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  • FormView templates break when refactored to Master/Content

    - by ZaijiaN
    Let's say I have an abstract class IA, with subclasses A1, A2, A3. For each subclass, I had a page with a FormView to insert/edit/view, with code specific to that class. The templates for insert/edit/view are all very similar, so it was mostly cut & paste, and the compiler had no problem that there were controls with the same IDs in the different templates. Something like this: <asp:FormView> <InsertItemTemplate> <asp:Label id="Label1" /> </InsertItemTemplate> <EditItemTemplate> <asp:Label id="Label1" /> </EdittItemTemplate> </asp:FormView> Much of the code/markup ended up being redundant across the pages, so I refactored it to use a master/content format, with the master page having content placeholders for the insert/edit/view templates. Master page: <asp:FormView> <InsertItemTemplate> <asp:ContentPlaceHolder ID="InsertItemTemplate"></asp:ContentPlaceHolder> </InsertItemTemplate> <EditItemTemplate> <asp:ContentPlaceHolder ID="EditItemTemplate"></asp:ContentPlaceHolder> </EdittItemTemplate> </asp:FormView> And content page: <asp:Content ContentPlaceHolderID="InsertItemTemplate"> <asp:Label id="Label1" /> </asp:Content> <asp:Content ContentPlaceHolderID="EditItemTemplate"> <asp:Label id="Label1" /> </asp:Content> In the content page templates, I'm doing the exact same thing I was doing before I refactored, but now the compiler is blowing up with the error BC30260: 'Label1' is already declared as 'Protected WithEvents Label1 As System.Web.UI.WebControls.Label' in this class. For some reason, it's not separating the controls in the content blocks the same way it did when they were in the templates, even though the content placeholders are in the individual templates. Is there a way around this, other than to rename all my controls?

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  • Creating a spam list with a web crawler in python

    - by user313623
    Hey guys, I'm not trying to do anything malicious here, I just need to do some homework. I'm a fairly new programmer, I'm using python 3.0, and I having difficulty using recursion for problem-solving. I've been stuck on this question for quite a while. Here's the assignment: Write a recursive method spam(url, n) that takes a url of a web page as input and a non-negative integer n, collects all the email address contained in the web page and adds them to a global dictionary variable spam_dict, and then recursively calls itself on every http hyperlink contained in the web page. You will use a dictionary so only one copy of every email address is save; your dictionary will store (key,value) pairs (email, email). The recursive call should use the parameter n-1 instead of n. If n = 0, you should collect the email addresses but no recursive calls should be made. The parameter n is used to limit the recursion to at most depth n. You will need to use the solutions of the two above problems; you method spam() will call the methods links2() and emails() and possibly other functions as well. Notes: 1. running spam() directly will produce no output on the screen; to find your spam_dict, you will need to read the value of spam_dict, and you will also need to reset it to the empty dictionary before every run of spam. 2. Recall how global variables are used. Usage: spam_dict = {} spam('http://reed.cs.depaul.edu/lperkovic/csc242/test1.html',0) spam_dict.keys() dict_keys([]) spam_dict = {} spam('http://reed.cs.depaul.edu/lperkovic/csc242/test1.html',1) spam_dict.keys() dict_keys(['[email protected]', '[email protected]']) So far, I've written a function that traverses web pages and puts all the links in a nice little list, and what I wanted to do was call that functions. And why would I use recursion on a dictionary? And how? I don't understand how n ties into all of this. def links2(url): content = str(urlopen(url).read()) myparser = MyHTMLParser() myparser.feed(content) lst = myparser.get() mergelst = [] for link in lst: mergelst.append(urljoin(lst[0],link)) print(mergelst) Any input (except why spam is bad) would be greatly appreciated. Also, I realize that the above function could probably look better, if you have a way to do it, I'm all ears. However, all I need is the point is for the program to produce the proper output.

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  • PHP Processes reaching limit along with FastCGI timeouts

    - by Constant M
    I have a problem similar to http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1168384/how-to-troubleshoot-php-processes, but with a twist. We have a couple of managed servers that recently migrated to FastCGI. Since then we've been having problems. We have a content management system at a central place that we manage all our sites with. All the sites run on the same managed server. So basically its one PHP script that generates pages on the same server. The catch comes in where it works perfectly on some, and gives FCGI timeout errors on others. At the same time our support is saying that the PHP processes heap up to their limit and then causes Apache to stop working. I'm convinced this is a fault on their side, but would like to get my side clean too. Anyway have any suggestions where I can start looking for what's going wrong? I know it's a really broad question, but any help or pointers would be great. Thanks Just to add to that, here's a PS printout from support: happyh 13853 21556 0 01:04 ? 00:00:00 /usr/bin/php5-cgi happyh 13869 13853 0 01:04 ? 00:00:00 /usr/bin/php5-cgi mamedc 13914 21556 0 05:14 ? 00:00:00 /usr/bin/php5-cgi wealthf 13947 21556 0 01:21 ? 00:00:00 /usr/bin/php5-cgi wealthf 13961 13947 0 01:21 ? 00:00:00 /usr/bin/php5-cgi mamedc 14032 13914 0 05:14 ? 00:00:00 /usr/bin/php5-cgi lookgrt 14157 21556 0 04:47 ? 00:00:00 /usr/bin/php5-cgi lookgrt 14178 14157 0 04:47 ? 00:00:00 /usr/bin/php5-cgi wolfie 14262 21556 0 01:08 ? 00:00:00 /usr/bin/php5-cgi wolfie 14276 14262 0 01:08 ? 00:00:00 /usr/bin/php5-cgi yaukrl 14352 21556 0 01:21 ? 00:00:00 /usr/bin/php5-cgi yaukrl 14361 14352 0 01:21 ? 00:00:00 /usr/bin/php5-cgi itpays2 14538 21556 0 01:33 ? 00:00:00 /usr/bin/php5-cgi itpays2 14547 14538 0 01:33 ? 00:00:00 /usr/bin/php5-cgi brichmbx 14732 21556 0 04:47 ? 00:00:00 /usr/bin/php5-cgi brichmbx 14803 14732 0 04:47 ? 00:00:00 /usr/bin/php5-cgi greatl 14969 21556 0 01:00 ? 00:00:00 /usr/bin/php5-cgi

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  • Understanding SingleTableEntityPersister n QueryLoader

    - by Iapilgrim
    Hi, I have the Hibernate model @Cache(usage = CacheConcurrencyStrategy.NONE, region = SitesConstants.CACHE_REGION) public class Node extends StatefulEntity implements Inheritable, Cloneable { private Node _parent; private List<Node> _childNodes; .. } @Cache(usage = CacheConcurrencyStrategy.NONE, region = SitesConstants.CACHE_REGION) public class Page extends Node implements Defaultable, Securable { private RootZone _rootZone; ...... @OneToOne(fetch = FetchType.LAZY) @JoinColumn(name = "root_zone_id", insertable = false, updatable = false) public RootZone getRootZone() { return _rootZone; } public void setRootZone(RootZone rootZone) { if (rootZone != null) { rootZone.setPageId(this.getId()); _rootZone = rootZone; } } I want to get all pages ( call getSiteTree), so I using this query String hpql = "SELECT n FROM Node n "; See the trace I find Page.setRootZone(RootZone) line: 155 NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke0(Method, Object, Object[]) line: not available [native method] NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(Object, Object[]) line: 39 DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(Object, Object[]) line: 25 Method.invoke(Object, Object...) line: 597 BasicPropertyAccessor$BasicSetter.set(Object, Object, SessionFactoryImplementor) line: 66 PojoEntityTuplizer(AbstractEntityTuplizer).setPropertyValues(Object, Object[]) line: 352 PojoEntityTuplizer.setPropertyValues(Object, Object[]) line: 232 SingleTableEntityPersister(AbstractEntityPersister).setPropertyValues(Object, Object[], EntityMode) line: 3580 TwoPhaseLoad.initializeEntity(Object, boolean, SessionImplementor, PreLoadEvent, PostLoadEvent) line: 152 QueryLoader(Loader).initializeEntitiesAndCollections(List, Object, SessionImplementor, boolean) line: 877 QueryLoader(Loader).doQuery(SessionImplementor, QueryParameters, boolean) line: 752 QueryLoader(Loader).doQueryAndInitializeNonLazyCollections(SessionImplementor, QueryParameters, boolean) line: 259 QueryLoader(Loader).doList(SessionImplementor, QueryParameters) line: 2232 QueryLoader(Loader).listIgnoreQueryCache(SessionImplementor, QueryParameters) line: 2129 QueryLoader(Loader).list(SessionImplementor, QueryParameters, Set, Type[]) line: 2124 QueryLoader.list(SessionImplementor, QueryParameters) line: 401 QueryTranslatorImpl.list(SessionImplementor, QueryParameters) line: 363 HQLQueryPlan.performList(QueryParameters, SessionImplementor) line: 196 SessionImpl.list(String, QueryParameters) line: 1149 QueryImpl.list() line: 102 QueryImpl.getResultList() line: 67 NodeDaoImpl.getSiteTree(long) line: 358 PageNodeServiceImpl.getSiteTree(long) line: 797 NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke0(Method, Object, Object[]) line: not available [native method] NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(Object, Object[]) line: 39 DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(Object, Object[]) line: 25 Method.invoke(Object, Object...) line: 597 AopUtils.invokeJoinpointUsingReflection(Object, Method, Object[]) line: 307 JdkDynamicAopProxy.invoke(Object, Method, Object[]) line: 198 $Proxy100.getSiteTree(long) line: not available the calling setRootZone in Page makes Hibernate issue a hit to database. I don't want this. So my question is + Why query String hpql = "SELECT n FROM Node n "; issues un-expected trace logs like above. Why the query String hpql = "SELECT n.nodename FROM Node n " not? What is the mechanism behind? Note: Im using hibernate caching level 2. In case I don't want to see that trace logs. I mean I just get Node data only. How to do ? Thanks for your help. Sorry for my bad english :( Van

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  • Formatting Controls in ASP.NET

    - by Brian
    I feel as though this this is a simple question, but can't find an answer anywhere. We've got an interface we're trying to move to an ASP.NET control. It currently looks like: <link rel=""stylesheet"" type=""text/css"" href=""/Layout/CaptchaLayout.css"" /> <script type=""text/javascript"" src=""../../Scripts/vcaptcha_control.js""></script> <div id="captcha_background"> <div id="captcha_loading_area"> <img id="captcha" src="#" alt="" /> </div> <div id="vcaptcha_entry_container"> <input id="captcha_answer" type="text"/> <input id="captcha_challenge" type="hidden"/> <input id="captcha_publickey" type="hidden"/> <input id="captcha_host" type="hidden"/> </div> <div id="captcha_logo_container"></div> </div> However all the examples I see of ASP.NET controls that allow for basical functionality - i.e. public class MyControl : Panel { public MyControl() { } protected override void OnInit(EventArgs e) { ScriptManager.RegisterScript( ... Google script, CSS, etc. ... ); TextBox txt = new TextBox(); txt.ID = "text1"; this.Controls.Add(txt); CustomValidator vld = new CustomValidator(); vld.ControlToValidate = "text1"; vld.ID = "validator1"; this.Controls.Add(vld); } } Don't allow for the detailed layout that we need. Any suggestions on how I can combine layout and functionality and still have a single ASP control we can drop in to pages? The ultimate goal is for users of the control to just drop in: <captcha:CaptchaControl ID="CaptchaControl1" runat="server" Server="http://localhost:51947/" /> and see the working control. Sorry for the basic nature of this one, any help is greatly appreciated.

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  • Multiple Cookie Generation Issue

    - by Shannon
    Hi all, jQuery newbie here. I need to be able to set multiple cookies within the code without have to change out this variable each and every time. Is there any way to make this code generate unique cookies for different pages? As it is now, I'm having to rename that variable for each page that the jQuery animations exist on. (sbbcookiename) Background on the issue: We are having issues with the sliders not autoplaying once one has already been triggered, due to it the cookie having been cached. Thanks for your help. (function(){ jQuery.noConflict(); var _TIMEOUT= 1000, initTimer= 0, sbLoaded= false, _re= null ; initTimer= setTimeout(initSlider, _TIMEOUT); jQuery(document).ready(initSlider); function initSlider(){ if(sbLoaded) return; if (jQuery('#campaign_name').length > 0) { var sbbcookiename = jQuery('#campaign_name').attr('class'); } else { var sbbcookiename = "slider728x90"; } var slideTimeout //timer ,sbTrigger = jQuery('#slidebartrigger') //convenience ,sbFirstSlide = (document.cookie.indexOf(sbbcookiename) == -1) //check cookie for 'already seen today' ; clearTimeout(initTimer); sbLoaded= true; function toggleSlideboxes(){ if(slideTimeout) clearTimeout(slideTimeout); var isDown = sbTrigger.is('.closeSlide'); jQuery('#slidebar')['slide' + (isDown ? 'Up' : 'Down')]((isDown ? 1000 : 1000), function(){ if(sbFirstSlide){ //if 'first time today' then clear for click-to-replay sbTrigger.removeClass('firstSlide'); sbFirstSlide = false; } sbTrigger[(isDown ? 'remove' : 'add') + 'Class']('closeSlide').one('click', toggleSlideboxes); if(!isDown) slideTimeout = setTimeout(toggleSlideboxes, 4000); }); } if(sbFirstSlide){ //not seen yet today so set a cookie for expire tomorrow, then toggle the slide boxes... var oneDay = new Date(); oneDay.setUTCDate(oneDay.getUTCDate()+1); oneDay.setUTCHours(0, 0, 0, 0); //set to literally day-by-day, rather than 24 hours document.cookie=sbbcookiename+"=true;path=/;expires="+oneDay.toUTCString(); toggleSlideboxes(); }else{ //already seen today so show the trigger and set a click event on it... sbTrigger.removeClass('firstSlide').one('click', toggleSlideboxes); } } })();

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  • Sanity check on this idea for an Image Viewer in a web app

    - by Charlie Flowers
    I have an approach in mind for an image viewer in a web app, and want to get a sanity check and any thoughts you stackoverflowers might have. Here's the whirlwind nutshell summary: I'm working on an ASP.NET MVC application that will run in my company's retail stores. Even though it is a web application, we own the store machines and have control over them. We have a "windows agent" running on the store machine which we can talk to via http post (it is a WCF service, and our web app has permission to talk to it from the browser). One of the web pages needs to be an "image viewer" page with some common things like Rotate & Zoom. Now, there are some WebForms controls that offer Rotate and Zoom. However, they take up server resources and generate a good bit of traffic between the server and the browser. For example, the Rotate function would cause an ajax call to the server, which would then generate a new image written to a .NET Canvas object, which would then be written to a file on the server, which would then be returned from the ajax call and refreshed inside the browser. Normally, that's a pretty good way of doing things. But in our case, we have code running on the store machine that we can communicate with. This leads me to consider the following approach: When the user asks to view an image, we tell our "windows agent" to download it from our image server to the store machine. We then redirect our browser to our image viewer page, which will pull the image from the local file we just wrote to the store machine. When the user clicks "Rotate", we cause JavaScript code in the browser to call our "windows agent" software, asking it to perform the "Rotate" function. The "windows agent" does the rotation using the same kind of imaging control that would formerly have been used on the server, but it does so now on the store machine. Javascript in the browser then refreshes the image on the page to show the newly rotated image. Zoom and similar features would be implemented the same way. This seems to be much more efficient, scalable, and responsive for the end-users. However, I've never heard of anything like it being done, mostly because it's rare to have this combination of a web app plus a "windows agent" on the client machine. What do you think? Feasible? Reasonable? Any pitfalls I overlooked or improvements / suggestions you can see? Has anyone done anything like this who would like to offer the wisdom of experience? Thanks!

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  • Nasty redirect loop in WordPress (trailing slash, no trailing slash, and so on)

    - by Brett W. Thompson
    Hi, I read a ton of pages and tried lots of solutions but none have worked yet! My problem is that: test.asifa.net/asifa-wp Redirects to: test.asifa.net/asifa-wp/ Which redirects to the first page. What's a little bizarre is asifa-wp produces: <!DOCTYPE HTML PUBLIC "-//IETF//DTD HTML 2.0//EN"> <html><head> <title>301 Moved Permanently</title> </head><body> <h1>Moved Permanently</h1> <p>The document has moved <a href="http://test.asifa.net/asifa-wp/">here</a>.</p> </body></html> Whereas asifa-wp/ produces an empty page but the following headers (curl -v output): * About to connect() to test.asifa.net port 80 (#0) * Trying 69.163.203.138... connected * Connected to test.asifa.net (69.163.203.138) port 80 (#0) > GET /asifa-wp/ HTTP/1.1 > User-Agent: curl/7.18.2 (i386-redhat-linux-gnu) libcurl/7.18.2 NSS/3.12.0.3 zlib/1.2.3 libidn/0.6.14 libssh2/0.18 > Host: test.asifa.net > Accept: */* > < HTTP/1.1 301 Moved Permanently < Date: Sun, 13 Jun 2010 05:40:12 GMT < Server: Apache < X-Powered-By: PHP/5.2.13 < X-Pingback: http://test.asifa.net/asifa-wp/xmlrpc.php < Set-Cookie: _icl_current_language=en; expires=Mon, 14-Jun-2010 05:40:12 GMT; path=/asifa-wp/ < Location: http://test.asifa.net/asifa-wp < Vary: Accept-Encoding < Content-Length: 0 < Content-Type: text/html; charset=UTF-8 .htaccess looks like: # BEGIN WordPress <IfModule mod_rewrite.c> RewriteEngine On RewriteBase /asifa-wp/ RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteRule . /asifa-wp/index.php [L] </IfModule> # END WordPress Any help at all would be tremendously appreciated!!!

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  • To detect if the user is closing the IE browser apart from onunload event, as it is triggerred when

    - by AndAars
    hi, After being through numerous forums available on the net for last 5 days, I am still not able to completely track down the browser close event. My requirement is to generate a popup message, when user tries to close the browser. I have called my javascript function on body 'onbeforeunload' event. And I have hardcoded the conditions to check the mouse-coordinates for the red 'X' buton of browser, refresh, File-close or Alt-F4. My code works fine when browser window is Maximized, but fails if we shrink it after a limit. Please help me, if some body has already found the solution to a similar problem. Thank you. Aggregated Responses of OP Ok, just tell me if it is possible to detect if a user has clicked on the Refresh button of the browser. Also, Refresh can be triggered by Right-click - Refresh or Ctrl-R. My requirement is to make a variable false on Refresh. I am just able to do it on F5, but all other ways are still out of my reach. The same would be applied to Back buton. Hi ppl, Thanks for all who replied atleast. I have talked to my seniors regarding this and they have now understood and have compromised with the browser menu buttons. So now my task has become easy. Now, I am using a variable and making it true by default. As, I mentioned earlier I just have to catch the onbeforeunload and popup a message when user tries to leave. The message will not popup when user is navigating to other pages, as I have made the variable as false on all the links of my page using following piece of code: document.onclick = function() { //To check if user is navigating from the page by clicking on a hyperlink. if (event.srcElement.tagName == 'A') blnShowMsg = false; //To not popup the warning message else blnShowMsg = true; //To popup the warning message } In my case still the message is shown when user does Refresh, back or goes to any link in Favorites, etc. Thanks buddy, but I have already gone through that and didn't find much help there too. My seniors are not happy with that solution as putting a flag on evry link of my application is a complicated job and they fear of breaking the application. Any other suggestions would be appreciated. Thanks once again. Is there no one who can think of a solution here!!! where are all the experts???

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  • Choosing the right .NET architecture. WCF? WPF/Forms, ASP.NET (MVC)?

    - by Tommy Jakobsen
    I’m in the situation that I have to design and implement a rather big system from the bottom. I’m having some (a lot actually) questions about the architecture that I would like your comments and thoughts on. I don’t hope that I’ve written too much here, but I wanted to give you all an idea of what the system is. Quick info about the applications, read if you want: I can’t share much detail about the project, but basically it’s a system where we offer our customer a service to manage their users. We have a hotline where the users call and our hotline uses an (windows) application (intranet) to manage the user’s data, etc. The customer also has a web application where they can see reports, information about their business and users, and the ability to modify their data. Modifying data is not just user data like address and so, but also information about the products/services the user has, which can be complicated. The applications will be built on Microsoft .NET Framework 4, with a MS SQL Server 2008 database. There will be a few applications that have to access this database, such as: Intranet application (used by us and our hotline) Customer web application type 1 Customer web application type 2 Customer web application type n different applications) … Now my big problem is what .NET parts I should use for such a system. For the “backend” I’ve considered using Windows Communication Foundation: Would WCF be a good choice? The intranet application will be an application that has to edit lots of records in the database. It has to be easy to navigate using the keyboard (fast to work with). Has a feature such as “find customer, find that, lookup this, choose this and update that”. What would be the best choice to develop this application in? Would it be WPF or good old Windows Forms? I don’t need all of the fancy graphics features in WPF, like 3D, but the application has to look nice (maybe something like the new Visual Studio/Office tools). And the same question goes for the web pages. They have much the same work to do, but not as many features as the intranet application, and not the same amount of data (much less). That is my questions for now. I’m hoping to get a discussion going that will open my eyes to some of these technologies, helping me decide architecture to go with. I would like to say thanks in advance, and let you all know that any thoughts will be much appreciated.

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  • Turning off ASP.Net WebForms authentication for one sub-directory

    - by Keith
    I have a large enterprise application containing both WebForms and MVC pages. It has existing authentication and authorisation settings that I don't want to change. The WebForms authentication is configured in the web.config: <authentication mode="Forms"> <forms blah... blah... blah /> </authentication> <authorization> <deny users="?" /> </authorization> Fairly standard so far. I have a REST service that is part of this big application and I want to use HTTP authentication instead for this one service. So, when a user attempts to get JSON data from the REST service it returns an HTTP 401 status and a WWW-Authenticate header. If they respond with a correctly formed HTTP Authorization response it lets them in. The problem is that WebForms overrides this at a low level - if you return 401 (Unauthorised) it overrides that with a 302 (redirection to login page). That's fine in the browser but useless for a REST service. I want to turn off the authentication setting in the web.config: <location path="rest"> <system.web> <authentication mode="None" /> <authorization><allow users="?" /></authorization> </system.web> </location> The authorisation bit works fine, but when I try to change the authentication I get an exception: It is an error to use a section registered as allowDefinition='MachineToApplication' beyond application level. I'm configuring this at application level though - it's in the root web.config How do I override the authentication so that all of the rest of the site uses WebForms authentication and this one directory uses none? This is similar to another question: 401 response code for json requests with ASP.NET MVC, but I'm not looking for the same solution - I don't want to just remove the WebForms authentication and add new custom code globally, there's far to much risk and work involved. I want to change just the one directory in configuration.

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  • one page has 9 urls. I am looking for 301 auto redirect syntax for multiple urls.

    - by Ali Demirtas
    Hi This is the third time I am asking this question. I am only looking for the syntax of how to solve this problem. I am using prestashop as the cart for my website. I have a problem; the website used to be in dynamic urls. I enabled friendly url writing. The problem is that one page has more than one url. You can access a same page from the dynamic url and static url. In fact a single page has 9 different urls. This obviously creates problems for seo as search engines penalize my website for this. Here are examples of a page with more than 2 urls (http://www.turkishfootballstore.com/lang-nl/product.php?id_product=515) (http://www.turkishfootballstore.com/fenerbahce/515-fenerbahce-thuisshirt-20092010.html) (http://www.turkishfootballstore.com/lang-nl/fenerbahce/515-fenerbahce-thuisshirt-20092010.html) you can see even the static url's have 2 one with language defined and the other without. out fo the three urls above the correct one is the one at the bottom. What can I do to solve this problem? I have no knowledge of programming. Here is the htaccess for the website. Any sample code or help is really appreciated. There is 550 pages and every page is published in 17 different languages I want to use a 301 auto redirect. What is the simplest way to do it? Please only reply if you have the coding for a auto 301 redirect! URL rewriting module activation RewriteEngine on URL rewriting rules RewriteRule ^([a-z0-9]+)-([a-z0-9]+)(-[_a-zA-Z0-9-]*)/([_a-zA-Z0-9-]*).jpg$ /img/p/$1-$2$3.jpg [L,E] RewriteRule ^([0-9]+)-([0-9]+)/([_a-zA-Z0-9-]*).jpg$ /img/p/$1-$2.jpg [L,E] RewriteRule ^([0-9]+)(-[_a-zA-Z0-9-]*)/([_a-zA-Z0-9-]).jpg$ /img/c/$1$2.jpg [L,E] RewriteRule ^lang-([a-z]{2})/([a-zA-Z0-9-])/([0-9]+)-([a-zA-Z0-9-]).html(.)$ /product.php?id_product=$3&isolang=$1$5 [L,E] RewriteRule ^lang-([a-z]{2})/([0-9]+)-([a-zA-Z0-9-]).html(.)$ /product.php?id_product=$2&isolang=$1$4 [L,E] RewriteRule ^lang-([a-z]{2})/([0-9]+)-([a-zA-Z0-9-])(.)$ /category.php?id_category=$2&isolang=$1 [QSA,L,E] RewriteRule ^([a-zA-Z0-9-])/([0-9]+)-([a-zA-Z0-9-]).html(.*)$ /product.php?id_product=$2$4 [L,E] RewriteRule ^([0-9]+)-([a-zA-Z0-9-]).html(.)$ /product.php?id_product=$1$3 [L,E] RewriteRule ^([0-9]+)-([a-zA-Z0-9-])(.)$ /category.php?id_category=$1 [QSA,L,E] RewriteRule ^content/([0-9]+)-([a-zA-Z0-9-])(.)$ /cms.php?id_cms=$1 [QSA,L,E] RewriteRule ^([0-9]+)__([a-zA-Z0-9-])(.)$ /supplier.php?id_supplier=$1$3 [QSA,L,E] RewriteRule ^([0-9]+)_([a-zA-Z0-9-])(.)$ /manufacturer.php?id_manufacturer=$1$3 [QSA,L,E] RewriteRule ^lang-([a-z]{2})/(.*)$ /$2?isolang=$1 [QSA,L,E] Catch 404 errors ErrorDocument 404 /404.php Options +FollowSymLinks RewriteEngine on RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^.com [NC] RewriteRule ^(.)$ http://www.*.com/$1 [L,R=301] Options +FollowSymLinks RewriteEngine on index.php to / RewriteCond %{THE_REQUEST} ^[A-Z]{3,9}\ /.index.php\ HTTP/ RewriteRule ^(.)index.php$ /$1 [R=301,L] Header set Cache-Control: "no-store, no-cache, must-revalidate, pre-check=0, post-check=0, max-age=0"

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  • Why Won't My ASP.NET Hyperlink Work in IE?

    - by Giffyguy
    I'm making a very simple ad button system using ASP.NET 2.0 The advertisment is a 150x150px square that is displayed on "the r house." (Scroll down a little and you'll see the bright green "Angry Octopus" on the right side of the screen.) Now, I am not the administrator of "the r house." Instead, I am the administrator of angryoctopus.net Therefore, I don't have the ability to change the ad display code on a whim. So I gave "the r house" this snippet of code to display our ad nicely, while still allowing me to customize the back-end code on my end: <iframe src="http://www.angryoctopus.net/Content/Ad/150x150.aspx" frameborder="0" width="150" height="150" scrolling="no" style="padding: 0; margin: 0;"></iframe> You'll find this snippet in the page source to "the r house." On my side, the code looks like this: <asp:HyperLink runat="server" NavigateUrl="http://www.angryoctopus.net/" Target="_top"> <asp:Panel ID="pnlMain" runat="server" BackColor="#D1E231" style="padding: 0; margin: 0" Width="150" Height="150"> <asp:Image runat="server" ImageUrl="http://www.angryoctopus.net/Content/Ad/150x150.png" BorderStyle="None" style="padding: 0; margin: 0" /> </asp:Panel> </asp:HyperLink> ... and there's some insignificant back-end C# code for hit-counting. This looks all well and good from the code standpoint, as far as I can tell. Everything works in Firefox and Chrome. Also, everything appears to work in IE8 in all of my tests. I haven't tested IE7. But when you view "the r house" in IE(8) the hyperlink doesn't do anything, and the cursor doesn't indicate that the hyperlink is even there. Although you can see the target URL in the status bar. I've considered the fact that "the r house" uses XHTML 1.0 Strict could be causing problems, but that would probably effect Firefox and Chrome right? (My aspx pages use XHTML 1.0 Transitional) My only other theory is that some random CSS class could be applying a weird attribute to my iframe, but again I would expect that would effect Firefox and Chrome. Is this a security issue with IE? Does anyone know what part of the r house's website could be blocking the hyperlink in IE? And how can I get around this without having to hard code anything on the r house's website? Is there an alternative to iframe that would do the same job without requiring complicated scripting?

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  • Issues loading Jquery (Galleria) script from inside an i-frame (beginner javascript?)

    - by 103188530284789248582
    Hello, first of all - I'm not entirely new to javascript, but am not fluent in it as I am with html and css, and am especially new to jQuery... so please excuse me if this questions seems easy or obvious, but after days of google I still have no solution to the problem... using jQuery 1.4.2.min, jQuery-ui-1.8.1 .... the site in question: http://homecapture.ca/sets/project_index.html The scenario: I have a tabbed menu generated from an unordered list, when a menu item is clicked it reveals an iframe which links to the page containing an image gallery. I am using jQuery UI tabs for the tabbed menu, and the galleries to which I'm linking are jQuery Galleria pages, automatically generated with Jalbum. The problem: The galleria plug-in only works normally from inside of the containing iframe in Chrome, has inconsistent behaviour in IE8 (seems to work in my local copy, but won't load properly online), and is not loaded properly in Firefox. Instead of displaying a thumbnail area and the first large image, the Galleria page shows the first thumbnail only, then when it is clicked the image it links to, but if you right-click and go Back, the iframe content shows up as a properly rendered Galleria page. Jalbum generates more script in the < head of the page in addition to linking to jquery and the galleria plug-in. All of it seems to be in charge of the gallery navigation , and I have relocated it to the < body of the page, in an effort to make it load after the parent page scripts, and together with the gallery content. At this point I am not sure what else I could do to solve the problem, without digging around in all or some of the library and pluging .js files (which I am not knowledgeable enough to do without some pointers). Has anyone dealt with a similar issue? I'm seeing some solutions for manipulating iframe content from a parent page with jQuery on here, is that what I should be researching instead? Thanks in advance for all the help! ps. I tried posting some code, but it seems I do not have enough 'reputation' for things to work right on here either :)

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  • Want to set 'src' of script to my IP-Won't load in Safari or Chrome. Relative link asp.netmvc

    - by Ozaki
    I have a script that links to the server I am hosting (IP can change) usually I would just use for links: var url ='http://' + window.location.hostname + 'end of url'; But in this case it isnt appearing to be so easy. I have tried: (1) $('#scriptid').attr('src', url); as well as: (2) var script = document.createElement( 'script' ); script.type = 'text/javascript'; script.src = url; $("#insert").append( script ); Now case (2) works loads the script runs the script. But when at the end of my script it hits the 'write data' it decides to replace the entire page with just the data. Any idea on how I can do this? Note: I am using plain html not ASP. With ASP backend that is just the way it has to be. Ok it now is <script src="myscript.js"></script> C# router.AddAsyncRoute("myscript.js"...... It workes in IE & FF. But I get blank pages in Chrome & Safari. I am using document.write to write a script onto my page. Any ideas why Chrome & Safari don't like this? I am so far assuming that in Crhome & Safari it takes longer to run the script therefore launching the document.write after the DOM has loaded therefore replacing the page with a blank one. edit the script im trying to run is a modification of: d = new dTree('d'); d.add(0,-1,'My example tree'); d.add(1,0,'Node 1','default.html'); d.add(2,0,'Node 2','default.html'); d.add(3,1,'Node 1.1','default.html'); d.add(4,0,'Node 3','default.html'); d.add(5,3,'Node 1.1.1','default.html') document.write(d); Any ideas how I can get around this? I am not to sure how to implement an appenChild in this case as the script is changing constantly with live data. So every refresh it will generally have changed some...

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  • Failed to obtain JDBC Driver for MySQL under Tomcat environment

    - by Michael Mao
    Hi all: I've been trying to obtain the Driver class for JDBC connection to MySQL. The workstation is running on Linux, Fedora 10. I have manually set up the classpath variable for Java by CLI like this: bash-3.2$ echo $CLASSPATH /home/cmao/public_html/jsp/mysql-connector-java-5.1.12-bin.jar This shows that I've added the lastest mysql connection jar archive to my CLASSPATH variable. I've created a test JSP page which can be found here And source code for this page is: <%@page language="java"%> <%@page import="java.sql.*"%> <%@page import="java.util.*"%> <html> <head> <title>UTS JDBC MySQL connection test page</title> </head> <body> <% Connection con = null; out.print("Java version is : " + System.getProperty("java.version") + "<br />"); out.print("Tomcat version is : " + application.getServerInfo() + "<br />"); out.print("Servlet version is: " + application.getMajorVersion() + "<br />"); out.print("JSP version is : " + JspFactory.getDefaultFactory().getEngineInfo().getSpecificationVersion() +"<br />"); //out.print("Java classpath is : " + System.getProperty("java.class.path")+ "<br />"); //out.print("JSP classpath is : " + appliaction.getAttribute("org.apache.catalina.jsp_classpath") + "<br />"); //out.print("Tomcat classpath is : " + System.getProperty("org.apache.tomcat.common.classpath") + "<br />"); try { Class c = Class.forName("com.mysql.jdbc.Driver"); } catch(Exception e) { out.println("Error! Failed to obtain JDBC driver for MySQL... Missing class \"com.mysql.jdbc.Driver\"<br />"); } %> </body> </html> None of those commented out line would work, various Jsper Expetions would be thrown. You can check those Error pages from the following links: classpath Error page catalina Error page tomcat Error page It seems, from my limited knowledge of JSP and Servlet, the Tomcat environment "ignores" my Java CLASSPATH? In which case I cannot configure the MySQL JDBC package to let my Servlets(a JSP is but a Servlet anyway) work. I am not sure how to fix this issue. would it be better if I use an IDE like Eclipse or NetBeans and create a real Java "web app" so that everything can be "self-configured" by the usage of a web.config XML configuration file? So that I can certainly bypass this Tomcat environment restriction? Many thanks for the suggestions in advance.

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  • Wordpress Custom Field

    - by kwek-kwek
    I wanted to use the custom field for wordpress to have a different header banner for my site here is my code: <?php get_header(); ?> <?php if (have_posts()) : while (have_posts()) : the_post(); ?> <div id="BodyWrap"> <!--MAIN CONT--> <div id="mainCont"> <?php get_sidebar(); ?> <div id="rotateBanner"><?php // check for image $image = get_post_meta($post->ID, 'image', $single = true);?> <img class="mainImg" src="<?php bloginfo(template_url); echo $image; ?>" alt=""/> </div> <div id="mainCopy"> <div id="content"> <h2><?php single_post_title(); ?></h2> <?php the_content('<p class="serif">Read the rest of this page &raquo;</p>'); ?> <?php wp_link_pages(array('before' => '<p><strong>Pages:</strong> ', 'after' => '</p>', 'next_or_number' => 'number')); ?> </div> </div> </div> </div> <?php endwhile; endif; ?> <?php get_footer(); ?> Now the code renders but for some reason it only renders the img path as: <img alt="" src="http://www.testground.idghosting.com/philcom/wp-content/themes/phil"/> here is the demosite in the custom field I put this: image For the value I put this: /images/sampleHead.png

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  • What benefits are there to storing Javascript in external files vs in the <head>?

    - by RenderIn
    I have an Ajax-enabled CRUD application. If I display a record from my database it shows that record's values for each column, including its primary key. For the Ajax actions tied to buttons on the page I am able to set up their calls by printing the ID directly into their onclick functions when rendering the HTML server-side. For example, to save changes to the record I may have a button as follows, with '123' being the primary key of the record. <button type="button" onclick="saveRecord('123')">Save</button> Sometimes I have pages with Javascript generating HTML and Javascript. In some of these cases the primary key is not naturally available at that place in the code. In these cases I took a shortcut and generate buttons like so, taking the primary key from a place it happens to be displayed on screen for visual consumption: ... <td>Primary Key: </td> <td><span id="PRIM_KEY">123</span></td> ... <button type="button" onclick="saveRecord(jQuery('#PRIM_KEY').text())">DoSomething</button> This definitely works, but it seems wrong to drive database queries based on the value of text whose purpose was user consumption rather than method consumption. I could solve this by adding a series of additional parameters to various methods to usher the primary key along until it is eventually needed, but that also seems clunky. The most natural way for me to solve this problem would be to simply situate all the Javascript which currently lives in external files, in the <head> of the page. In that way I could generate custom Javascript methods without having to pass around as many parameters. Other than readability, I'm struggling to see what benefit there is to storing Javascript externally. It seems like it makes the already weak marriage between HTML/DOM and Javascript all the more distant. I've seen some people suggest that I leave the Javascript external, but do set various "custom" variables on the page itself, for example, in PHP: <script type="text/javascript"> var primaryKey = <?php print $primaryKey; ?>; </script> <script type="text/javascript" src="my-external-js-file-depending-on-primaryKey-being-set.js"></script> How is this any better than just putting all the Javascript on the page in the first place? There HTML and Javascript are still strongly dependent on each other.

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  • HTTP caching confusion

    - by Keith
    I'm not sure whether this is a server issue, or whether I'm failing to understand how HTTP caching really works. I have an ASP MVC application running on IIS7. There's a lot of static content as part of the site including lots of CSS, Javascript and image files. For these files I want the browser to cache them for at least a day - our .css, .js, .gif and .png files rarely change. My web.config goes like this: <system.webServer> <staticContent> <clientCache cacheControlMode="UseMaxAge" cacheControlMaxAge="1.00:00:00" /> </staticContent> </system.webServer> The problem I'm getting is that the browser (tested Chrome, IE8 and FX) doesn't seem to be caching the files as I'd expect. I've got the default settings (check for newer pages automatically in IE). On first visit the content downloads as expected HTTP/1.1 200 OK Cache-Control: max-age=86400 Content-Type: image/gif Last-Modified: Fri, 07 Aug 2009 09:55:15 GMT Accept-Ranges: bytes ETag: "3efeb2294517ca1:0" Server: Microsoft-IIS/7.0 X-Powered-By: ASP.NET Date: Mon, 07 Jun 2010 14:29:16 GMT Content-Length: 918 <content> I think that the Cache-Control: max-age=86400 should tell the browser not to request the page again for a day. Ok, so now the page is reloaded and the browser requests the image again. This time it gets an empty response with these headers: HTTP/1.1 304 Not Modified Cache-Control: max-age=86400 Last-Modified: Fri, 07 Aug 2009 09:55:15 GMT Accept-Ranges: bytes ETag: "3efeb2294517ca1:0" Server: Microsoft-IIS/7.0 X-Powered-By: ASP.NET Date: Mon, 07 Jun 2010 14:30:32 GMT So it looks like the browser has sent the ETag back (as a unique id for the resource), and the server's come back with a 304 Not Modified - telling the browser that it can use the previously downloaded file. It seems to me that would be correct for many caching situations, but here I don't want the extra round trip. I don't care if the image gets out of date when the file on the server changes. There are a lot of these files (even with sprite-maps and the like) and many of our clients have very slow networks. Each round trip to ping for that 304 status is taking about a 10th to a 5th of a second. Many also have IE6 which only has 2 HTTP connections at a time. The net result is that our application appears to be very slow for these clients with every page taking an extra couple of seconds to check that the static content hasn't changed. What response header am I missing that would cause the browser to aggressively cache the files? How would I set this in a .Net web.config for IIS7? Am I misunderstanding how HTTP caching works in the first place?

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  • IE8 rendering of local-files is wrong

    - by Eric
    It appears that IE8 is not rendering properly a local file: Consider this simple webpage: http://sayang.free.fr/ie8render.html (html code below) extracted from a w3c tutorial on opacity. Save it locally and display it again: the local file has no opacity! That's very annoying, especially when one wants to design complex pages on prototypes placed in local files. Do you have a solution to that ? <html> <head> <title>IE8 Local File</title> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=ISO-8859-1" /> <meta http-equiv="pragma" content="no-cache" /> <meta http-equiv="cache-control" content="no-cache" /> <meta http-equiv="expires" content="-1" /> <style type="text/css"> div.background { width: 500px; height: 250px; background: url(http://www.w3schools.com/css/klematis.jpg) repeat; border: 2px solid black; } div.transbox { width: 400px; height: 180px; margin: 30px 50px; background-color: #ffffff; border: 1px solid black; /* for IE */ filter:alpha(opacity=60); /* CSS3 standard */ opacity:0.6; } div.transbox p { margin: 30px 40px; font-weight: bold; color: #000000; } </style> </head> <body> <h2>Save this file locally and open it to see the difference</h2> <div class="background"> <div class="transbox"> <p>This is some text that is placed in the transparent box. This is some text that is placed in the transparent box. This is some text that is placed in the transparent box. This is some text that is placed in the transparent box. This is some text that is placed in the transparent box.</p> </div> </div> </body> </html>

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  • Script to dynamically change the source of an iframe tag

    - by Ukavi
    I want a code that will dynamically change the source of an iframe tag when a hyperlink is clicked for example I have one master page that should load content from other web pages using the iframe tag when a hyperlink is clicked but I don't know how to do it. Here is my code <html> <head> <title> </title> <style type="text/css"> #content{ margin-right:30%; margin-bottom: 10px; padding: 10px; border: 1px solid #000; margin-left:17%; background-repeat:no-repeat; width:686; height:640; } </style> <script type="text/javascript"> function hyperlinkChanger(hyperLink) { switch (hyperLink) { case "home": var url="home.html"; return url; break; case "about_Us": var url="about_us.html"; return url; break; case "contact_Us: var url="contact_us.html"; return url; break; } } </script> </head> <body> <a href="home.html" name="home" onClick="hyperlinkChanger('home')">Home</a> <br /> <a href="about_us.html" name="about_Us" onClick="hyperlinkChanger('about_Us')">About Us</a> <br /> <a href="contact_us.html" name="contact_Us" onClick="hyperlinkChanger('contact_Us')">Contact us</a> <br /> <div name="content"> <!--please help me write a method to call the output of the funcion hyperlinkChanger--> <iframe src="hyprlink function" width="600" height="300"> </iframe> </div> </body> </html>

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  • Why is the W3C box model considered better?

    - by Mel
    Why do most developers consider the W3C box-model to be better than the box-model used by Internet Explorer? I know it's very frustrating developing pages that look the way you want them on Internet Explorer, but I find the W3C box-model to be counter-intuitive. For example, if margins, padding, and border were factored into the width, I could assign fixed width values for all my columns without having to worry about how many columns I have and what changes I make to my padding and margins. Under W3C box model I have to worry about how many columns I have, and develop something akin to a mathematical formula to calculate my values. Changing them would nightmarish, especially for complex layouts. My novice opinion is that it's more restrictive. Consider this small frame-work I wrote: #content { margin:0 auto 30px auto; padding:0 30px 30px 30px; width:900px; } #content .column { float:left; margin:0 20px 20px 20px; } #content .first { margin-left:0; } #content .last { margin-right:0; } .width_1-4 { width:195px; } .width_1-3 { width:273px; } .width_1-2 { width:430px; } .width_3-4 { width:645px; } .width_1-1 { width:900px; } These values I have assigned here will falter unless there are three columns, and thus the margins at 0(first)+20+20+20+20+0(last). It would be a disaster if I wanted to add padding to my columns too, as my entire setup would have to be re calibrated. Now imagine if column width incorporated all the other elements, all I would need to do is change one associated value, and I have my layout. I'm less criticizing it and more hoping to understand why it's better, or why I'm finding it more difficult. Am I doing this whole thing wrong? I don't know very much about this topic, but it seems counter intuitive to use W3C's box-model. Some advice would be really appreciated. Thanks

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  • Difficulty adding widgets to django form.

    - by codingJoe
    I have a django app that tracks activities that can benefit a classroom. Using the django examples, I was able to build a form to enter this data. But when I try to add widgets to that form, things get tricky. What I want is a calendar widget that lets the user enter the 'activity_date' field using a widget. If I use Admin interface. The AdminDateWidget works fine. however. This particular user isn't allowed access to the admin interface so I need a different way to present this widget. Also I couldn't figure out how to make the bring the admin widget over into non-admin pages. So I tried a custom widget. This is the first custom widget I've built, so I'm not quite sure what is supposed to be going on here. Any Expert Advice? How do I get my date widget to work? # The Model class Activity(models.Model): activity_date = models.DateField() activity_type = models.CharField(max_length=50, choices=ACTIVITY_TYPES) activity_description = models.CharField(max_length=200) activity_duration= models.DecimalField(decimal_places=2, max_digits=4) est_attendance = models.IntegerField("Estimated attendance") # The Form class ActivityForm(forms.ModelForm): # The following line causes lockup if enabled. # With the DateTimeWidget removed, the form functions correctly except that there is no widget. #activity_date = forms.DateField(label=_('Date'), widget=DateTimeWidget) ##!!! Point of Error !!! class Meta: model = Activity fields = ('activity_date', 'activity_type', 'activity_description', 'activity_duration', 'est_attendance') def __init__(self, *args, **kwargs): super(ActivityForm, self).__init__(*args, **kwargs) instance = getattr(self, 'instance', None) edit_aid = kwargs.get('edit_aid', False) # On a different approach, the following also didn't work. #self.fields['activity_date'].widget = widgets.AdminDateWidget() # The Widget # Example referenced: http://djangosnippets.org/snippets/391/ calbtn = u""" <button id="calendar-trigger">...</button> <img src="%s/site_media/images/icon_calendar.gif" alt="calendar" id="%s_btn" style="cursor: pointer; border: 1px solid #8888aa;" title="Select date and time" onmouseover="this.style.background='#444444';" onmouseout="this.style.background=''" /> <script type="text/javascript"> Calendar.setup({ trigger : "calendar-trigger", inputField : "%s" }); </script>""" class DateTimeWidget(forms.widgets.TextInput): dformat = '%Y-%m-%d %H:%M' def render(self, name, value, attrs=None): print "DTWgt render name=%s, value=%s" % name, value if value is None: value = '' final_attrs = self.build_attrs(attrs, type=self.input_type, name=name) if value != '': try: final_attrs['value'] = \ force_unicode(value.strftime(self.dformat)) except: final_attrs['value'] = \ force_unicode(value) if not final_attrs.has_key('id'): final_attrs['id'] = u'%s_id' % (name) id = final_attrs['id'] jsdformat = self.dformat #.replace('%', '%%') cal = calbtn % (settings.MEDIA_URL, id, id, jsdformat, id) a = u'<input%s />%s' % (forms.util.flatatt(final_attrs), cal) print "render return %s " % a return mark_safe(a) def value_from_datadict(self, data, files, name): print "DTWgt value_from_datadict" dtf = forms.fields.DEFAULT_DATETIME_INPUT_FORMATS empty_values = forms.fields.EMPTY_VALUES value = data.get(name, None) if value in empty_values: return None if isinstance(value, datetime.datetime): return value if isinstance(value, datetime.date): return datetime.datetime(value.year, value.month, value.day) for format in dtf: try: return datetime.datetime(*time.strptime(value, format)[:6]) except ValueError: continue return None

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  • Coolstack MySQL Crash Unable to Restart

    - by rayblasdel
    Environment: Solaris 10 This mysql server has been up and running for 6 months now. Today all of a sudden it crashed. When typing 'mysql' as user it gives the error MYSQL" Error 2002 (HY000): Can't Connect to Local MySQL server though socket '/tmp/mysql.sock' The server try to open mysql, it stays open for 9-10 seconds and restarts the process. Below are the application logs. Application-database-mysql_mysql-csk.log [ May 30 22:37:52 Enabled. ] [ May 30 22:37:58 Rereading configuration. ] [ May 30 22:37:59 Executing start method ("/opt/coolstack/lib/svc/method/svc-cskmysql start") ] /opt/coolstack/mysql/bin/mysqld_safe --user=mysql --datadir=/dbpool1/data --pid-file=/dbpool1/data/database.soliaonline.com.pid [ May 30 22:37:59 Method "start" exited with status 0 ] [ May 30 22:38:13 Stopping because all processes in service exited. ] [ May 30 22:38:13 Executing stop method ("/opt/coolstack/lib/svc/method/svc-cskmysql stop") ] [ May 30 22:38:13 Method "stop" exited with status 0 ] [ May 30 22:38:13 Executing start method ("/opt/coolstack/lib/svc/method/svc-cskmysql start") ] /opt/coolstack/mysql/bin/mysqld_safe --user=mysql --datadir=/dbpool1/data --pid-file=/dbpool1/data/database.soliaonline.com.pid [ May 30 22:38:13 Method "start" exited with status 0 ] [ May 30 22:38:25 Stopping because all processes in service exited. ] [ May 30 22:38:25 Executing stop method ("/opt/coolstack/lib/svc/method/svc-cskmysql stop") ] [ May 30 22:38:25 Method "stop" exited with status 0 ] I am hoping someone might have run into this before and might know how to fix it. The following is an excerpt from the MySQL Error log 100530 22:44:03 mysqld_safe mysqld from pid file /dbpool1/data/database.soliaonline.com.pid ended 100530 22:44:04 mysqld_safe Starting mysqld daemon with databases from /dbpool1/data InnoDB: Log scan progressed past the checkpoint lsn 32 727170612 100530 22:44:13 InnoDB: Database was not shut down normally! InnoDB: Starting crash recovery. InnoDB: Reading tablespace information from the .ibd files... InnoDB: Restoring possible half-written data pages from the doublewrite InnoDB: buffer... InnoDB: Doing recovery: scanned up to log sequence number 32 727200901 100530 22:44:14 InnoDB: Starting an apply batch of log records to the database... InnoDB: Progress in percents: 100530 22:44:14 - mysqld got signal 11 ; This could be because you hit a bug. It is also possible that this binary or one of the libraries it was linked against is corrupt, improperly built, or misconfigured. This error can also be caused by malfunctioning hardware. We will try our best to scrape up some info that will hopefully help diagnose the problem, but since we have already crashed, something is definitely wrong and this may fail. key_buffer_size=209715200 read_buffer_size=1048576 max_used_connections=0 max_threads=10000 threads_connected=0 It is possible that mysqld could use up to key_buffer_size + (read_buffer_size + sort_buffer_size)*max_threads = 31024253 K bytes of memory Hope that's ok; if not, decrease some variables in the equation. enter code here

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  • Cached ObjectDataSource not firing Select Event even Cache Dependecy Removed

    - by John Polvora
    I have the following scenario. A Page with a DetailsView binded to an ObjectDatasource with cache-enabled. The SelectMethod is assigned at Page_Load event, depending on my User Level Logic. After assigned the selectMethod and Parameters for the ODS, if Cache not exists, then ODS will be cached the first time. The next time, the cache will be applied to the ODS and the select event don't need to be fired since the dataresult is cached. The problem is, the ODS Cache works fine, but I have a Refresh button to clear the cache and rebind the DetailsView. Am I doing correctly ? Below is my code. <asp:DetailsView ID="DetailsView1" runat="server" DataSourceID="ObjectDataSource_Summary" EnableModelValidation="True" EnableViewState="False" ForeColor="#333333" GridLines="None"> </asp:DetailsView> <asp:ObjectDataSource ID="ObjectDataSource_Summary" runat="server" SelectMethod="" TypeName="BL.BusinessLogic" EnableCaching="true"> <SelectParameters> <asp:Parameter Name="idCompany" Type="String" /> <SelectParameters> </asp:ObjectDataSource> <asp:ImageButton ID="ImageButton_Refresh" runat="server" OnClick="RefreshClick" ImageUrl="~/img/refresh.png" /> And here is the code behind public partial class Index : Page { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { ObjectDataSource_Summary.SelectMethod = ""; ObjectDataSource_Summary.SelectParameters[0].DefaultValue = ""; switch (this._loginData.UserLevel) //this is a struct I use for control permissions e pages behaviour { case OperNivel.SysAdmin: case OperNivel.SysOperator: { ObjectDataSource_Summary.SelectMethod = "SystemSummary"; ObjectDataSource_Summary.SelectParameters[0].DefaultValue = "0"; break; } case OperNivel.CompanyAdmin: case OperNivel.CompanyOperator: { ObjectDataSource_Summary.SelectMethod = "CompanySummary"; ObjectDataSource_Summary.SelectParameters[0].DefaultValue = this._loginData.UserLevel.ToString(); break; } default: break; } } protected void Page_LoadComplete(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (Cache[ObjectDataSource_Summary.CacheKeyDependency] == null) { this._loginData.LoginDatetime = DateTime.Now; Session["loginData"] = _loginData; Cache[ObjectDataSource_Summary.CacheKeyDependency] = _loginData; DetailsView1.DataBind(); } } protected void RefreshClick(object sender, ImageClickEventArgs e) { Cache.Remove(ObjectDataSource_Summary.CacheKeyDependency); } } Can anyone help me? The Select() Event of the ObjectDasource is not firing even I Remove the CacheKey Dependency

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