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  • mmap only needed pages of kernel buffer to user space

    - by axeoth
    See also this answer: http://stackoverflow.com/a/10770582/1284631 I need something similar, but without having to allocate a buffer: the buffer is large, in theory, but the user space program only needs to access some parts of it (it mocks some registers of a hardware). As I cannot allocate with vmalloc_user() such a large buffer (kernel 32 bit, in embedded environment, no swap...), I followed the same approach as in the quoted answer, trying to allocate only those pages that are really requested by the user space. So: I use a my_mmap() function for the device file (actually, is the .mmap field of a struct uio_info) to set up the fields of the vma, then, in the vm_area_struct's .fault field (also named my_fault()), I should return a page. except that: In the my_fault() method of vm_area_struct, I cannot obtain a page through: vmf->page=vmalloc_to_page(my_buf + (vmf->pgoff << PAGE_SHIFT)); since there is no allocated buffer: my_buf = vmalloc_user(MY_BUF_SIZE); fails with "allocation failed: out of vmalloc space - use vmalloc= to increase size." (and there is no room or swap to increase that vmalloc= parameter). So, I would need to get a page from the kernel and fill the vmf->page field. How to allocate a page (I assume that the offset of the page is known, as it is vm->pgoff). What base memory should I use instead of my_buf? PS: I also did set up the vma->flags |= VM_NORESERVE; (in the my_mmap()), but not sure if it helps. Is there any vmalloc_user_unreserved()-like function? (let's say, lazy allocation) Also, writing 1 to /proc/sys/vm/overcommit_memory and large values (eg 500) to /proc/sys/vm/overcommit_ratio before trying to my_buf=vmalloc_user(<large_size>) didn't work.

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  • Where is the "ListViewItemPlaceholderBackgroundThemeBrush" located?

    - by Dimi Toulakis
    I have a problem understanding one style definition in Windows 8 metro apps. When you create a metro style application with VS, there is also a folder named Common created. Inside this folder there is file called StandardStyles.xaml Now the following snippet is from this file: <!-- Grid-appropriate 250 pixel square item template as seen in the GroupedItemsPage and ItemsPage --> <DataTemplate x:Key="Standard250x250ItemTemplate"> <Grid HorizontalAlignment="Left" Width="250" Height="250"> <Border Background="{StaticResource ListViewItemPlaceholderBackgroundThemeBrush}"> <Image Source="{Binding Image}" Stretch="UniformToFill"/> </Border> <StackPanel VerticalAlignment="Bottom" Background="{StaticResource ListViewItemOverlayBackgroundThemeBrush}"> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Title}" Foreground="{StaticResource ListViewItemOverlayForegroundThemeBrush}" Style="{StaticResource TitleTextStyle}" Height="60" Margin="15,0,15,0"/> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Subtitle}" Foreground="{StaticResource ListViewItemOverlaySecondaryForegroundThemeBrush}" Style="{StaticResource CaptionTextStyle}" TextWrapping="NoWrap" Margin="15,0,15,10"/> </StackPanel> </Grid> </DataTemplate> What I do not understand here is the static resource definition, e.g. for the Border Background="{StaticResource ListViewItemPlaceholderBackgroundThemeBrush}" It is not about how you work with templates and binding and resources. Where is this ListViewItemPlaceholderBackgroundThemeBrush located? Many thanks for your help. Dimi

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  • What makes deployment successful for some users and unsuccessful for others?

    - by Julien
    I am trying to deploy a Visual C++ application (developed with Microsoft Visual Studio 2008) using a Setup and Deployment Project. After installation, users on some target computers get the following error message after launching the application executable: “This application has failed to start because the application configuration is incorrect. Reinstalling the application may fix the problem.” Another user after installation could run the application properly. I cannot find the root cause of this problem, despite spending several hours on the Visual Studio help files and online forums (most postings date back to 2006). Does anyone at Stack Overflow have a suggestion? Thanks in advance. Additional details appear below. The application uses FLTK 1.1.9 for a GUI library, as well as some Boost 1.39 libraries (regex, lexical_cast, date_time, math). I made sure I am trying to deploy the release version (not the debug version) of the application. The Runtime library in the Code Generation settings is Multi-threaded DLL (/MD). The dependency walker of myapp.exe lists the following DLLs: wsock32.dll, comctl32.dll, kernel32.dll, user32.dll, gdi32.dll, shell32.dll, ole32.dll, mvcp90.dll, msvcr90.dll. In the Setup and Deployment Project, I add the following DLLs to the File System on Target Machine: fltkdlld.dll, and a folder named Microsoft.VC90.CRT with msvcm90.dll, msvcp90.dll, mcvcr90.dll and Microsoft.VC90.CRT.manifest. The installation process on the target computers getting the error message requires having the .Net Framework 3.5 installed first. Any suggestion? Thanks in advance!

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  • How to emulate mod_rewrite in PHP

    - by Tyler Crompton
    I have a few URLs that I want to map to certain files via PHP. Currently, I am just using mod_rewrite in Apache. However, my application is getting too large for the rewriting to be done with regular expressions. So I created a file router.php that does the rewriting. I understand to do a redirect I could just send the Location: header. However, I don't always want to do a redirect. For example, I may want /api/item/ to map to the file /herp/derp.php relative to the document root. I need to preserve the HTTP method as well. "No problem," I thought. I made my .htaccess have the following snippet. RewriteEngine On RewriteRule ^api/item/$ /cgi-bin/router.php [L] And my router.php file looks as follows: <?php $uri = parse_url($_SERVER['REQUEST_URI']); $query = isset($uri['query']) ? $uri['query'] ? array(); // some code that modifies the query require_once "{$_SERVER['DOCUMENT_ROOT']}/herp/derp.php?" . http_build_query($query); ?> However, this doesn't work, because the OS is looking for a file named derp.php?some=query. How can I simulate a rewrite rule such as RewriteRule ^api/item/$ /herp/derp/ [L] in PHP. In other words, how do I tell the server to process a different URL than requested and preserve the query and HTTP method without causing a redirect? Note: Using variables set in router.php is less than desirable and is bad structure since it's only supposed to be responsible for handling URLs. I am open to using a light-weight third party solution.

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  • Can't see *all* databases in a remote SQL Server instance

    - by George
    Yesterday I posted a related question on StackOverflow. This problem involved not being able to see a SQL Server 2008 instance on another PC. I am not sure why adding the port number enabled me to see a SQL Server that I could not otherwise see, since the port number that I specified was, after all, the default port. Now I notice that I have another problem. While I can connect to the remote SQL 2008 Server instance, I cannot see all the databases in the instance. I am trying to connect to the 2008 instance from another PC using SQL Server 2008 Mgt Studio. I am connecting from a Windows 7 Ultimate PC to a Windows XP Pro PC. I suspect that my problem has something to do with not all database in the remote instance having the same version. For example, I "upgraded" a a SL 2005 database to 2008 by doing a backup frm 2005 and importing it into 2008. When I realized that this was not one of the database that I could see from my other PC, I noticed that the compatability level of the imported was still 2005, so I changed it to 2008. Still I could not see the database. I am sure that this is relevant: I just noticed that on my remote server, the sql node instance node, named "sql2008" says "version 10" when I am on the remote serfver, but when I connect to the sql2008 remote instance fron my local PC, the connection is shown locally as being a "SQL Servr version 8.0" instance. I suspect that locally, I am only being shown databases that are somehow in the remote 2008 instance but have not been upgraded. I guess I don't know what constitutes an upgraded database and I don not know who to connect to see all the databases, even if this requires multiple connections from the source PC.

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  • WPF: How to bind and update display with DataContext

    - by Am
    I'm trying to do the following thing: I have a TabControl with several tabs. Each TabControlItem.Content points to PersonDetails which is a UserControl Each BookDetails has a dependency property called IsEditMode I want a control outside of the TabControl , named ToggleEditButton, to be updated whenever the selected tab changes. I thought I could do this by changing the ToggleEditButton data context, by it doesn't seem to work (but I'm new to WPF so I might way off) The code changing the data context: private void tabControl1_SelectionChanged(object sender, SelectionChangedEventArgs e) { if (e.Source is TabControl) { if (e.Source.Equals(tabControl1)) { if (tabControl1.SelectedItem is CloseableTabItem) { var tabItem = tabControl1.SelectedItem as CloseableTabItem; RibbonBook.DataContext = tabItem.Content as BookDetails; ribbonBar.SelectedTabItem = RibbonBook; } } } } The DependencyProperty under BookDetails: public static readonly DependencyProperty IsEditModeProperty = DependencyProperty.Register("IsEditMode", typeof (bool), typeof (BookDetails), new PropertyMetadata(true)); public bool IsEditMode { get { return (bool)GetValue(IsEditModeProperty); } set { SetValue(IsEditModeProperty, value); SetValue(IsViewModeProperty, !value); } } And the relevant XAML: <odc:RibbonTabItem Title="Book" Name="RibbonBook"> <odc:RibbonGroup Title="Details" Image="img/books2.png" IsDialogLauncherVisible="False"> <odc:RibbonToggleButton Content="Edit" Name="ToggleEditButton" odc:RibbonBar.MinSize="Medium" SmallImage="img/edit_16x16.png" LargeImage="img/edit_32x32.png" Click="Book_EditDetails" IsChecked="{Binding Path=IsEditMode, Mode=TwoWay}"/> ... There are two things I want to accomplish, Having the button reflect the IsEditMode for the visible tab, and have the button change the property value with no code behind (if posible) Any help would be greatly appriciated.

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  • How do I get my Flash CS4 buttons to direct the user to another URL?

    - by goldenfeelings
    My apologies if this has been fully addressed before, but I've read through several other threads and still can't seem to get my file to work. My actionscript code is at the bottom of this message. I created it using instructions from the Adobe website: http://help.adobe.com/en_US/ActionScript/3.0_ProgrammingAS3/WS5b3ccc516d4fbf351e63e3d118a9b90204-7fd7.html I believe I have all of my objects set to the correct type of symbol (button) and all of my instances are named appropriately (see screenshot here: www.footprintsfamilyphoto.com/wp-content/themes/Footprints/images/flash_buttonissue.jpg) Action Script here. Let me know if you have suggestions! (Note: I am very new to Flash): stop (); function families(event:MouseEvent):void { var targetURL:URLRequest = new URLRequest("http://www.footprintsfamilyphoto.com/portfolio/families"); navigateToURL(targetURL); } bc_btn1.addEventListener(MouseEvent.CLICK, families); bc_btn2.addEventListener(MouseEvent.CLICK, families); function families(event:MouseEvent):void { var targetURL:URLRequest = new URLRequest("http://www.footprintsfamilyphoto.com/portfolio/families"); navigateToURL(targetURL); } f_btn1.addEventListener(MouseEvent.CLICK, families); f_btn2.addEventListener(MouseEvent.CLICK, families); function families(event:MouseEvent):void { var targetURL:URLRequest = new URLRequest("http://www.footprintsfamilyphoto.com/portfolio/families"); navigateToURL(targetURL); } cw_btn1.addEventListener(MouseEvent.CLICK, families); cw_btn2.addEventListener(MouseEvent.CLICK, families);

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  • Assemblies mysteriously loaded into new AppDomains

    - by Eric
    I'm testing some code that does work whenever assemblies are loaded into an appdomain. For unit testing (in VS2k8's built-in test host) I spin up a new, uniquely-named appdomain prior to each test with the idea that it should be "clean": [TestInitialize()] public void CalledBeforeEachTestMethod() { AppDomainSetup appSetup = new AppDomainSetup(); appSetup.ApplicationBase = @"G:\<ProjectDir>\bin\Debug"; Evidence baseEvidence = AppDomain.CurrentDomain.Evidence; Evidence evidence = new Evidence( baseEvidence ); _testAppDomain = AppDomain.CreateDomain( "myAppDomain" + _appDomainCounter++, evidence, appSetup ); } [TestMethod] public void MissingFactoryCausesAppDomainUnload() { SupportingClass supportClassObj = (SupportingClass)_testAppDomain.CreateInstanceAndUnwrap( GetType().Assembly.GetName().Name, typeof( SupportingClass ).FullName ); try { supportClassObj.LoadMissingRegistrationAssembly(); Assert.Fail( "Should have nuked the app domain" ); } catch( AppDomainUnloadedException ) { } } [TestMethod] public void InvalidFactoryMethodCausesAppDomainUnload() { SupportingClass supportClassObj = (SupportingClass)_testAppDomain.CreateInstanceAndUnwrap( GetType().Assembly.GetName().Name, typeof( SupportingClass ).FullName ); try { supportClassObj.LoadInvalidFactoriesAssembly(); Assert.Fail( "Should have nuked the app domain" ); } catch( AppDomainUnloadedException ) { } } public class SupportingClass : MarshalByRefObject { public void LoadMissingRegistrationAssembly() { MissingRegistration.Main(); } public void LoadInvalidFactoriesAssembly() { InvalidFactories.Main(); } } If every test is run individually I find that it works correctly; the appdomain is created and has only the few intended assemblies loaded. However, if multiple tests are run in succession then each _testAppDomain already has assemblies loaded from all previous tests. Oddly enough, the two tests get appdomains with different names. The test assemblies that define MissingRegistration and InvalidFactories (two different assemblies) are never loaded into the unit test's default appdomain. Can anyone explain this behavior?

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  • IE "Microsoft JScript runtime error: Object expected"

    - by Stephen Borg
    Hi there, I have problems with regards to javascript only when using IE. The error I am getting is "Microsoft JScript runtime error: Object expected" and I have no idea why. It is then jumping into the JQuery 1.4.2 file, without giving me a proper error message. All I am doing is simply reading on page load the raw URL, and getting a query string named Search. Using that in an AJAX call to return products and put then into a DIV. No biggies, but somehow IE is managing to blow my page up :-( Any ideas? Code as follows : <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function (e) { $('.boxLoader').show(); function getParameterByName(name) { name = name.replace(/[\[]/, "\\\[").replace(/[\]]/, "\\\]"); var regexS = "[\\?&]" + name + "=([^&#]*)"; var regex = new RegExp(regexS); var results = regex.exec(window.location.href); if (results == null) return ""; else return decodeURIComponent(results[1].replace(/\+/g, " ")); } var Search; Search = getParameterByName("search"); $('#searchCriteria').text(Search); $.get("/Handlers/processProducts.aspx", { SearchCriteria: Search }, function (data) { $('#innercontent').html(data); $('#innercontent').fadeIn(200); $('.boxLoader').fadeOut(200); }); $('#searchBox').live("click", function () { $.get("/Handlers/processProducts.aspx", { SearchCriteria: $('#searchCriteria').val() }, function (data) { $('#innercontent').html(data); $('#innercontent').fadeIn(200); $('.boxLoader').fadeOut(200); }); }); }); </script>

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  • How to obtain the panel within a treeview (WPF)

    - by sperling
    How can one obtain the panel that is used within a TreeView? I've read that by default TreeView uses a VirtualizingStackPanel for this. When I look at a TreeView template, all I see is <ItemsPresenter />, which seems to hide the details of what panel is used. Possible solutions: 1) On the treeview instance ("tv"), from code, do this: tv.ItemsPanel. The problem is, this does not return a panel, but an ItemsPanelTemplate ("gets or sets the template that defines the panel that controls the layout of the items"). 2) Make a TreeView template that explicitly replaces <ItemsPresenter /> with your own ItemsControl.ItemsPanel. I am providing a special template anyways, so this is fine in my scenario. Then give a part name to the panel that you place within that template, and from code you can obtain that part (i.e. the panel). The problem with this? see below. (I am using a control named VirtualTreeView which is derived from TreeView, as is seen below): , use following: -- [sorry folks about poor formatting here, this is my first post, I tried 4 spaces for code... doesn't seem to work?] [I stripped out all clutter here for visibility...] The problem with this is: this immediately overrides any TreeView layout mechanism. Actually, you just get a blank screen, even when you have TreeViewItems filling the tree. Well, the reason I want to get a hold of the panel is to take some part in the MeaureOverride, but without going into all of that, I certainly do not want to rewrite the book of how to layout a treeview. I.e., doing this the step #2 way seems to invalidate the point of even using a TreeView in the first place. Sorry if there is some confusion here, thanks for any help you can offer.

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  • DuplicateKeyException in LINQ, but I've set auto increment and auto sync

    - by Fritos
    I'm getting a DuplicateKeyException error in my C# code. I've set Auto Generated = true, and Auto-Sync = OnInsert in my dbml. I'm not even touching the PK field in any manually written code (as seen below [My primary key field is actually called PK]). using (DeviceExerciseDataDataContext context = new DeviceExerciseDataDataContext()) { foreach(Data tgudData in data.Data) { tgd = new tableData(); tgd.FK = key; tgd.Time = tgudData.TimeStamp; tgd.Calories = Convert.ToInt32(tgudData.Calories); tgd.HeartRate = tgudData.AvgHr; tgd.BenchAngle = tgudData.Angle; tgd.WorkoutTarget = 0; tgd.Reps = tgudData.Reps; context.tableDatas.InsertOnSubmit(tgd); } context.SubmitChanges(); } This is the code for the column in the designer (columns are named PK and FK) [global::System.Data.Linq.Mapping.ColumnAttribute(Storage="_PK", AutoSync=AutoSync.OnInsert, DbType="Int NOT NULL", IsPrimaryKey=true, IsDbGenerated=true)] public int PK { get { return this._PK; } set { if ((this._PK != value)) { this.OnPKChanging(value); this.SendPropertyChanging(); this._PK = value; this.SendPropertyChanged("PK"); this.OnPKChanged(); } } } [global::System.Data.Linq.Mapping.ColumnAttribute(Storage="_FK", DbType="Int")] public System.Nullable<int> FK { get { return this._FK; } set { if ((this._FK != value)) { this.OnFKChanging(value); this.SendPropertyChanging(); this._FK = value; this.SendPropertyChanged("FK"); this.OnFKChanged(); } } }

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  • unable to set fields of a collection-property elements after changing their order (elements becoming

    - by Jaroslav Záruba
    Hello I want to change order of objects in a collection, and then to access+modify fields of those items. Unfortunately the items somehow become 'deleted'. This is what I do... if(someCondition) { MainEvent mainEvent = pm.getObjectById(MainEvent.class, mainEventKey); /* * events in the original order * MainEvent.subEvents field is not in default fetch group, * therefore I also tried to add the named group into the * persistenceManeger fetch plan, no difference * (mainEvent is not instance of the Event sub/class BTW) */ List<Event> subEvents = mainEvent.getSubEvents(); // re-arrange the events according to keysOrdered { Map<Key, Event> eventMap = new HashMap<Key, Event>(); for(Event event : subEvents) eventMap.put(event.getKey(), event); List<Event> eventsOrdered = new LinkedList<Event>(); for(Key eventKey : keysOrdered) eventsOrdered.add(eventMap.put(eventKey, eventMap.get(eventKey))); // } // put the re-arranged items back into the collection property { subEvents.clear(); subEvents.addAll(eventsOrdered); // } pm.makePersistent(mainEvent); eventsOrdered = subEvents; } else eventsOrdered = getEventsUsingAlternateApproach(); /* * so by now the mainEvent variable does not exist; * could it be this lead the persistence manager to mark * my events as abandoned/obsolete/invalid/deleted...? */ for(Event event : eventsOrdered) event.setDate(new Date()); // -> "Cannot write fields to a deleted object" What am I doing wrong please?

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  • d3: Coloring Multiple Lines from Nested Data

    - by diet_coke
    I'm currently assembling some line graphs with circles at the datapoints from arrays of JSON objects formatted like so: var data = [{ "name": "metric1", "datapoints": [ [10.0, 1333519140], [48.0, 1333519200] ] }, { "name": "metric2", "datapoints": [ [48.0, 1333519200], [12.0, 1333519260] ] }] I want to have a color for each metric, so I'm trying to color them based on the index of the object within the array data. The code I have currently for just placing the circles looks like: // We bind an svg group to each metric. var metric_groups = this.vis.selectAll("g.metric_group") .data(data).enter() .append("g") .attr("class", "metric_group"); // Then bind a circle for each datapoint. var circles = metric_groups.selectAll("circle") .data(function(d) { return d.datapoints; }); circles.enter().append("circle") .attr("r", 3.5); Now if I change that last bit to something like: circles.enter().append("circle") .attr("r", 3.5); .style("fill", function(d,i) { return i%2 ? "red" : "blue"; } I get alternating red and blue circles, as could be expected. Taking some advice from Nested Selections : 'Nesting and Index', I tried: circles.enter().append("circle") .attr("r", 3.5); .style("fill", function(d,i,j) { return j%2 ? "red" : "blue"; } Which doesn't work (j is undefined), presumably because we are in the named property datapoints, rather than an array element. How might I go about doing the coloring that I want without changing my data structure? Thanks!

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  • Castle, sharing a transient component between a decorator and a decorated component

    - by Marius
    Consider the following example: public interface ITask { void Execute(); } public class LoggingTaskRunner : ITask { private readonly ITask _taskToDecorate; private readonly MessageBuffer _messageBuffer; public LoggingTaskRunner(ITask taskToDecorate, MessageBuffer messageBuffer) { _taskToDecorate = taskToDecorate; _messageBuffer = messageBuffer; } public void Execute() { _taskToDecorate.Execute(); Log(_messageBuffer); } private void Log(MessageBuffer messageBuffer) {} } public class TaskRunner : ITask { public TaskRunner(MessageBuffer messageBuffer) { } public void Execute() { } } public class MessageBuffer { } public class Configuration { public void Configure() { IWindsorContainer container = null; container.Register( Component.For<MessageBuffer>() .LifeStyle.Transient); container.Register( Component.For<ITask>() .ImplementedBy<LoggingTaskRunner>() .ServiceOverrides(ServiceOverride.ForKey("taskToDecorate").Eq("task.to.decorate"))); container.Register( Component.For<ITask>() .ImplementedBy<TaskRunner>() .Named("task.to.decorate")); } } How can I make Windsor instantiate the "shared" transient component so that both "Decorator" and "Decorated" gets the same instance? Edit: since the design is being critiqued I am posting something closer to what is being done in the app. Maybe someone can suggest a better solution (if sharing the transient resource between a logger and the true task is considered a bad design)

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  • Why does Hibernate 2nd level cache only cache queries within a session?

    - by Synesso
    Using a named query in our application and with ehcache as the provider, it seems that the query results are tied to the session within the cache. Any attempt to access the value from the cache for a second time results in a LazyInitializationException We have set lazy = true for the following mapping because this object is also used by another part of the system which does not require the reference... and we want to keep it lean. <class name="domain.ReferenceAdPoint" table="ad_point" mutable="false" lazy="false"> <cache usage="read-only"/> <id name="code" type="long" column="ad_point_id"> <generator class="assigned" /> </id> <property name="name" column="ad_point_description" type="string"/> <set name="synonyms" table="ad_point_synonym" cascade="all-delete-orphan" lazy="true"> <cache usage="read-only"/> <key column="ad_point_id" /> <element type="string" column="synonym_description" /> </set> </class> <query name="find.adpoints.by.heading">from ReferenceAdPoint adpoint left outer join fetch adpoint.synonyms where adpoint.adPointField.headingCode = ?</query> Here's a snippet from our hibernate.cfg.xml <property name="hibernate.cache.provider_class">net.sf.ehcache.hibernate.SingletonEhCacheProvider</property> <property name="hibernate.cache.use_query_cache">true</property> It doesn't seem to make sense that the cache would be constrained to the session. Why are the cached queries not usable outside of the (relatively short-lived) sessions?

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  • Django: How can I identify the calling view from a template?

    - by bryan
    Short version: Is there a simple, built-in way to identify the calling view in a Django template, without passing extra context variables? Long (original) version: One of my Django apps has several different views, each with its own named URL pattern, that all render the same template. There's a very small amount of template code that needs to change depending on the called view, too small to be worth the overhead of setting up separate templates for each view, so ideally I need to find a way to identify the calling view in the template. I've tried setting up the views to pass in extra context variables (e.g. "view_name") to identify the calling view, and I've also tried using {% ifequal request.path "/some/path/" %} comparisons, but neither of these solutions seems particularly elegant. Is there a better way to identify the calling view from the template? Is there a way to access to the view's name, or the name of the URL pattern? Update 1: Regarding the comment that this is simply a case of me misunderstanding MVC, I understand MVC, but Django's not really an MVC framework. I believe the way my app is set up is consistent with Django's take on MVC: the views describe which data is presented, and the templates describe how the data is presented. It just happens that I have a number of views that prepare different data, but that all use the same template because the data is presented the same way for all the views. I'm just looking for a simple way to identify the calling view from the template, if this exists. Update 2: Thanks for all the answers. I think the question is being overthought -- as mentioned in my original question, I've already considered and tried all of the suggested solutions -- so I've distilled it down to a "short version" now at the top of the question. And right now it seems that if someone were to simply post "No", it'd be the most correct answer :) Update 3: Carl Meyer posted "No" :) Thanks again, everyone.

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  • Macports and virtualenv site-packages Fallback

    - by Streeter
    I've installed django and python as this link suggested with macports. However, I'd like to use virtualenv to install more packages. My understanding is that if I do not pass in the --no-site-packages to virtualenv, I should get the currently installed packages in addition to whatever packages I install into the virtual environment. Is this correct? As an example, I've installed django through macports and then create a virtual environment, but I cannot import django from within that virtual environment: [streeter@mordecai]:~$ mkvirtualenv django-test New python executable in django-test/bin/python Installing setuptools............done. ... (django-test)[streeter@mordecai]:~$ pip install django-debug-toolbar Downloading/unpacking django-debug-toolbar Downloading django-debug-toolbar-0.8.4.tar.gz (80Kb): 80Kb downloaded Running setup.py egg_info for package django-debug-toolbar Installing collected packages: django-debug-toolbar Running setup.py install for django-debug-toolbar Successfully installed django-debug-toolbar Cleaning up... (django-test)[streeter@mordecai]:~$ python Python 2.6.1 (r261:67515, Jun 24 2010, 21:47:49) [GCC 4.2.1 (Apple Inc. build 5646)] on darwin Type "help", "copyright", "credits" or "license" for more information. >>> import django Traceback (most recent call last): File "<stdin>", line 1, in <module> ImportError: No module named django >>> So I can install packages into the virtual environment, but it isn't picking up the global site-packages. Or am I not doing something correctly / missing something / misunderstanding how virtualenv works? I've got Mac OS 10.6 (Snow Leopard), have updated my macports packages and am using macports' python26 (via python_select python26).

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  • Ant: use include and exclude together

    - by Ken
    OK, this seems like it should be really simple. I'm using Apache Ant 1.8, and I have a target which does: <delete file="output/program.tar.bz2"/> <tar basedir="input" destfile="output/program.tar.bz2" compression="bzip2"> <tarfileset dir="input"> <include name="goodfolder1/**"/> <include name="goodfolder2/**"/> <exclude name="**/badfile"/> <exclude name="**/*.badext"/> </tarfileset> </tar> I want it to make a .tar.bz2 of input/goodfolder1 and input/goodfolder2, excluding files named "badfile", and excluding files with extension ".badext". It's giving me a .tar.bz2, but it's including badfile and *.badext -- the excludes seem to be ignored. The order of include/exclude doesn't seem to make a difference. I tried wrapping the includes/excludes in a (the docs say it's implicit?), but it made no difference. I'm sure there's something simple I'm missing, since the manual has a very similar example, though in a somewhat different context. EDIT: It looks like it could be related to the dir="input" attribute: it's adding everything in "input", and then adding everything in the tarfileset to that. Files I want appear twice in the program.tar.bz2, but files that are excluded only appear once. But dir is mandatory, and I don't see how this is different from the examples in the manual.

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  • How to let one external stylsheet selectively overrule the other

    - by Ferdy
    I'm stunned by a simple thing that I want to accomplish but does not work. I have a website and I want it to support themes, which are a named set of CSS + images. No matter which theme is selected, I always include the main CSS file, which is the default theme. On top of that I'm loading a second stylesheet, the one that is theme-specific, like so: <link rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" href="css/main.css" title=main" media="screen" /> <link rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" href="themes/<?= $style ?>/css/<?= $style ?>.css" title="<?= $style ?>" media="screen" /> My idea is that the theme specific css should not be a full copy of the main css file. Instead, it should only contain CSS rules that overrule those of the main.css file. This makes themes much smaller and easier to maintain. I thought I could simply load two external stylesheets after each other and that for conflicting rules it will always use the theme specific css, the second file. However, it does not seem to work. If I make a dramatic styling change in the theme file then it has no effect. If I then comment the main CSS file, the theme CSS does have effect. Was I too naive in expecting this to work like this? I know I can use inline styles to overrule anything, but I prefer a setup like this if possible.

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  • Main Function Error C++

    - by Arjun Nayini
    I have this main function: #ifndef MAIN_CPP #define MAIN_CPP #include "dsets.h" using namespace std; int main(){ DisjointSets s; s.uptree.addelements(4); for(int i=0; i<s.uptree.size(); i++) cout <<uptree.at(i) << endl; return 0; } #endif And the following class: class DisjointSets { public: void addelements(int x); int find(int x); void setunion(int x, int y); private: vector<int> uptree; }; #endif My implementation is this: void DisjointSets::addelements(int x){ for(int i=0; i<x; i++) uptree.push_back(-1); } //Given an int this function finds the root associated with that node. int DisjointSets::find(int x){ //need path compression if(uptree.at(x) < 0) return x; else return find(uptree.at(x)); } //This function reorders the uptree in order to represent the union of two //subtrees void DisjointSets::setunion(int x, int y){ } Upon compiling main.cpp (g++ main.cpp) I'm getting these errors: dsets.h: In function \u2018int main()\u2019: dsets.h:25: error: \u2018std::vector DisjointSets::uptree\u2019 is private main.cpp:9: error: within this context main.cpp:9: error: \u2018class std::vector \u2019 has no member named \u2018addelements\u2019 dsets.h:25: error: \u2018std::vector DisjointSets::uptree\u2019 is private main.cpp:10: error: within this context main.cpp:11: error: \u2018uptree\u2019 was not declared in this scope I'm not sure exactly whats wrong. Any help would be appreciated.

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  • Prepare community images for google image search indexing

    - by Vittorio Vittori
    Hi, I'm trying to understand how can I do to let my site be reachable from google image search spiders. I like how last.fm solution, and I thought to use a technique like his staff do to let google find artists images on their pages. When I'm looking for an artist and I search it on google image search, as often as not I find an image from last.fm artists page, I make an example: If I search the band Pure Reason Revolution It brings me here, the artist's image page http://www.last.fm/music/Pure+Reason+Revolution/+images/4284073 Now if I take a look to the image file, i can see it's named: http://userserve-ak.last.fm/serve/500/4284073/Pure+Reason+Revolution+4.jpg so if I try to undertand how the service works I can try to say: http://userserve-ak.last.fm/serve/ the server who serve the images 500/ the selected size for the image 4284073/ the image id for database Pure+Reason+Revolution+4.jpg the image name I thought it's difficult to think the real filename for the image is Pure+Reason+Revolution+4.jpg for image overwrite problems when an user upload it, in fact if I digit: http://userserve-ak.last.fm/serve/500/4284073.jpg I probably find the real image location and filename With this tecnique the image is highly reachable from search engines and easily archived. My question is, does exist some guide or tutorial to approach on this kind of tecniques, or something similar?

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  • How to link a table to a field a in MySQL server

    - by Nek
    I have this data from a xml file: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <words> <id>...</id> <word>...</word> <meaning>...</meaning> <translation> <ES>...</ES> <PT>...</PT> </translation> </words> This forms the table named "words", which has four fields ("id","word","meaning" and "translation"). On the other hand, the "translation" field can hold several languages like ES,PT,EN,JA,KO,etc... So I create a table ("words.translation", one field is "id" and the others ones are languages ids like "ES","PT",...). I'm sorry for this newby question, but I'd like to know a couple of things about this one-to-many relationship. How to join (or link?) this two tables in MySQL? What information does the "translation" field in the "words" table has to store? How is the sql query to get all the word information (JOIN syntax used?) Thanks for your patience.

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  • If the dependency is a unique snapshot version and install is called, what does maven select?

    - by chrsk
    Imagine two projects. The first is the framework-core project which is in version 1.1.0 and has several snapshot builds. The other is the example-business project which has the following dependency to framework-core on the build-iteration number 9. <dependency> <groupId>org.example</groupId> <artifactId>framework-core</artifactId> <version>1.1.0-20100518.134928-9</version> </dependency> What happens if mvn install is called on the framework-core? I found out that the artifact is copied to the folder and is named to *.1.1.0-SNAPSHOT.jar (as expected). This lead me to the assumption that this version is only used if even this 1.1.0-SNAPSHOT version is defined as dependency and not the precise build. To test something local without deploying it to the maven repository: call mvn install, change the dependency to 1.1.0-SNAPSHOT -- and the artifact just installed is used? Or is it possible to overwrite the specific build (with using the install lifecycle phase)?

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  • Reducing a set of non-unique elements via transformations

    - by Andrey Fedorov
    I have: 1) a "starting set" of not-necessarily-unique elements, e.x. { x, y, z, z }, 2) a set of transformations, e.x. (x,z) = y, (z,z) = z, x = z, y = x, and 3) a "target set" that I am trying to get by applying transformations to the starting set, e.x. { z }. I'd like to find an algorithm to generate the (possibly infinite) possible applications of the transformations to the starting set that result in the target set. For example: { x, y, z, z }, y => x { x, x, z, z }, x => z { z, x, z, z }, x => z { z, z, z, z }, (z, z) => z { z, z, z }, (z, z) => z { z, z }, (z, z) => z { z } This sounds like something that's probably an existing (named) problem, but I don't recognize it. Can anyone help me track it down, or suggest further reading on something similar?

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  • sql server mdf file database attachment

    - by jnsohnumr
    hello all i'm having a bear of a time getting visual studio 2010 (ultimate i think) to properly attach to my database. it was moved from original spot to #MYAPP#/#MYAPP#.Web/App_Data/#MDF_FILE#.mdf. I have three instances of sql server running on this machine. i have tried to replace the old mdf file with my new one and cannot get the connectionstring right for it. what i'm really wanting to do is to just open some DB instance, run a DB create script. Then I can have a DB that was generated via my edmx (generate database from model) in silverlight business application (c#) right now, when i go to server explorer in VS, choose add new connection, choose MS SQL Server Database FIle (SqlClient), choose my file location (app_data directory), use windows authentication, and hit the Test Connection button I get the following error: Unable to open the physical file "". Operating system error 5: "5(Access Denied.)". An attempt to attach to an auto-named database for file"" failed. A database with the same name exists, or specified file cannot be opened, or it is located on UNC share. The mdf file was created on the same machine by connecting to (local) on the sql server management studio, getting a new query, pasting in the SQL from the generated ddl file, adding a CREATE DATABASE [NcrCarDatabase]; GO before the pasted SQL, and executing the query. I then disconnected from the DB in management studio, closed management studio, navigated to the DATA directory for that instance, and copying the mdf and ldf files to my application's app_data folder. I am then trying to connect to the same file inside visual studio. I hope that gives more clarity to my problems :). Connection string is: Data Source=.\SQLEXPRESS;AttachDbFilename=C:\SourceCode\NcrCarDatabase\NcrCarDatabase.Web\App_Data\NcrCarDatabase.mdf;Integrated Security=True;Connect Timeout=30;User Instance=True

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