Search Results

Search found 11365 results on 455 pages for 'authorization basic'.

Page 373/455 | < Previous Page | 369 370 371 372 373 374 375 376 377 378 379 380  | Next Page >

  • In Corona SDK the background image always cover other images

    - by user1446126
    I'm currently making a tower defense game with Corona SDK. However, while I'm making the gaming scene, The background scene always cover the monster spawn, I've tried background:toBack() ,however it's doesn't work.Here is my code: module(..., package.seeall) function new() local localGroup = display.newGroup(); local level=require(data.levelSelected); local currentDes = 1; monsters_list = display.newGroup() --The background local bg = display.newImage ("image/levels/1/bg.png"); bg.x = _W/2;bg.y = _H/2; bg:toBack(); --generate the monsters function spawn_monster(kind) local monster=require("monsters."..kind); newMonster=monster.new() --read the spawn(starting point) in level, and spawn the monster there newMonster.x=level.route[1][1];newMonster.y=level.route[1][2]; monsters_list:insert(newMonster); localGroup:insert(monsters_list); return monsters_list; end function move(monster,x,y) -- Using pythagoras to calauate the moving distace, Hence calauate the time consumed according to speed transition.to(monster,{time=math.sqrt(math.abs(monster.x-x)^2+math.abs(monster.y-y)^2)/(monster.speed/30),x=x, y=y, onComplete=newDes}) end function newDes() currentDes=currentDes+1; end --moake monster move according to the route function move_monster() for i=1,monsters_list.numChildren do move(monsters_list[i],200,200); print (currentDes); end end function agent() spawn_monster("basic"); end --Excute function above. timer2 = timer.performWithDelay(1000,agent,10); timer.performWithDelay(100,move_monster,-1); timer.performWithDelay(10,update,-1); move_monster(); return localGroup; end and the monster just stuck at the spawn point and stay there. but, When i comment these 3 lines of code: --local bg = display.newImage ("image/levels/1/bg.png"); --bg.x = _W/2;bg.y = _H/2; --bg:toBack(); The problem disappear Any ideas??Thanks for helping

    Read the article

  • is using private shared objects/variables on class level harmful ?

    - by haansi
    Hello, Thanks for your attention and time. I need your opinion on an basic architectural issue please. In page behind classes I am using a private and shared object and variables (list or just client or simplay int id) to temporary hold data coming from database or class library. This object is used temporarily to catch data and than to return, pass to some function or binding a control. 1st: Can this approach harm any way ? I couldn't analyze it but a thought was using such shared variables may replace data in it when multiple users may be sending request at a time? 2nd: Please comment also on using such variables in BLL (to hold data coming from DAL/database). In this example every time new object of BLL class will be made. Here is sample code: public class ClientManager { Client objclient = new Client(); //Used in 1st and 2nd method List<Client> clientlist = new List<Client>();// used in 3rd and 4th method ClientRepository objclientRep = new ClientRepository(); public List<Client> GetClients() { return clientlist = objclientRep.GetClients(); } public List<Client> SearchClients(string Keyword) { return clientlist = objclientRep.SearchClients(Keyword); } public Client GetaClient(int ClientId) { return objclient = objclientRep.GetaClient(ClientId); } public Client GetClientDetailForConfirmOrder(int UserId) { return objclientRep.GetClientDetailForConfirmOrder(UserId); } } I am really thankful to you for sparing time and paying kind attention.

    Read the article

  • Advice on whether to use native C++ DLL or not: PINVOKE & Marshaling ?

    - by Bob
    What's the best way to do this....? I have some Native C++ code that uses a lot of Win32 calls together with byte buffers (allocated using HeapAlloc). I'd like to extend the code and make a C# GUI...and maybe later use a basic Win32 GUI (for use where there is no .Net and limited MFC support). (A) I could just re-write the code in C# and use multiple PINVOKEs....but even with the PINVOKES in a separate class, the code looks messy with all the marshaling. I'm also re-writing a lot of code. (B) I could create a native C++ DLL and use PINVOKE to marshal in the native data structures. I'm assuming I can include the native C++ DLL/LIB in a project using C#? (C) Create a mixed mode DLL (Native C++ class plus managed ref class). I'm assuming that this would make it easier to use the managed ref class in C#......but is this the case? Will the managed class handle all the marshaling? Can I use this mixed mode DLL on a platform with no .Net (i.e. still access the native C++ unmanaged component) or do I limit myself to .Net only platforms. One thing that bothers me about each of these options is all the marshalling. Is it better to create a managed data structure (array, string etc.) and pass that to the native C++ class, or, the other way around? Any ideas on what would be considered best practice...?

    Read the article

  • Route WCF ServiceHost to another computer

    - by I2nfo
    GoodDay, I'm not a guru when it comes to WCF, but i do know the basics. My question is, how do i create a ServiceHost on machine X, while the code is on machine Y? if i build and run this code on my dev machine(localhost) : servicehost = new ServiceHost(typeof(MyService1)); servicehost.AddServiceEndpoint(typeof(IMyService1), new NetTcpBinding(),"net.tcp://my.datacenter.com/MyApp/MyService1"); //This is normally set to localhost. What implementation must be done on the datacenter server, so that if i had to point to http://my.datacenter.com/MyApp/MyService1 , it will route the service operation to my dev machine (localhost). However, the datacenter should not be accessible via the internet. It is a possible infrastructure that we researching to see if we can create a service bus type architecture so that all our customers can invoke other customer services running on their respective machines just by calling our datacenter url. We have looked at Windows Azure, but we have our own datacenter infrasture that we wish to leverage off. Come think of it, we kind of building our own Azure, on a very very basic scale. How does one go creating this? Thanks in Advance

    Read the article

  • css layout for footer at bottom with dynamic ajax content changing height of page

    - by m42
    [Update] I actually compromised on this problem for now by foregoing the fixed footer design. It seems that there is no problem with dynamic content moving the footer and resizing containers appropriately unless the footer is fixed to the browser bottom initially. I hope others will eventually provide a great solution that encompasses the best of both worlds. I spent all day trying to get the footer to move down the page to accommodate dynamically added (via ajax) content. I really need some pointers or links because I haven't found anything that helps. Basically: My site has some pages that begin with only a text box and a button so that the total height of the content area is only a few inches beneath the header area. I don't have any problem getting the sticky footer working so that the footer appears at the bottom of the browser window even when there is very little content on screen. That same css layout works fine for other pages that have content that extends beneath the browser window. The catch: The content has to be rendered and passed to the browser with the initial load. The Problem: Any content that is added to the page via AJAX after the initial load paints down the page correctly -- but the footer remains in its initial location. Please tell me there is a fix for this. I can't post the css until checking with my boss first - if possible - and if needed, I will later - but it's just a very basic version of the many sticky footer css solutions floating around the web. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • build an API service in Django

    - by Peter
    Hi all, I want to build an API service using Django. A basic workflow goes like this: First, an http request goes to http://mycompany.com/create.py?id=001&callback=http://callback.com. It will create a folder on the server with name 001. Second, if the folder does not exist, it will be created. You get response immediately in XML format. It will look like: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <response> <status> <statusCode>0</statusCode> <message>Success</message> </status> <group id="001"/> </response> Finally, the server will do its job (i.e. creating the folder). After it is done, the server does a callback to the URL provided. Currently, I use return render_to_response('create.xml', {'statusCode': statusCode, 'statusMessage': statusMessage, 'groupId': groupId, }, mimetype = 'text/xml') to send the XML response back. I have an XML template which has statusCode, statusMessage, groupId placeholders. <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <response> <status> <statusCode>{{ statusCode }}</statusCode> <message>{{ statusMessage }}</message> </status> {% if not statusCode %} <group id="{{ groupId }}"/> {% endif %} </response> But in this way I have to put step 3 before step 2, because otherwise step 3 will not be executed if it is after return statement. Can somebody give me some suggestions how to do this? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • How do I integrate ruby on rails app with postful using POST and XML?

    - by Angela
    Hi, this is a pretty basic question but I'm not entirely clear how to do this. I am trying to use a third-party service that has RESTful service. The service is called Postful. But I'm not clear what exactly to do? http://www.postful.com/service/mail is one of the services, but to upload an image I have to post the following (but I'm not sure how I actually do this?). Thanks! > http://www.postful.com/service/upload > > Be sure to include the Content-Type > and Content-Length headers and the > image itself as the body of the > request. > > POST /upload HTTP/1.0 Content-Type: > application/octet-stream > Content-Length: 301456 > > ... file content here ... > > If the upload is successful, you will > receive a response like the following: > > <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> > <upload> > <id>290797321.waltershandy.2</id> > </upload>

    Read the article

  • Referencing not-yet-defined variables - Java

    - by user2537337
    Because I'm tired of solving math problems, I decided to try something more engaging with my very rusty (and even without the rust, very basic) Java skills. I landed on a super-simple people simulator, and thus far have been having a grand time working through the various steps of getting it to function. Currently, it generates an array of people-class objects and runs a for loop to cycle through a set of actions that alter the relationships between them, which I have stored in a 2d integer array. When it ends, I go look at how much they all hate each other. Fun stuff. Trouble has arisen, however, because I would like the program to clearly print what action is happening when it happens. I thought the best way to do this would be to add a string, description, to my "action" class (which stores variables for the actor, reactor, and the amount the relationship changes). This works to a degree, in that I can print a generic message ("A fight has occurred!") with no problem. However, ideally I would like it to be a little more specific ("Person A has thrown a rock at Person B's head!"). This latter goal is proving more difficult: attempting to construct an action with a description string that references actor and reactor gets me a big old error, "Cannot reference field before it is defined." Which makes perfect sense. I believe I'm not quite in programmer mode, because the only other way I can think to do this is an unwieldy switch statement that negates the need for each action to have its own nicely-packaged description. And there must be a neater way. I am not looking for examples of code, only a push in the direction of the right concept to handle this.

    Read the article

  • JPA concatenating table names for parent/child @OneToMany

    - by Robert
    We are trying to use a basic @OneToMany relationship: @Entity @Table(name = "PARENT_MESSAGE") public class ParentMessage { @Id @Column(name = "PARENT_ID") @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.IDENTITY) private Integer parentId; @OneToMany(fetch=FetchType.LAZY) private List childMessages; public List getChildMessages() { return this.childMessages; } ... } @Entity @Table(name = "CHILD_MSG_USER_MAP") public class ChildMessage { @Id @Column(name = "CHILD_ID") @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.IDENTITY) private Integer childId; @ManyToOne(optional=false,targetEntity=ParentMessage.class,cascade={CascadeType.REFRESH}, fetch=FetchType.LAZY) private ParentMessage parentMsg; public ParentMessage getParentMsg() { return parentMsg; } ... } ChildMessage child = new ChildMessage(); em.getTransaction().begin(); ParentMessage parentMessage = (ParentMessage) em.find(ParentMessage.class, parentId); child.setParentMsg(parentMessage); List list = parentMessage.getChildMessages(); if(list == null) list = new ArrayList(); list.add(child); em.getTransaction().commit(); We receive the following error. Why is OpenJPA concatenating the table names to APP.PARENT_MESSAGE_CHILD_MSG_USER_MAP? Of course that table doesn't exist.. the tables defined are APP.PARENT_MESSAGE and APP.CHILD_MSG_USER_MAP Caused by: org.apache.openjpa.lib.jdbc.ReportingSQLException: Table/View 'APP.PARENT_MESSAGE_CHILD_MSG_USER_MAP' does not exist. {SELECT t1.CHILD_ID, t1.PARENT_ID, t1.CREATED_TIME, t1.USER_ID FROM APP.PARENT_MESSAGE_CHILD_MSG_USER_MAP t0 INNER JOIN APP.CHILD_MSG_USER_MAP t1 ON t0.CHILDMESSAGES_CHILD_ID = t1.CHILD_ID WHERE t0.PARENTMESSAGE_PARENT_ID = ?} [code=30000, state=42X05]

    Read the article

  • Apache ReWriteEngine throwing 500 Internal Server Error for too many internal redirects... why?!?!?!

    - by Stephen G
    I'm trying to implement a new ReWrite rule on my local dev machine. I have 13 rules set up already, and all work fine (even as of this writing). However, for some reason the newest one is throwing me 500 Internal Server Errors. The ReWrite rule is: RewriteRule stuff/public_html/vault/mystuff/view/(.*) /stuff/public_html/vault/mystuff/view/index.php?stuff=$1 RewriteRule stuff/public_html/vault/mystuff/view/(.*)/ /stuff/public_html/vault/mystuff/view/index.php?stuff=$1 Checked my apache logs and got this: [Thu Jan 13 22:07:43 2011] [error] [client ::1] mod_rewrite: maximum number of internal redirects reached. Assuming configuration error. Use 'RewriteOptions MaxRedirects' to increase the limit if neccessary., referer: http://localhost:8888/stuff/public_html/vault/mystuff/all/index.php?curr=7 On the script I am trying to redirect to view/index.php?stuff=$1, there is nothing that even remotely resembles a redirect of any kind. I do have a very, very basic session verifier being called at the top of the landing script, which is as follows: //Start session session_start(); //Check whether the session variable SESS_MEMBER_ID is present or not if(!isset($_SESSION['SESS_MEMBER_ID']) || (trim($_SESSION['SESS_MEMBER_ID']) == '')) { header("location: ".$root_http.""); exit(); } However, when I access the page directly, it acts as it should, and there is no redirect. All of my other ReWrite rules and their corresponding landing pages are set up the exact same way. This is blowing my mind. Any help, PLEASE!?

    Read the article

  • How do you verify that 2 copies of a VB 6 executable came from the same code base?

    - by Tim Visher
    I have a program under version control that has gone through multiple releases. A situation came up today where someone had somehow managed to point to an old copy of the program and thus was encountering bugs that have since been fixed. I'd like to go back and just delete all the old copies of the program (keeping them around is a company policy that dates from before version control was common and should no longer be necessary) but I need a way of verifying that I can generate the exact same executable that is better than saying "The old one came out of this commit so this one should be the same." My initial thought was to simply MD5 hash the executable, store the hash file in source control, and be done with it but I've come up against a problem which I can't even parse. It seems that every time the executable is generated (method: Open Project. File Make X.exe) it hashes differently. I've noticed that Visual Basic messes with files every time the project is opened in seemingly random ways but I didn't think that would make it into the executable, nor do I have any evidence that that is indeed what's happening. To try to guard against that I tried generating the executable multiple times within the same IDE session and checking the hashes but they continued to be different every time. So that's: Generate Executable Generate MD5 Checksum: md5sum X.exe > X.md5 Verify MD5 for current executable: md5sum -c X.md5 Generate New Executable Verify MD5 for new executable: md5sum -c X.md5 Fail verification because computed checksum doesn't match. I'm not understanding something about either MD5 or the way VB 6 is generating the executable but I'm also not married to the idea of using MD5. If there is a better way to verify that two executables are indeed the same then I'm all ears. Thanks in advance for your help!

    Read the article

  • error: invalid type argument of '->' (have 'struct node')

    - by Roshan S.A
    Why cant i access the pointer "Cells" like an array ? i have allocated the appropriate memory why wont it act like an array here? it works like an array for a pointer of basic data types. #include<stdio.h> #include<stdlib.h> #include<ctype.h> #define MAX 10 struct node { int e; struct node *next; }; typedef struct node *List; typedef struct node *Position; struct Hashtable { int Tablesize; List Cells; }; typedef struct Hashtable *HashT; HashT Initialize(int SIZE,HashT H) { int i; H=(HashT)malloc(sizeof(struct Hashtable)); if(H!=NULL) { H->Tablesize=SIZE; printf("\n\t%d",H->Tablesize); H->Cells=(List)malloc(sizeof(struct node)* H->Tablesize); should it not act like an array from here on? if(H->Cells!=NULL) { for(i=0;i<H->Tablesize;i++) the following lines are the ones that throw the error { H->Cells[i]->next=NULL; H->Cells[i]->e=i; printf("\n %d",H->Cells[i]->e); } } } else printf("\nError!Out of Space"); } int main() { HashT H; H=Initialize(10,H); return 0; } The error I get is as in the title-error: invalid type argument of '->' (have 'struct node').

    Read the article

  • protocol parsing in c

    - by nomad.alien
    I have been playing around with trying to implement some protocol decoders, but each time I run into a "simple" problem and I feel the way I am solving the problem is not optimal and there must be a better way to do things. I'm using C. Currently I'm using some canned data and reading it in as a file, but later on it would be via TCP or UDP. Here's the problem. I'm currently playing with a binary protocol at work. All fields are 8 bits long. The first field(8bits) is the packet type. So I read in the first 8 bits and using a switch/case I call a function to read in the rest of the packet as I then know the size/structure of it. BUT...some of these packets have nested packets inside them, so when I encounter that specific packet I then have to read another 8-16 bytes have another switch/case to see what the next packet type is and on and on. (Luckily the packets are only nested 2 or 3 deep). Only once I have the whole packet decoded can I handle it over to my state machine for processing. I guess this can be a more general question as well. How much data do you have to read at a time from the socket? As much as possible? As much as what is "similar" in the protocol headers? So even though this protocol is fairly basic, my code is a whole bunch of switch/case statements and I do a lot of reading from the file/socket which I feel is not optimal. My main aim is to make this decoder as fast as possible. To the more experienced people out there, is this the way to go or is there a better way which I just haven't figured out yet? Any elegant solution to this problem?

    Read the article

  • Understanding Hibernate saveOrUpdate and the Persistence Life Cycle

    - by Stephano
    The books that I've read regarding hibernate are, at best, reference tomes. They very seldom have good code examples, so I tend to use online resources for those needs. However, I've always had a problem understanding the basic idea of hibernate persistence. I've read the books and understand the concepts, but in practice, I often see results that I don't understand. Perhaps you all can help, as you have in the past. Let's look at a simple example of a dog and a cat that are friends. This isn't a rare occurrence. It also has the benefit of being much more interesting than my business case. We want a function called "saveFriends" that takes a dog name and a cat name. We'll save the Dog and then the Cat. For this example to work, the cat is going to have a reference back to the dog. I understand this isn't an ideal example, but it's cute and works for our purposes. FriendService.java public int saveFriends(String dogName, String catName) { Dog fido = new Dog(); Cat felix = new Cat(); fido.name = dogName; fido = animalDao.saveDog(fido); felix.name = catName; [ex.A]felix.friend = fido; [ex.B]felix.friend = animalDao.getDogByName(dogName); animalDao.saveCat(felix); } AnimalDao.java (extends HibernateDaoSupport) public Dog saveDog(Dog dog) { getHibernateTemplate().saveOrUpdate(dog); return dog } public Cat saveCat(Cat cat) { getHibernateTemplate().saveOrUpdate(cat); return cat; } public Dog getDogByName(String name) { return (Dog) getHibernateTemplate().find("from Dog where name=?", name).get(0); } Now, assume for a minute that I would like to use either example A or example B to save my friend. Is one better than the other to use? I'll understand if neither of those examples work, but please explain why.

    Read the article

  • Common Lisp condition system for transfer of control

    - by Ken
    I'll admit right up front that the following is a pretty terrible description of what I want to do. Apologies in advance. Please ask questions to help me explain. :-) I've written ETLs in other languages that consist of individual operations that look something like: // in class CountOperation IEnumerable<Row> Execute(IEnumerable<Row> rows) { var count = 0; foreach (var row in rows) { row["record number"] = count++; yield return row; } } Then you string a number of these operations together, and call The Dispatcher, which is responsible for calling Operations and pushing data between them. I'm trying to do something similar in Common Lisp, and I want to use the same basic structure, i.e., each operation is defined like a normal function that inputs a list and outputs a list, but lazily. I can define-condition a condition (have-value) to use for yield-like behavior, and I can run it in a single loop, and it works great. I'm defining the operations the same way, looping through the inputs: (defun count-records (rows) (loop for count from 0 for row in rows do (signal 'have-value :value `(:count ,count @,row)))) The trouble is if I want to string together several operations, and run them. My first attempt at writing a dispatcher for these looks something like: (let ((next-op ...)) ;; pick an op from the set of all ops (loop (handler-bind ((have-value (...))) ;; records output from operation (setq next-op ...) ;; pick a new next-op (call next-op))) But restarts have only dynamic extent: each operation will have the same restart names. The restart isn't a Lisp object I can store, to store the state of a function: it's something you call by name (symbol) inside the handler block, not a continuation you can store for later use. Is it possible to do something like I want here? Or am I better off just making each operation function explicitly look at its input queue, and explicitly place values on the output queue?

    Read the article

  • What is the process involved in viewing a webservice in a browser from within visual studio?

    - by Sam Holder
    I have created a new VS2008 ASP.Net Web service project, with the default name WebService1. If I right click on the Service1.asmx file and select 'View in Browser' what are the processes that go on to make this happen? I am asking because I have a situation where when I run this from a visual studio project started in our development shell (which sets up a common build environment) I cannot get the web service to show up in the browser. It starts the asp.net development server and creates a single file: C:\WINDOWS\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727\Temporary ASP.NET Files\root\c43ddc22\268ae91b\hash\hash.web but when I start it from a stand alone project i get a whole slew of files in here: C:\WINDOWS\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727\Temporary ASP.NET Files\root\edad4eee\d198cf0e\App_Web_defaultwsdlhelpgenerator.aspx.cdcab7d2.vicgkf94.dll C:\WINDOWS\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727\Temporary ASP.NET Files\root\edad4eee\d198cf0e\service1.asmx.cdcab7d2.compiled etc etc I am trying to debug this but not really getting anywhere. i have inspected the output from VS but the only option I get is for the build output, which is basic and doesn't really contain any information that is useful. I have tried running both versions with DebugView running but no output there either. I would like to know if there are any log files I could look at, or if anyone has any suggestions on how I might be able to debug what is going wrong here? For completeness the output I get when it doesn't work is: Parser Error Description: An error occurred during the parsing of a resource required to service this request. Please review the following specific parse error details and modify your source file appropriately. Parser Error Message: Could not create type 'WebService1.Service1'. Source Error: Line 1: Source File: /Service1.asmx Line: 1 Version Information: Microsoft .NET Framework Version:2.0.50727.3603; ASP.NET Version:2.0.50727.3082

    Read the article

  • Git from localhost to remotehost with a team of three

    - by Mark McDonnell
    Hi, I'm completely new to Git. I've only just worked out how to use Github in a basic way (e.g. push my local file changes to Github - so I've not done 'pulling' down of content from Github and 'merging' it into my localhost version or anything like that). I had a look over at this existing question - Git: localhost remote development remote production - but I think it may have been a bit advanced for me at this stage as I didn't quite understand the terminology that most of the people were using. What I would like to achieve is to have a local server set-up that my team of developers can all 'push' to/'pull' from etc. And then have that local server upload any updated files automatically to our web server so we could see the updates live in the browser. I'm happy to get a server set-up in the office running Mac OSX Server and then installing Git on it and then getting the devs to write a shell script to push to the remote server but only if it was fairly easy for the devs local git to push to this new local server. I'm not a network engineer so I don't know what would need to be set-up for that to work, I know obviously we could set-up the server to be accessible via a local ip address like 192.168.0.xxx but not sure how that works with pushing to a git repository on that server? Would that literally be something like doing this on my local machine: git remote add MyGitFile git://192.168.0.xxx/MyGitFile.git ? Any ideas or advice you can give to a total Git newbie trying to help his team get a better work flow. Kind regards, Mark

    Read the article

  • SVN 409 conflict on commits and updates

    - by bhefny
    We have been using SVN for the past year now and when we migrated to an online server we started getting this error: Commit: Commit failed (details follow): File or directory 'x.php' is out of date; try updating resource out of date; try updating CHECKOUT of '/!svn/ver/491/x.php': 409 Conflict (http://svn.example.com) We are currently using SmartSVN 6.5 and we have also tested with RapidSVN & Syncro (but we can't use tortoise as we have a lot of Ubunutu users) at the begining I though this How do you fix an SVN 409 Conflict Error would help, but it didn't we are still facing the same error and it's even more absurd now. the main problem is that after you get the error, you can't shake it of. Updating doesn't solve, reverting doesn't solve. You are just stuck with the error. The only thing that could work is removing the file from SVN and adding your version but that would be against why we are using SVN in the first place This is our apache config (and yes autoversioning is ON) <Location /> DAV svn SVNPath /home/example/svn SVNAutoversioning on AuthType Basic AuthName "Access Restricted" AuthUserFile /home/example/svn-auth-file Require valid-user </Location> <Directory /> <Files ~ "^\.ht"> Order allow,deny Allow from all Satisfy All </Files> <Files ~ "^error_log"> Order allow,deny Allow from all Satisfy All </Files> </Directory> And here are some observation: We don't receive conflicts anymore, we just get this 409 conflict you can somehow avoid the error if you always update before committing When committing a modified file + a newly added file, you get the error. As if the added file incremented the version by one and then you are committing another file with a older version. Please advise, we are about to go insane

    Read the article

  • Thread Safety of C# List<T> for readers

    - by ILIA BROUDNO
    I am planning to create the list once in a static constructor and then have multiple instances of that class read it (and enumerate through it) concurrently without doing any locking. In this article http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/6sh2ey19.aspx MS describes the issue of thread safety as follows: Public static (Shared in Visual Basic) members of this type are thread safe. Any instance members are not guaranteed to be thread safe. A List can support multiple readers concurrently, as long as the collection is not modified. Enumerating through a collection is intrinsically not a thread-safe procedure. In the rare case where an enumeration contends with one or more write accesses, the only way to ensure thread safety is to lock the collection during the entire enumeration. To allow the collection to be accessed by multiple threads for reading and writing, you must implement your own synchronization. The "Enumerating through a collection is intrinsically not a thread-safe procedure." Statement is what worries me. Does this mean that it is thread safe for readers only scenario, but as long as you do not use enumeration? Or is it safe for my scenario?

    Read the article

  • Program structure in long running data processing python script

    - by fmark
    For my current job I am writing some long-running (think hours to days) scripts that do CPU intensive data-processing. The program flow is very simple - it proceeds into the main loop, completes the main loop, saves output and terminates: The basic structure of my programs tends to be like so: <import statements> <constant declarations> <misc function declarations> def main(): for blah in blahs(): <lots of local variables> <lots of tightly coupled computation> for something in somethings(): <lots more local variables> <lots more computation> <etc., etc.> <save results> if __name__ == "__main__": main() This gets unmanageable quickly, so I want to refactor it into something more manageable. I want to make this more maintainable, without sacrificing execution speed. Each chuck of code relies on a large number of variables however, so refactoring parts of the computation out to functions would make parameters list grow out of hand very quickly. Should I put this sort of code into a python class, and change the local variables into class variables? It doesn't make a great deal of sense tp me conceptually to turn the program into a class, as the class would never be reused, and only one instance would ever be created per instance. What is the best practice structure for this kind of program? I am using python but the question is relatively language-agnostic, assuming a modern object-oriented language features.

    Read the article

  • jQuery Hover Panes Flickering on child

    - by Dirge2000
    OK. Here's my basic HTML structure: <ul class="tabNavigation"> <li> <a href="#">Main Button</a> <div class="hoverTab"> <a href="#">Link Within Div</a> </div> </li> </ul> And here's my jQuery command: $('ul.tabNavigation li').mouseenter(function() { $('ul.tabNavigation div.hoverTab').hide(); $(this).children('div.hoverTab').stop(false, true).fadeIn('fast'); }); $('ul.tabNavigation li').mouseleave(function() { $('ul.tabNavigation div.hoverTab').hide(); $(this).children('div.hoverTab').stop(false, true).show().fadeOut('fast'); }); When you mouseenter/mouseleave the LI, the child div is supposed to appear/disappear, but the problem is the A tag within the hoverTab div causes the tab to flicker - as if, by rolling over the link, the mouse has left the LI... Any suggestions?

    Read the article

  • Prgramming jquery slider

    - by Mirage
    I want to program the jquery slider myself rather than using any plugin. But i want to know the basic idea. e.g I have <ul> <li> <div>content </div> </li> <li> <div>content </div> </li> <li> <div>content </div> </li> <li> <div>content </div> </li> <li> <div>content </div> </li> </ul> I want to show horzontally only three items at one time and there will be arroes left and right end. I know jquery basics. But i don't know how should i do in steps. I mean when click on right arrow The left div should slide left and new div com right should come left ANy ideas in sequence what i need to do

    Read the article

  • What should be taught in a "Fundamentals of programming" course at university?

    - by Dervin Thunk
    I have started a new question (see here), because I think the topic is of importance in a more general form. The question is now: If you were a professor at a Computer Science Dept. in some university, what would make it into your course? This is a programming course, second term, first year computer science/computer engineering. Remember you have a limited amount of time, and students are of different levels of competence, and some may be scientists, but some will also go on to be programmers in companies of different kinds. You have to cater to all. Bonus: What language? (Although see this question for my current thoughts about this...) Maybe you want to attach a course outline from some university? See here for an even more general question about this. Answer: I can't really summarize this post... I guess it was too subjective. However, it looks like we have to cover the history of computing up to a certain extent, computer architecture (memory, registers, whatever), C, and finally some basic algos and data structures in a problem solving fashion. This will be the bare bones of the course. Thanks all. I will accept the most voted up answer to close the thread, as it should be done.

    Read the article

  • Problem with OnSubmit in Validation plugin in jQuery

    - by novellino
    Hello, I an quite new to jQuery and I have a problem while trying to create a form. I am using the Validation plugin for validate the email (one the form's field). When I click the Submit button I want to call my own function because I want to save the data in an XML file. This is my button: (as I understood the plugin uses "submit" for understand the button) <input type="submit" name="submit" class="submit" id="submit_btn" value="Send"/> and here is the script for the validation: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { //this is my form $("#contactForm").validate(); /*save the valid data in the xml*/ $(".submit").click(function() { var email = $("input#email").val(); var subject = $("input#subject").val(); var message = $("textarea#message").val(); if (email == "" || !$("#contactForm").valid()) { return false; } var dataString = 'email='+ email + '&subject=' + subject + '&message=' + message; //alert("DATA: " +dataString); $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "SaveData.jsp", data: dataString, success: function(data){} }); return false; }); }); </script> In general it works ok but I have two basic problems. When I click the button in the beginning having all the form empty, I get no message for the field required. Also when the data are valid and I am doing the submit, the form does not become clear after the submit. If I deleted this script code, these actions are working properly but I can not save the data! Does anyone know what is wrong? Thanks a lot!

    Read the article

  • Integer array or struct array - which is better?

    - by MusiGenesis
    In my app, I'm storing Bitmap data in a two-dimensional integer array (int[,]). To access the R, G and B values I use something like this: // read: int i = _data[x, y]; byte B = (byte)(i >> 0); byte G = (byte)(i >> 8); byte R = (byte)(i >> 16); // write: _data[x, y] = BitConverter.ToInt32(new byte[] { B, G, R, 0 }, 0); I'm using integer arrays instead of an actual System.Drawing.Bitmap because my app runs on Windows Mobile devices where the memory available for creating bitmaps is severely limited. I'm wondering, though, if it would make more sense to declare a structure like this: public struct RGB { public byte R; public byte G; public byte B; } ... and then use an array of RGB instead of an array of int. This way I could easily read and write the separate R, G and B values without having to do bit-shifting and BitConverter-ing. I vaguely remember something from days of yore about byte variables being block-aligned on 32-bit systems, so that a byte actually takes up 4 bytes of memory instead of just 1 (but maybe this was just a Visual Basic thing). Would using an array of structs (like the RGB example` above) be faster than using an array of ints, and would it use 3/4 the memory or 3 times the memory of ints?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 369 370 371 372 373 374 375 376 377 378 379 380  | Next Page >