the click function in javascript i want to change the value of the cookie. i have no knowledge of how to do this. Can anyone assist me with this. all help would be appreciated. <?php setcookie('menu', 1, time()+(86400)); ?> $(document).ready(function() { $('#temp').hide(); if(<?php echo $_COOKIE['menu'];?> == 1){ $('#topmenu').hide(); $('#sidemenu').floating().dropShadow().floating(); $('#sidemenu_bottom').hide(); }else{ $('#topmenu').show(); $('#topmenu').dropShadow(); $('#sidemenu').hide(); $('#sidemenu').removeShadow(); } $('#move').click(function(){ $('#sidemenu').hide("drop",{},2000); $('#sidemenu').removeShadow(); $('#topmenu').show(); $('#topmenu').dropShadow(); $('#sidemenu_bottom').show(); $('#sidemenu_bottom').floating().dropShadow().floating(); }); }); This is what i have so far and the default cookie is working as well as the javascript. its just to change the cookie value now. thanks.

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  • Flush separate Castle ActiveRecord Transaction, and refresh object in another Transaction

    - by eanticev
    I've got all of my ASP.NET requests wrapped in a Session and a Transaction that gets commited only at the very end of the request. At some point during execution of the request, I would like to insert an object and make it visible to other potential threads - i.e. split the insertion into a new transaction, commit that transaction, and move on. The reason is that the request in question hits an API that then chain hits another one of my pages (near-synchronously) to let me know that it processed, and thus double submits a transaction record, because the original request had not yet finished, and thus not committed the transaction record. So I've tried wrapping the insertion code with a new SessionScope, TransactionScope(TransactionMode.New), combination of both, flushing everything manually, etc. However, when I call Refresh on the object I'm still getting the old object state. Here's some code sample for what I'm seeing: Post outsidePost = Post.Find(id); // status of this post is Status.Old using (TransactionScope transaction = new TransactionScope(TransactionMode.New)) { Post p = Post.Find(id); p.Status = Status.New; // new status set here p.Update(); SessionScope.Current.Flush(); transaction.Flush(); transaction.VoteCommit(); } outsidePost.Refresh(); // refresh doesn't get the new status, status is still Status.Old Any suggestions, ideas, and comments are appreciated!

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  • JVM/CLR Source-compatible Language Options

    - by Nathan Voxland
    I have an open source Java database migration tool (http://www.liquibase.org) which I am considering porting to .Net. The majority of the tool (at least from a complexity side) is around logic like "if you are adding a primary key and the database is Oracle use this SQL. If database is MySQL use this SQL. If the primary key is named and the database is Postgres use this SQL". I could fork the Java codebase and covert it (manually and/or automatically), but as updates and bug fixes to the above logic come in I do not want to have to apply it to both versions. What I would like to do is move all that logic into a form that can be compiled and used by both Java and .Net versions naively. The code I am looking to convert does not contain any advanced library usage (JDBC, System.out, etc) that would vary significantly from Java to .Net, so I don't think that will be an issue (at worst it can be designed around). So what I am looking for is: A language in which I can code common parts of my app in and compile it into classes usable by the "standard" languages on the target platform Does not add any runtime requirements to the system Nothing so strange that it scares away potential contributors I know Python and Ruby both have implementations on for the JVM and CLR. How well do they fit my requirements? Has anyone been successful (or unsuccesful) using this technique for cross-platform applications? Are there any gotcha's I need to worry about?

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  • Flash gets XML but the values are wrong, as3

    - by VideoDnd
    Flash receives the XML, but the values are wrong. How do I fix this? Problem I can see the XML loaded with no errors, but my output is way off. It's as though it's not receiving any values. Numbers in the output window and animation move rapidly. The Flash file runs as if it's variables where set to zero. I changed the order of my code, but that didn't help with this. Please explain how I can correct this. SWF //load xml var myXML:XML; var myLoader:URLLoader = new URLLoader(); myLoader.load(new URLRequest("xml.xml")); myLoader.addEventListener(Event.COMPLETE, processXML); //parse XML function processXML(e:Event):void { myXML = new XML(e.target.data); trace(myXML); //receive values from XML delay = parseInt(myXML.DELAY.text()); trace(delay); repeat = parseInt(myXML.REPEAT.text()); trace(repeat); } //variables var delay:uint = 0; var repeat:uint = 0; //timer and event var timer:Timer = new Timer(uint(delay),uint(repeat)); timer.addEventListener(TimerEvent.TIMER, countdown); //counter function countdown(event:TimerEvent) { myText.text = String(0 + timer.currentCount); trace(0 + timer.currentCount); } timer.start(); XML <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <SESSION> <DELAY TITLE="starting position">1000</DELAY> <REPEAT TITLE="starting position">60</REPEAT> </SESSION>

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  • UIView coordinate transforms on rotation during keyboard appearance

    - by SG
    iPad app; I'm trying to resize my view when the keyboard appears. It amounts to calling this code at appropriate times: CGRect adjustedFrame = self.frame; adjustedFrame.size.height -= keyboardFrame.size.height; [self setFrame:adjustedFrame]; Using this technique for a view contained in a uisplitview-based app works in all 4 orientations, but I've since discovered that a vanilla uiview-based app does not work. What happens is that apparently the uisplitview is smart enough to convert the coordinates of its subviews (their frame) such that the origin is in the "viewer's top left" regardless of the orientation. However, a uiview is not able to correctly report these coordinates. Though the origin is reported as (0,0) in all orientations, the view's effective origin is always as if the ipad were upright. What is weird about this is that the view correctly rotates and draws, but it always originates in the literal device top left. How can I get the view to correctly make its origin the "top left" to the viewer, not the device's fixed top left? What am I missing? Please, for something so trivial I've spent about 6 hours on this already with every brute force technique and research angle I could think of. This is the original source which doesn't work in this case: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1951826/move-up-uitoolbar

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  • Visual Studio 2005 - OleDbConnection throws "Invalid authorization specification" in Form Designer,

    - by Jason Dagit
    I have a form with an OleDbConnection object on it. This form fails to load in the Form Designer with the message: One or more errors encountered while loading the designer. The errors are listed below. Some errors can be fixed by rebuilding your project, while others may require code changes. Invalid authorization specification at ADODB.ConnectionClass.Open(String ConnectionString, String UserID, String Password, Int32 Options) ... (stack trace continues into user code) I've tracked this down to the OleDbConnection string. If I hardcode in the server IP, username/password/dbinstance into the constructor of the GUI form then the form will load in the designer. At run-time it is not an issue because we require the user to provide the login details. The question: Is it possible to use the OleDbConnection and the Form designer without supplying the database credentials in the source code of the form? For example, is there a property of the OleDbConnection or Form that I can set so that it doesn't need to access the database during Form design? My concern is that if we ever move the database server or change the login that the code will stop working in the designer.

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  • Apache Not Accepting a Path in My Home Folder

    - by Promather
    I have trying to set up an Apache site to use a folder in my home folder without any success. I exactly followed the steps in this page: https://help.ubuntu.com/community/ApacheMySQLPHP yet I did not succeed; I keep getting error 403, which says that the server doesn't have permission to access the requested page. I searched forums and many suggested changing the permission of the folder. I went straight away and set the permission to 777, but that didn't solve the problem. I made another search and somebody gave me a clue, which is that it could be because my home folder is encrypted. I believe this could be the problem, but: What is the relation between encryption and Apache? I suppose Apache server is requesting the file from the system, rather than trying to access the file bytes! Is there anyway to solve this problem? I don't want to move the folder to /var/www because I am using this Apache for testing, so I want whatever change I make to be immediately reflected, rather than having to copy files which is error prone.

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  • Place Query Results into Array then Implode?

    - by jason
    Basically I pull an Id from table1, use that id to find a site id in table2, then need to use the site ids in an array, implode, and query table3 for site names. I cannot implode the array correctly first I got an error, then used a while loop. With the while loop the output simply says: Array $mysqli = mysqli_connect("server", "login", "pass", "db"); $sql = "SELECT MarketID FROM marketdates WHERE Date = '2010-04-04 00:00:00' AND VenueID = '2'"; $result = mysqli_query($mysqli, $sql) or die(mysqli_error($mysqli)); $dates_id = mysqli_fetch_assoc ( $result ); $comma_separated = implode(",", $dates_id); echo $comma_separated; //This Returns 79, which is correct. $sql = "SELECT SIteID FROM bookings WHERE BSH_ID = '1' AND MarketID = '$comma_separated'"; $result = mysqli_query($mysqli, $sql) or die(mysqli_error($mysqli)); // This is where my problems start $SIteID = array(); while ($newArray = mysqli_fetch_array($result, MYSQLI_ASSOC)) { $SIteID[] = $newArray[SIteID]; } $locationList = implode(",",$SIteID); ?> Basically what I need to do is correctly move the query results to an array that I can implode and use in a 3rd query to pull names from table3.

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  • How to display a subview loaded from a separate NIB file

    - by Marcus Netter
    I'm developing a Cocoa desktop application that uses a source list in the style of iTunes: different elements in the source list cause the main content area to display different views. The content area is entirely filled with a (vertical) NSSplitView; on the left is an NSOutlineView source list. When the user selects an item on the left, the relevant view appears on the right side of the splitter. I can make it work well enough by putting everything in one NIB file and putting a borderless NSTabView to the right of the splitter; to switch views, I just have to change the selected tab. But putting all the views in one NIB is bad practice, so I'm trying to move each of the subviews into their own NIB files. I have a pretty good idea of most of this process — I've created an NSViewController subclass for each of these views (EntityDetailViewController, GroupDetailViewController, and so on), set the File's Owner of each new NIB to the relevant controller class, set the view connection in each NIB, and reworked the bindings. What I don't know is how to actually change which subview is being shown on screen. I've tried using the default generic NSView on the right side and sending it addSubview: messages; I've tried connecting to it as the first subview and calling NSView *newSubview = /* get subview from the new subview controller */ [[subview superview] replaceSubview:subview with:newSubview]; [self setSubview:newSubview]; But everything just leaves the space blank. How do I display a subview loaded from a separate NIB?

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  • JQuery-UI Drag, Drop and Re-Drag Clones on Re-Drag

    - by amarcy
    I am using the following code to extend the JQuery-UI demos included with the download. I am trying to set up a container that the user can drag items into and then move the items around within the container. I incorporated the answer from http://stackoverflow.com/questions/867469/jquery-draggable-clone which works with one problem. <script> $(document).ready(function() { $("#droppable").droppable({ accept: '.ui-widget-content', drop: function(event, ui) { if($(ui).parent(":not(:has(#id1))")){ $(this).append($(ui.helper).clone().attr("id", "id1")); } $("#id1").draggable({ containment: 'parent', }); } }); $(".ui-widget-content").draggable({helper: 'clone'}); }); </script> div class="demo"> <div id="draggable" class="ui-widget-content"> <p>Drag me around</p> </div> <div id="droppable" class="ui-widget-header"> <p>Drop here</p> </div> When an item is dropped onto the droppable container it can be dragged one time and when it is dropped after that drag it loses its dragging capability. How do I allow for the item to be dragged multiple times after it has been added to the droppable container?

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  • Missing WM_PAINT when hosting a WPF control inside a winforms application.

    - by Boris
    Hi All, Consider the following scenario: 1) Create a winforms application with an empty form. 2) Create a WPF usercontrol in the same project which is just the default control with background changed to blue. <UserControl x:Class="WindowsFormsApplication2.UserControl1" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" Height="300" Width="300" Background="Blue"> <Grid> </Grid> </UserControl> 3) Build the project 4) Add the control to your form (an ElementHost is added and the control is added inside it). 5) Run the application (everything looks nice) 6) Start Spy++, click find window (Control+F) and move the cursor onto the WPF control (the blue square) Something strange happens, the control gets a WM_ERASEBKGND message but no WM_PAINT message so now it is white. You can resize the form, hide the form behind other windows and the WPF control will not get rendered. There is an image of the scenario here: http://img260.imageshack.us/img260/2296/wmpaint.png This is a simplified example of the situation I have in the actual application. Please tell me what is the best way to resolve this issue such that the WPF control renders itself correctly. I would like a solution that can be incorporated into a large application with many controls on the form. Thank you very much in advance, Boris

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  • Building simple Reddit scraper

    - by Bazant Fundator
    Let's say that I would like to make a collection of images from reddit for my own amusement. I have ran the code on my development env and It haven't gone past the first page of posts (anything beyond requries the after string from the JSON. Additionally, When I turn on the validation, the whole loop breaks if the item doesn't pass it, not just the current iteration. I would be glad If you helped me understand mistakes I made. class Link include Mongoid::Document include Mongoid::Timestamps field :author, type: String field :url, type: String validates_uniqueness_of :url, # no duplicates validates :url, uniqueness :true end def fetch (count, after) count_s = count.to_s # convert count to string link = "http://reddit.com/r/aww/.json?count="+count_s+"&after="+after #so it can be used there res = HTTParty.get(link) # GET req. to the reddit server json = JSON.parse(res.body) # Parse the response if json['kind'] == "Listing" then # check if the retrieved item is a Listing for i in 1...(count) do # for each list item datum = json['data']['children'][i]['data'] #i-th element properties if datum['domain'].in?(["imgur.com", "i.imgur.com"]) then # fetch only imgur links Link.create!(author: datum['author'], url: datum['url']) # save to db end end count += 25 fetch(count, json['data']['after']) # if it retrieved the right kind of object, move on to the next page end end fetch(25," ") # run it

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  • please clarify some aspects of AJAX with ASP.NET web forms for a beginner

    - by citrus
    Im familiar with asp.net web forms. I would now like to move on to writing web applications that use AJAX. I would like to get to the stage where I can create an app: that has "edit in place" (no page reload) where i can reorder images using drag and drop (also saves the order to DB) that has google like search suggestions while typing on the fly 1)So do I need to learn how to use AJAX.net and Jquery(my JS library of choice)? Can I make do using only AJAX.net or only Jquery? 2)As far a I know, Jquery will allow me to perform client side manipulations/actions and AJAX.net is the part that will allow me to connect some of my actions to the Server. EG. if I wanted to re-order elements using drag and drop, I would use Jquery, but in order to save the result of the re-order to the DB I would have to use AJAX.net correct? 2a)So In order to learn how to do the above Im thinking I should first learn Jquery so I know how to manipulate/ select elements, and then I can lean how to save these changes to the DB. 3)I searched the books titled "ASP.net AJAX in action" and ASP.net 3.5 AJAX, both of these books did not contain any references to "Jquery". Is this because they may be using a different JS library, or perhaps the book focuses on the AJAX user controls? I just found it confusing that 2 popular AJAX books dont make any reference to Jquery. Thanks for any help.

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  • Flex 3 - Scroll bar issue

    - by Emma
    Im currently learning Flex, and Im having the hardest time getting scroll bars to work. In short Im pretty much just making a giant form for users to fill out, contained within a viewstack component, the user will type up information in one view, and it will be displayed in the other. But right now in the first canvas i have components that run of the screen and flex doesnt seem to automate a scroll bar, so i added in 'verticalScrollPolicy="on"' to my canvas, now while it gives me a scroll bar, it gives me an empty scroll bar, I still cannot move it up or down, meaning components are still trapped off the bottom of my screen. Im I missing something amazingly simple? Edit - Sorry, Im using Adobe Flex Builder 3, and the components it lets you drag in. http://img12.imageshack.us/img12/218/problem1f.jpg This is a picture of the problem, and i guess relavent code would be. <mx:Application xmlns:mx="adobe.com/2006/mxml"; layout="absolute" width="830" height="835"> <mx:ViewStack x="10" y="72" id="viewstack1" width="790" height="751" > <mx:Canvas label="Design Mode" width="100%" height="100%" verticalScrollPolicy="on" horizontalScrollPolicy="on" > (Components inside) </mx:Canvas> Sorry if Im using this site wrong, still very new

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